Review of Syllabus for the post of

ASI (Service Quota)

COMPOSITION OF EXAMINATION:

1. Existing Subjects

General Ability:

Including Current Affairs, Pakistan Affairs, English & Basic Computer Studies.

2. Law & Policing:

The examination comprises of following subjects based on multiple choice is considered:-

1. Legal Studies & Police Laws
2. Basic Criminal Investigation

iii. Police Practical Work

1. Human Rights
2. Criminal Justice System of Pakistan
3. Police Software & Apps

Note: Detailed course content is given below

DETAILED COURSE CONTENT QF PROPOSED SUBJECTS RELATING TO LAW & POLICING

LEGAL STUDIES

PAKISTAN PENAL CODE

Sr#	Content
1.	Introduction: Section 1 to 4
2.	Definitions
3.	General Exceptions: Sections 76 to 106
4.	Abetment: Sections 107 to 111
5.	Criminal Conspiracy: Sections 120 A & 120 B
6.	Offences Against the Public Tranquility: Sections 141 to 149, 159, 160
7.	Offences Relating To Public Servants: Section 161 to 165-8, 170
8.	Contempt Of The Lawful Authority Of Public Servants: Section 174 to 188
9.	False Evidence And Offences Against Public Justice: Section 191 to 195, 201 202 203 204 212 to 216-A 221 to 228
10.	Offences Affecting The Public Health, Safety, Convenience, Decency And Morals: Section 279 282 285 286 290 292 293 294
11.	Offences Relating To Religion: Section 295 to Section 298-C
12.	Offences Affecting The Human Body: Section 299 to Section 338-E
13.	Wrongful Restraint And Wrongful Confinement, Kidnapping And Abduction, Rape & Unnatural Offences: Section 339 to 377-B
14.	Offences Against Property: Section 378 to Section 399, 403 to 412, 415 to 420, 425 to 427, 441 to 462
15.	Offences Relating To Documents And Trade Or Property Marks: Section: 462-3, 462- K, 463, 464, 467, 468, 469, 471, 489-A to 489-F
16.	Defamation: Section 499, 500
17.	Criminal Intimidation, Insult And Annoyance: Section 503 to Section 509
18.	Attempts To Commit Offences Section 511

LOCAL & SPECIAL LAWS

Sr#	Content
1.	Punjab Control of Sound System Regulation Act 2015 Section: 2 to 10
2.	Punjab Information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 Section: 2 to 14
3.	Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015 Section: 2 to 15
4.	Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, 1960 with Amended 2015 Section: 3 4 5 6 6-A 8 8-A & 16
5.	Control of Narcotics Substance Act 1997 with Amendment 2021 Section: 2 to 9, 17, 20, 21, 22, 23, 25 to 28
6.	Punjab Protection Against Harassment of Women at Work Place Act, 2012 Section: 1 to 8
7.	Punjab Prohibition of Kite Flying Amendment Act, 2009 Section: 2 3 4 A-A 4-3 4-C, 5 & 7
8.	Juvenile Justice System Act 2018 Amended Section: 2 to 18
9.	Prohibition of Expressing Matters On Wall Act, 2015 Section 2, 2-A & 3
10.	Trafficking in Person Act 2018 Section: 2 to 14
11.	Anti-Rape (Investigation & Trial) Act, 2021 Section: 2 to 18 22 24
12.	Transgender Person (Protection of Rights Act 2018) along with rules 2020. Section: 234 569 11 13 14 15 17 Rules 2020 11 12 13 14 15 16 20 & 21
13.	The Protection of Parents Ordinance 2021 Section: 2 3 4 5
14.	The Torture & Custodial Death (Prevention & Punishment) Act 2022 Section: 2 to 11 14 15 17 19
15.	Motor Vehicle Ordinance: Section. 3 4 92 94 99 99A 100 113 115.
16.	Arms Ordinance 1965: Section. 3 4 8 & 13.
17.	E & D Rules 1975 Sections: 3 to 9

CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE

Sr#	Content
1.	Definitions:
2.	Classes of Criminal Courts and Magistrates: Section 6, 9, 30, 32, 36
3.	Justice of the Peace: Section 22, 22-A, 22-B, 25
4.	Aid and information to the magistrate and police: section 42 to 45
5.	Arrest of accused person: section: 46 to 67
6.	Summons, warrants & proclamation: sections 68 to 90
7.	Summons to produce document or other thing: section 94, 95t 96
8.	General provisions relating to searches: section 100 to 103
9.	Prevention of offences: section 106 to 110
10.	Unlawful assemblies of maintenance of public peace and security: section 127 to 132-a
11.	Temporary order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger: section 144
12.	Dispute as to immovable property: section 145
13.	Preventive action of the Olice: section 149 to section 152
14.	Information to the police and their powers to investigate: section 154 to 176, 244-a, 364
15.	Social rules of evidence: section 509 to section 512
16.	Disposal of property: section 523 550
17.	Power of senior officers of police: section 551

QANOON-E-SHAHADAT

Sr#	Content
1.	Preliminary: article 1,2, definitions
2.	Of witnesses: article 3 6 7 8 16,17
3.	Of relevancy of facts: article ,37, 38, 40, 46, 46a, 59, 67, 68
4.	Of oral evidence: article 70, 71
5.	Of documenta evidence: article 87
6.	Of the burden of roof: article 117,121
7.	Of the examination of 136, 146, 148
8.	Impeaching credit of witnesses: article 151
9.	Refreshing memory: article 155,157
10.	Miscellaneous: article 164

POLICE RULES & POLICE ORDER 2002

Sr#	Content
POLICE ORDER 2002
1.	Article: 2, 3, 4, 7, 18, 18-A, 21, 24, 26, 120, 121, 122, 123, 124, 125, 134, 135, 136, 137, 155, 156, 157 & 167
POLICE RULES 1934
1.	Chapter 1: organization rules: 12, 21
2.	Chapter 6: arms & ammunition rules 10, 22
3.	Chapter 14: discipline & conduct Rules: 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,10,12,20,21,26,27,28,30,32,33,34,54,55
4.	Chapter 16: punishment rules: 3,4,8,12,18,19,21,33,34,35,36,37
5.	Chapter 21. Prevention & detective organization rule: 4, 5, 15, 22
6.	Chapter 22. Police station rule: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 11, 12, 14, 15, 16, 18, 30, 45 to 79
7.	Chapter 23. Prevention of offence Rule: 1, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 30, 32
8.	Chapter 24. Information to police Gule: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
9.	Chapter 25. Investigation rule: 1 to 58
10.	Chapter 26. Arrest, escape & custody Rule: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 13, 14, 16, 18, 18-a, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 31, 32

BASIC CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION

Sr#	Content
1.	Introduction of Crime Scene
2.	Importance of Crime Scene
3.	Introduction of First Responder
4.	First Responder — Communication
5.	First Responder – Safety Equipment
6.	First Responder- First Aid
7.	First Responder — Cordoning
8.	First Responder – Protection of Evidence
9.	First Responder — Documentation
10.	First Responder — Arrest
11.	First Responder As Investigation Officer
12.	Documentation at Crime Scene by 1.0
13.	Reconstruction of Crime Scene
14.	Detailed Analysis of Check List
15.	Final Review of Crime Scene

FORENSIC SCIENCE & EVIDENCE HANDLING

Sr#	Content
1.	Introduction to Forensic Science
2.	Material evidence and its kinds
3.	Crime Scene Photography
4.	Legal References
5.	Fire Arms
6.	Introduction and History of DNA
7.	Foot Prints
8.	Burglar Tools and Tool Marks
9.	Questioned Documents
10.	Restoration of obliterated Number on Metallic Surface
11.	Types of Finger Prints Pattern
12.	personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
13.	Cordoning of Crime Scene
14.	Protection of Crime Scene
15.	SOP for Protection of Crime Scene
16.	Punjab Forensic Science Agency Handbook
17.	Search Techniques for material evidence
18.	Cordoning (Safe Path)
19.	Preparation of Log Sheet
20.	Protection of perishable evidence
21.	Preparation of Parcel and Transportation
22.	Packaging material
23.	Chain of Custody
24.	Mobile Phone Forensics
25.	Audio video Analysis CCTV Analysis Audio Video Comparison Forensic Video Analysis

POLICE PRACTICAL WORK

POLICE STATION RECORD KEEPING

Sr#	Content
1.	Registers/Forms of Police Station Register No. 1 to 25
2.	Preparation of Crime Statistics Chart

SECURITY & INTELLIGENCE SECURITY

Sr#	Content
1.	Basic Rules of Security.
2.	Preparation and Implementation of security plan
3.	Security Gadgets (Walk through gates, Metal detector, Luggage scanner, Sniffer dogs & Explosive detector etc.
4.	Security of P.S & Sensitive Installations
5.	Vulnerable Places & Special Events
6.	VIP and WIP Security
7.	Security Sweeping, Route Survey & Security
8.	Protection and Formation of Motorcade

INTELLIGENCE

Sr#	Content
1.	Sources of Intelligence & Intelligence Collection
2.	Informant and Informant handling.
3.	Surveillance & Surveillance Techniques.
4.	Intelligence data collection & analysis.
5.	Practical exercises on collection of intelligence.
6.	Intelligence re ort writing.

CRIME PREVENTION STRATEGIES

Sr#	Content
1.	Patrolling
2.	Naka Bandi
3.	Beat Management
4.	Raid (Theory)
5.	Stop and Search of persons vehicles and Buildings.
6.	Preventive Actions (107/150, 107/151, 55/109, 55/110, CR.PC, Action under habitual offender Act & MPO etc. 145 Cr.PC

ANTI-RIOT TECHNIQUES

Sr#	Content
1.	Mob & Its Kinds
2.	How to Control Mob
3.	Methods to Use Power
4.	Anti-Riot Gadgets
5.	Formations
6.	Physical Techniques
7.	Tear Gas Introduction Use & Kinds
8.	Tear Gas Gun
9.	Gas Cartridges
10.	Armed Vehicles
11.	Team Work
12.	SOPs
13.	Duties of Team Incharge
14.	Practical Exercises
15.	Pedestrian Management in emergences
16.	Major Event Management

COMMUNITY POLICING

Sr#	Content
1.	Community Policing & Community Engagement
2.	Important Stakeholders
3.	Dealing with Elected Representative
4.	Liaison with Trade Union & Chamber of Commerce in city areas
5.	Dealing with Bar Councils
6.	Media Handling, Press Conference
7.	Introduction of Collective Bargaining Agents (CBA)
8.	Relation with Collective Bargaining Agents
9.	Proper use of Collective Bargaining Agents
10.	Use of Bargaining Agents in prevention of crime
11.	Public Complaint and Its Management
12.	Handling of 1787

FIRST AID

Sr#	Content
1.	First Aid and Objectives
2.	Basic Principles of First Aid (D.R.A.B.C Method)
3.	Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
4.	Measures of artificial respiration and cardiac conduction
5.	Artificial methods of resuscitation
6.	Irregular breathing / B. C First Aid Techniques
7.	Injuries
8.	Bleeding and its treatment
9.	Bone fracture and its treatment
10.	Fracture treatment in first aid
11.	Burning and Scalding
12.	Bandages, its use and methods
13.	Shock and unconsciousness
14.	Heart attack first aid
15.	Heatstroke
16.	Poisoning
17.	Diabetic emergency
18.	Principle of triage
19.	Emergency Medical Technician (E.M.T.)
20.	First aid kit
21.	Nutrition and Health
22.	Health problems faced by police officers, their causes and solutions
23.	Lifestyle and health problems of a police officer

CONSTITUTION OF PAKISTAN & FUNDAMENTAL HUMAN RIGHTS

Sr#	Content
1.	Fundamental Human Rights under Constitution of Pakistan (Article 1 to 28)
2.	Writ jurisdiction under Constitution of Pakistan (Article 184 (iii) & 199)
3.	Interfaith, Intersect & Inter-Religious Harmony

CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

Sr#	Content
1.	Criminal Justice System of Pakistan Police Prosecution Courts Prisons Probation & Parole

INVESTIGATION TECHNIOUES (THEORY)

Sr#	Content
1.	OVERVIEW OF THE CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION PROCESS IN PAKISTAN Start of an investigation Investigation at the crime scene Search and Recoveries Arrest and release of suspects
2.	THE START OF AN INVESTIGATION How does an Investigation start? Overview of the start of an Investigation The FIR Registration Process and Evidential Value of a FIR Actions to avoid during Registration of a FIR Investigation in Jurisdiction of other Police Station
3.	POWER OF INVESTIGATION Powers of Investigation Officer (1.0) Power of the SHO Officer Inchar e of a Police Station
4.	CRIME SCENE MANAGEMENT The Crime Scene and its importance Types of Crime Scenes (Primary & Secondary) Arrival & Management of the Crime Scene Victim and Witness Statements Identification, Preservation and Collecting of Physical Evidence at Crime Scene Chain of Custody Case Law concerning Collection of Evidences form Crime Sence Site Plan and its Purpose Use of photography and Video to supplement the Site Plan and investigation Documentation relating to the Crime Scene
5.	SEARCH AND SEIZURE Introduction Types of Searches Guidelines / Rules to be followed when conducting Search and Seizure The Requirement of Presence of Witnesses during Search How to Conduct an Organized Search Search for Persons Wrongfully Confined Documents Relating to Search
6.	EVIDENCE Definition of Evidences Bes Evidence Rule Classification of Evidences Types of Evidences for investigation Purposes Importance of Evidences in Reconstruction of a crime Scene
7.	ARREST, REMAND AND BAIL Introduction The Power to Arrest When to Arrest Planning an Arrest Process of Making an Arrest Search of Accused Persons Rights of the Accused at the time of Arrest Documentation relating to Arrest Transfer of Arrested Persons Initial 24 Hours Remand Interrogation Statement /Confession by the Accused Arrest Report Bail Absconding Proceedings
8.	IDENTIFICATION PARADE Significance of identification Parade When is it Conducted How Is it Conducted What arc the Rules to be followed when conducting the identification Parade? What is the Evidentiary Value of Identification Parade? What can be the impact of delay in conducting an identification Parade? Memo of Identification of Parade Checklist of Identification Parade
9.	POLICE REPORT UNDER SECTION 173 CR. PC Introduction Police Report under Section 173 Cr.PC for Persons recommended to Stand Trial —the Charge Sheet or Challan Documents to be attached with Charge Sheet How a Final Charge Sheet / Challan is submitted? Submission of Supplementary Challan after submitting Final or Interim Challan Police Re ort u s 173 Cr.PC for Cancellation or as Untraced

I.T SKILLS LEVEL-I

Sr#	Content
1.	Microsoft Word
2.	Microsoft Excel
3.	Microsoft Power Point

SOCIAL MEDIA MONITORING, CRIME PREVENTION AND DETECTION

Sr#	Content
1.	Use of Social Media in Crime Prevention ad Detention
2.	Use of Social Media as an Information Tool in Policing
3.	Punjab Police Social Media Policing

PUNJAB POLICE SOFTWARE(s) & APPS

Sr#	Content
1.	Information technology and policing
2.	Special initiative police station
3.	Human Resource Management Information S stem HRMIS
4.	Complaint Management Information System CMS
5.	Police Station Record Management System (PSRMS) a. FIR b. Digital Case Diaries c. Report writing
6.	Anti-Vehicle Liftin S stem AVLS
7.	Tenant Registration System TRS
8.	Smart Eye
9.	Complaint Management System 1787
10.	Crime Mapping
11.	Khidmat Markaz
12.	Mobile Applications a. Rasta Application b. Women Safety Application c. Missing Child Application d. PKM Portal e. Tourist Facilitation Application f. Punjab Police WhatsApp Service g. Punjab Police Public App

 

THE PUNJAB INFORMATION OF TEMPORARY RESIDENTS ACT 2015

1. What is the main purpose of The Punjab Information of Temporary Residents Act 2015?
2. A) To regulate the ownership of rental properties
   B) To prevent unauthorized occupation of land
   C) To collect and share information about temporary residents for crime prevention
   D) To impose tax on rental properties
   Answer: C
   Explanation: The preamble of the Act clearly states that its purpose is to obtain information about temporary residents, maintain a database, and use this information for crime prevention and investigation.
3. What is the maximum time allowed for a landlord to provide tenant information to the police according to the Act?
4. A) 7 days
   B) 10 days
   C) 15 days
   D) 30 days
   Answer: C
   Explanation: Section 3(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that a landlord, tenant, or property dealer must provide information within 15 days of possession.
5. Under The Punjab Information of Temporary Residents Act, 2015, within what time frame must a hotel manager report a guest’s arrival to the police?
6. A) 6 hours
   B) 12 hours
   C) 24 hours
   D) 48 hours
   Answer: C
   Explanation: Section 3(2) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 requires that the owner or manager of a hotel or hostel must inform the police within 24 hours.
7. Who is responsible for verifying a tenant’s identity before renting out a property??
8. A) Only the landlord
   B) Only the tenant
   C) Only the police
   D) Landlord, manager, or property dealer
   Answer: D
   Explanation: Section 5(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that a landlord, manager, or property dealer must verify the identification of a tenant or guest before renting out a premises.
9. What document must a landlord obtain from a tenant before renting a property?
10. A) Driver’s license
    B) Utility bill
    C) CNIC or passport copy
    D) Signed affidavit
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 5(2) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 requires landlords and managers to obtain a copy of the CNIC or passport of tenants or guests.
11. Who is responsible for ensuring that a guest or tenant is not carrying illegal weapons?
12. A) Police
    B) Only the landlord
    C) Landlord, manager, or property dealer
    D) District administration
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 8(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that the landlord, manager, or property dealer must ensure that the tenant or guest is not in possession of unlicensed firearms or explosives.
13. Under what circumstances can a guest stay at a hostel managed by an institution?
14. A) with prior written permission of the manager
    B) only if they pay additional rent
    C) If they are a family member of a student
    D) No restrictions apply
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Section 4(1) of the Act states that a non-student or non-staff guest cannot stay in an institutional hostel without the manager’s prior written permission.
15. How can the information collected under this Act help in solving crimes?
16. A) Only robbery cases
    B) All civil disputes
    C) Only terrorism-related cases
    D) Terrorism and other offences under the Pakistan Penal Code
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 6(3) of the Act states that the information can be used for investigating terrorism and other offences under the Pakistan Penal Code, 1860.
17. Who is authorized to inspect rented premises, hostels, or hotels under this Act?
18. A) Any police officer
    B) A police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
    C) A property dealer
    D) The landlord only
    Answer: B
    Explanation: The Section 7(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 allows a Sub-Inspector or above to inspect premises and obtain necessary information.
19. What is the penalty for failing to provide required tenant or guest information to the police?
20. A) Rs. 5,000 fine
    B) Rs. 10,000 fine and/or 6 months imprisonment
    C) Only a warning
    D) Permanent closure of property
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 11 states that a person violating Sections 3, 4, 5, or 8 can face up to 6 months in prison and a fine between Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 100,000.
21. The nature of the offences under this Act is_____________?
22. A) Non-cognizable and bailable
    B) Cognizable and non-bailable
    C) Cognizable and bailable
    D) Civil offence only
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 12(1) states that offences under this Act are cognizable and non-bailable.
23. Who has the authority to compound an offence under the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states?
24. A) Any police officer
    B) Only the court
    C) The Government or an authorized officer
    D) The accused person
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 13(1) of the Act states that the Government or an authorized officer may compound an offence, subject to payment of an administrative penalty.
25. Under what condition is an offence under this Act NOT compoundable?
26. A) If the accused is a first-time offender
    B) If the accused has been previously convicted under this Act
    C) If the police recommend compounding
    D) If the tenant agrees to pay a fine
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 13(2) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that if an accused was previously convicted under this Act, they cannot compound the offence again.
27. What must a hotel manager do if a guest carries a licensed weapon?
28. A) Confiscate the weapon
    B) Refuse entry to the guest
    C) Enter it in hotel records and inform the police
    D) Allow unrestricted possession
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 8(2) states that a hotel or hostel manager must record licensed weapons and inform the police.
29. Who is responsible for maintaining a database of tenants and guests?
30. A) The property dealer
    B) The landlord
    C) The police
    D) The local government
    Answer: C
    Explanation: According to the Act the police shall maintain a database of tenants and guests.
31. How often must each Head of District Police submit a report to the Government?
32. A) Monthly
    B) Quarterly
    C) Annually
    D) Biannually
    Answer: A
    Explanation: According to Section 14(1) the Head of District Police must submit a monthly report.
33. What is the deadline for the Government to present an annual implementation report in the Provincial Assembly?
34. A) 31 December
    B) 31 March
    C) 1 July
    D) No deadline is specified
    Answer: B
    Explanation: According to Section 14(2) of the Act the Government must present the report by 31 March each year.
35. Under which law is this Act enforced?
36. A) Pakistan Penal Code
    B) Code of Criminal Procedure
    C) Police Order 2002
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 15 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act states that the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law, including PPC and CrPC.
37. Who has the power to make rules under this of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015?
38. A) Punjab Police
    B) Government of Punjab
    C) Supreme Court
    D) Federal Government
    Answer: B
    Explanation: The Government of Punjab may make rules to implement the Act according to Section 16 states that.
39. Who can change the time limits for providing tenant or guest information to the police?
40. A) The police station in charge
    B) The court
    C) The Government of Punjab
    D) The property dealer association
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 9 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act states that the Government may extend the timelines for providing information through a notification in the official Gazette.
41. Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with this Act through inspections and verifications?
42. A) Local magistrates
    B) The property dealers
    C) The police
    D) The Home Department
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 7(2) of the Act states that the police are responsible for ensuring compliance through spot inspections and local verifications.
43. What information can a Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP) request under this Act?
44. A) The financial records of the tenant
    B) Ownership or title documents of rented premises or hostels
    C) The travel history of guests
    D) The personal email records of tenants
    Answer: B
    Explanation: according to Section 10 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act a police officer not below the rank of DSP may call for information about ownership or title of a rented premises or hostel from relevant authorities.
45. If a property dealer provides tenant information to the police, who else remains responsible for the same information?
46. A) Only the landlord
    B) Only the tenant
    C) No one else is responsible
    D) Both landlord and tenant, unless the information has already been provided
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 3(3) states that if one responsible person (landlord, tenant, or property dealer) provides the required information, the others are not liable for non-compliance.
47. What type of rented premises does this Act apply to?
48. A) Only commercial buildings
    B) Only residential buildings
    C) Any building let out for residential purposes or used as a temporary place of abode
    D) Only government-owned properties
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 2(k) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act defines rented premises as any building or part of a building let out for residential purposes or used as a temporary place of abode, excluding hotels and hostels.
49. What is the consequence if a landlord, manager, or property dealer allows a tenant or guest to stay without verifying their CNIC or passport?
50. A) They must pay a service charge
    B) They may face imprisonment and a fine
    C) They will be issued a warning only
    D) They must notify the tenant and request identification later
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 5(1) & Section 11 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act state that failure to verify the identification of tenants or guests can result in imprisonment up to six months and a fine ranging from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 100,000.
51. If a guest checks into a hotel but does not have their CNIC or passport, what should the manager do?
52. A) Allow the guest to stay without verification
    B) Refuse accommodation until valid identification is provided
    C) Accept any other form of ID
    D) Report to the police immediately
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 5(1) of the Act clearly states that a manager must verify a guest’s CNIC or passport before allowing them to stay.
53. Which of the following premises is NOT covered under the definition of a “hotel” in this Act?
54. A) A guest house
    B) A resort
    C) A private residence given on rent
    D) A motel
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 2(e) of the Act defines hotel as any place offering lodging for guests, including guest houses, motels, inns, resorts, and sarais, but not private rented residences.
55. What is the purpose of analyzing the tenant and guest data collected by the police?
56. A) To identify financial irregularities
    B) To monitor political activities
    C) For prevention, detection, and investigation of offences
    D) To track migration patterns
    Answer: C
    Explanation: According to Section 6(2) the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act the police shall analyze the data for prevention, detection, and investigation of offences.

 

THE PUNJAB SECURITY OF VULNERABLE ESTABLISHMENTS ACT, 2015

General Provisions and Definitions

1. What is the main objective of The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015?
   a) To regulate businesses in Punjab
   b) To enhance the security of vulnerable establishments
   c) To provide financial assistance to business owners
   d) To register all commercial establishments

Answer: b) To enhance the security of vulnerable establishments
Explanation: The Act aims to ensure effective security arrangements for vulnerable establishments to prevent terrorism and other crimes.

1. Which of the following is NOT considered a “vulnerable establishment” under the Act?
   a) Banks
   b) Educational institutions
   c) Private residences
   d) Jewelry shops

Answer: c) Private residences
Explanation: The The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015  applies to public places like banks, schools, and commercial establishments, but private residences are not included.

1. Who is responsible for ensuring the security arrangements of a vulnerable establishment?
   a) District Coordination Officer
   b) Manager of the establishment
   c) Head of District Police
   d) Government of Punjab

Answer: b) Manager of the establishment
Explanation: According to the Act, the manager is responsible for making necessary security arrangements in compliance with the Committee’s advice.

 

1. Which term refers to “effective physical and technical security arrangements including CCTV cameras, biometric systems, and security alarms”?
   a) Vulnerability measures b) Security arrangements
   c) Preventive measures d) Risk management

Answer: b) Security arrangements
Explanation: The Act defines security arrangements as physical and technical security measures such as CCTV cameras and alarm systems.

Security Advisory Committee

1. Who chairs the Security Advisory Committee in each sub-division?
   a) District Coordination Officer
   b) Deputy Commissioner
   c) Sub-Divisional Police Officer
   d) Head of District Police

Answer: c) Sub-Divisional Police Officer
Explanation: The Act designates the Sub-Divisional Police Officer as the Chairperson of the Security Advisory Committee.

1. How often must the Security Advisory Committee meet?
   a) Weekly
   b) Monthly
   c) Quarterly
   d) Annually

Answer: b) Monthly
Explanation: According to the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act  the Committee must meet at least once a month to ensure continuous security assessments.

1. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Security Advisory Committee?
   a) An officer from Special Branch of the Police
   b) A representative of district administration
   c) A retired judge
   d) Representatives of traders and stakeholders

Answer: c) A retired judge
Explanation: The Committee consists of law enforcement officers, district administration representatives, and stakeholders but does not include judges.

Responsibilities and Security Measures

1. How often must the Committee inspect a vulnerable establishment?
   a) Every six months
   b) Once a year
   c) Quarterly
   d) Monthly

Answer: c) Quarterly
Explanation: The Act mandates a quarterly inspection of vulnerable establishments.

1. Who is responsible for notifying an establishment as a vulnerable establishment?
   a) Government of Punjab
   b) Security Advisory Committee
   c) District Coordination Officer
   d) Police Station Incharge

Answer: c) District Coordination Officer
Explanation: The District Coordination Officer issues notifications declaring an establishment as vulnerable according to the the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015.10.  

 

• What is the purpose of clearing debris, managing filth depots, and covering manholes under The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015
  a) To ensure environmental protection
  b) To prevent the concealment of explosive materials
  c) To improve urban infrastructure
  d) To reduce air pollution

Answer: b) To prevent the concealment of explosive materials
Explanation: The Act emphasizes cleanliness of public places to prevent security threats.

Inspection, Warnings, and Sealing of Establishments

1. Who has the authority to inspect a vulnerable establishment at any time?
   a) District Coordination Officer
   b) Chairperson of the Committee
   c) Police Officer Incharge of the Police Station
   d) Provincial Minister for Home Affairs

Answer: c) Police Officer Incharge of the Police Station
Explanation: The Act allows the Police Officer Incharge to inspect vulnerable establishments and report findings.

1. What action can be taken if a manager fails to implement the security advice?
   a) A written warning is issued
   b) The establishment is immediately sealed
   c) The manager is arrested without warning
   d) The establishment is permanently closed

Answer: a) A written warning is issued
Explanation: A warning letter specifying the violation is issued first before further action.

1. What happens if a manager does not comply with the warning issued by the Committee?
   a) The establishment may be sealed or operations suspended
   b) The manager is given a second warning
   c) The case is referred to the High Court
   d) The police take over the management of the establishment

Answer: a) The establishment may be sealed or operations suspended
Explanation:  According to the Act the Committee has the authority to seal an establishment or suspend operations if security advice is not followed.

Penalties and Legal Proceedings

1. What is the maximum imprisonment for failing to comply with security measures?
   a) 3 months
   b) 6 months
   c) 1 year
   d) 2 years

Answer: b) 6 months
Explanation: The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act specifies up to six months of imprisonment for non-compliance.

1. What is the minimum fine for violating security provisions?
   a) Rs. 10,000
   b) Rs. 25,000
   c) Rs. 50,000
   d) Rs. 100,000

Answer: c) Rs. 50,000
Explanation: According to the Act a fine ranging from Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 100,000 for violations may be imposed.

1. Which court is responsible for conducting trials under this Act?
   a) Civil Court
   b) Magistrate of the first class
   c) High Court
   d) Anti-Terrorism Court

Answer: b) Magistrate of the first class
Explanation: The Act assigns summary trial jurisdiction to a Magistrate of the first class.

1. Under what conditions is an offence under this Act non-compoundable?
   a) If the accused has no prior conviction
   b) If the accused was previously convicted or had an offence compounded
   c) If the offence is related to financial fraud
   d) If the accused is a government officer

Answer: b) If the accused was previously convicted or had an offence compounded
Explanation: The Act does not allow compounding for repeat offenders.

 

Powers and Functions of the Government

1. Which authority has the power to make rules for implementing this Act?
   a) Punjab Assembly
   b) Government of Punjab
   c) Security Advisory Committee
   d) Inspector General of Police

Answer: b) Government of Punjab
Explanation: The Government of Punjab has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of this Act.

1. Who is responsible for notifying security standards for vulnerable establishments?
   a) Home Department of Punjab
   b) Chief Minister of Punjab
   c) Supreme Court of Pakistan
   d) Federal Government

Answer: a) Home Department of Punjab
Explanation: The Home Department is responsible for notifying security measures required under the Act.

1. Which government department ensures the implementation of security measures under this Act?
   a) Excise and Taxation Department
   b) Home Department
   c) Local Government Department
   d) Provincial Assembly

Answer: b) Home Department
Explanation: The Home Department is responsible for overseeing security measures and ensuring compliance under the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015.

Responsibilities of Law Enforcement Agencies

1. Who is responsible for enforcing the Act at the district level?
   a) Deputy Commissioner
   b) District Police Officer
   c) Assistant Commissioner
   d) Provincial Minister for Law

Answer: b) District Police Officer
Explanation: The District Police Officer (DPO) ensures that vulnerable establishments comply with the Act’s security requirements.

1. What role does the Special Branch of the Police play under this Act?
   a) Investigating financial crimes
   b) Monitoring and advising on security threats
   c) Conducting judicial inquiries
   d) Managing public awareness campaigns

Answer: b) Monitoring and advising on security threats
Explanation: The Special Branch assists in assessing security risks and advising on preventive measures under this Act.

1. Which law enforcement agency is responsible for coordinating intelligence on security threats to vulnerable establishments?
   a) Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
   b) Counter Terrorism Department (CTD)
   c) Anti-Narcotics Force (ANF)
   d) Traffic Police

Answer: b) Counter Terrorism Department (CTD)
Explanation: The CTD is responsible for intelligence gathering and ensuring the security of vulnerable establishments under the Act.

Legal and Procedural Aspects

1. Under the Act, if an establishment does not comply with security directives even after penalties, what further action can be taken?
   a) The establishment may be permanently closed
   b) The owner may be declared a proclaimed offender
   c) The case may be referred to the High Court
   d) The police may take control of the premises

Answer: a) The establishment may be permanently closed
Explanation: If an establishment repeatedly fails to comply, the government has the authority to permanently close it under the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act.

1. If a manager refuses to allow inspection of the security arrangements, what legal consequence does he face?
   a) He is fined immediately
   b) He is arrested and prosecuted
   c) His establishment is placed under police surveillance
   d) The establishment’s trade license is revoked

Answer: b) He is arrested and prosecuted
Explanation: Obstructing an inspection is a punishable offense under the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act.

1. Which of the following is NOT a condition for sealing an establishment under this Act?
   a) Failure to implement recommended security measures
   b) Obstructing police inspections
   c) Engaging in financial fraud
   d) Ignoring repeated security warnings

Answer: c) Engaging in financial fraud
Explanation: The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act deals with security violations, not financial fraud, which falls under other laws.

Miscellaneous Provisions

1. Which of the following security measures is MANDATORY for all vulnerable establishments?
   a) Installation of biometric entry systems
   b) Deployment of armed security guards
   c) CCTV cameras with at least 30-day recording capability
   d) Panic buttons on every entrance door

Answer: c) CCTV cameras with at least 30-day recording capability
Explanation: The Act mandates CCTV surveillance with a recording capacity of at least 30 days for all vulnerable establishments.

1. What is the purpose of mandatory training for security guards under the Act?
   a) To teach them self-defense techniques
   b) To ensure they can recognize and respond to security threats
   c) To provide them with legal authority for arrests
   d) To enhance their customer service skills

Answer: b) To ensure they can recognize and respond to security threats
Explanation: The Act requires security guards must be trained to recognize potential threats and respond appropriately to security incidents.

1. If an establishment is wrongly declared as a vulnerable establishment, what legal recourse does the owner have?
   a) File a petition in the court
   b) Request a review from the Chief Minister
   c) Approach the National Assembly
   d) Submit an application to the Security Advisory Committee

Answer: d) Submit an application to the Security Advisory Committee
Explanation: The owner can appeal to the Committee for a review of the decision according to the Act.

1. What role do local traders and business owners play in the security framework under this Act?
   a) They have no formal role
   b) They can provide financial assistance to police
   c) They are included in the Security Advisory Committee for consultation
   d) They must report all daily transactions to the police

Answer: c) They are included in the Security Advisory Committee for consultation

Explanation: Business owners and traders are part of the Committee to ensure practical security measures are implemented.

 

THE PUNJAB SOUND SYSTEMS (REGULATION) ACT 2015

1. Under the Punjab Sound System Act 2015, which of the following is considered a “sound system”?
2. A) Loudspeaker
   B) Sound amplifier
   C) Any other prescribed equipment
   D) All of the above
   Answer: D
   Explanation: Section 2(f) defines a sound system as a loudspeaker, sound amplifier, or any other prescribed equipment.
3. What is the meaning of “vicinity” as per this Act?
4. A) 50 yards from the sound system
   B) 10 yards from the sound system
   C) 100 meters from the sound system
   D) No specific distance is mentioned
   Answer: B
   Explanation: According to Section 2(g) of The Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, 2015, the term vicinity is clearly restricted to a 10-yard radius from the location of the sound system.
5. According to the Act, who determines the specifications of a sound system?
6. A) Local police station
   B) Government of Punjab
   C) High Court
   D) Municipal Corporation
   Answer: B
   Explanation: Section 3(3) states that the Government shall determine the specifications of a sound system by notification.
7. What is the punishment for violating Sections 3 or 4 of the Act?
8. A) A warning only
   B) Imprisonment up to 6 months and a fine between Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 100,000
   C) Imprisonment up to 1 year and a fine of Rs. 500,000
   D) Community service for one month
   Answer: B
   Explanation: Section 6 prescribes punishment of imprisonment up to six months and a fine ranging from 25,000 to Rs. 100,000.
9. Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the provisions of this Act at places of worship?
10. A) Local Government Officer
    B) Police officer in charge of the local area police station
    C) The head of the place of worship
    D) Any citizen
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 5 states that the police officer in charge of the local area police station is responsible for inspecting sound systems at places of worship.
11. In which of the following locations is it prohibited to use a sound system in a way that disturbs the surroundings?
12. A) Near a hospital providing facilities for indoor patients
    B) Near an educational institution during working hours
    C) Near a place of worship during prayer times
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 4(1)(b) of prohibits the use of sound systems near hospitals, educational institutions, courts, and places of worship during specified times.
13. What is the maximum number of external sound systems allowed at a place of worship for specific religious purposes?
14. A) Two
    B) Three
    C) Four
    D) No limit
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(a) allows not more than four external sound systems for Azan, Durood-e-Pak, Arabic Khutba, and specific announcements.
15. What kind of utterances are prohibited using a sound system under this Act?
16. A) Sectarian utterances
    B) Controversial statements likely to cause public disorder
    C) Any speech causing annoyance to the public
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 4(1)(d) of the Punjab Sound System Act 2015 prohibits using a sound system for sectarian or controversial utterances likely to cause public disorder.
17. Which authority can grant permission for the use of an external sound system in a public place?
18. A) Local religious leaders
    B) Any police officer
    C) The Government or an authorized officer
    D) A Magistrate
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(b) of the Punjab Sound System Act states that permission from the Government or an authorized officer is required to use an external sound system in a public place.

 

10. Who has the power to seize a sound system being used in violation of the Act?
11. A) Any police officer
    B) A police officer not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector (ASI)
    C) A magistrate
    D) A local government official
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 7(1) of the Punjab Sound System Act, empowers a police officer not below the rank of ASI to seize a sound system used in the commission of an offence.
12. What is the legal status of an offence under this Act?
13. A) Non-cognizable and bailable
    B) Cognizable and non-bailable
    C) Cognizable and bailable
    D) Non-cognizable and non-bailable
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 8(1) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, states that an offence under this Act is cognizable and non-bailable, meaning the police can arrest without a warrant.
14. Which court has jurisdiction to try an offence under this Act?
15. A) High Court
    B) Magistrate of the First Class
    C) Sessions Court
    D) Supreme Court
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 8(2) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, states that a Magistrate of the First Class shall conduct the trial under summary trial procedures.
16. What action may a court take against a seized sound system?
17. A) Return it to the owner
    B) Confiscate it
    C) Auction it immediately
    D) Allow the owner to use it after a fine
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 10 of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act allows the court to confiscate the sound system used in the commission of an offence.
18. Who is responsible for submitting an annual report on the implementation of this Act?
19. A) Inspector General of Police
    B) Provincial Assembly of Punjab
    C) Head of District Police
    D) Local magistrates
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 11(1) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act requires the Head of District Police to submit a monthly implementation report to the Government.
20. Under the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, who has the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of this law?
21. A) Punjab Police
    B) Government of Punjab
    C) Federal Government
    D) Local Municipal Authorities
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 12 of the act states that the Government of Punjab may, by notification in the official Gazette, make rules for implementing the Act.
22. What is the minimum fine for violating Section 3 or 4 of the Act?
23. A) Rs. 10,000
    B) Rs. 15,000
    C) Rs. 25,000
    D) Rs. 50,000
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 6 of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act specifies that the fine shall not be less than Rs. 25,000 but shall not exceed Rs. 100,000.
24. Which of the following statements is true regarding the compoundability of offences under this Act?
25. A) Every offence under this Act is compoundable
    B) An offence may be compounded only if the accused has not been previously convicted or compounded for the same offence
    C) The accused can always request the court to compound the offence
    D) Offences under this Act cannot be compounded under any circumstances
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 9(2) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act states that an offence cannot be compounded if the accused was previously convicted or had a previous offence compounded.
26. Under the Act, who can grant permission for the use of a sound system in a public place?
27. A) Any police officer
    B) A local magistrate
    C) The Government or an authorized officer
    D) Any district official
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(b) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act allows the Government or an authorized officer to grant permission for using a sound system in a public place.
28. Under what circumstances can a sound system be used at a place of worship?
29. A) For any religious gathering without restriction
    B) Only for Azan, Durood-e-Pak, Arabic Khutba, funeral announcements, or lost and found announcements
    C) Anytime, as long as the volume is controlled
    D) For general announcements and public discussions
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(a) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act allows the use of a maximum of four external sound systems for Azan, Durood-e-Pak, Arabic Khutba, funeral announcements, and lost and found announcements.
30. Which of the following is NOT a location where sound system usage is restricted under the Act?
31. A) A public park
    B) A court during working hours
    C) A hospital providing facilities for indoor patients
    D) An educational institution during working hours
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Section 4(1)(b) mentions restrictions for hospitals, courts, and educational institutions, but does not specifically mention public parks.
32. What is the purpose of requiring the Head of District Police to submit an annual report?
33. A) To review the effectiveness of the Act
    B) To take disciplinary action against violators
    C) To allocate funds for sound system usage
    D) To issue more sound system permits
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Section 11(2) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act states that the Government shall submit a consolidated annual report in the Provincial Assembly of Punjab summarizing the implementation of the Act.
34. What happens to a sound system after it is seized under this Act?
35. A) It is returned to the owner after 24 hours
    B) It is immediately auctioned
    C) It must be produced before a court
    D) It is destroyed immediately
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 7(2) of the Act requires that any seized sound system be presented before the court having jurisdiction over the offence.
36. Which previous law is repealed by The Punjab Sound Systems (Regulation) Act 2015?
37. A) The Punjab Noise Control Ordinance, 1990
    B) The Punjab Regulation of Loudspeakers and Sound Amplifiers Ordinance, 1965
    C) The Punjab Public Order Act, 1982
    D) The Punjab Environmental Protection Act, 1997
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 13(1) states that the Punjab Regulation of Loudspeakers and Sound Amplifiers Ordinance, 1965 is repealed by this Act.
38. What happens to actions taken under the repealed Punjab Regulation of Loudspeakers and Sound Amplifiers Ordinance, 1965?
39. A) They are considered null and void
    B) They remain valid as if done under the new Act
    C) They are subject to review under the new law
    D) They need to be re-approved under the new Act
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 13(2) states that anything done or action taken under the repealed Ordinance shall be deemed to have been done under this Act.

 

THE PUNJAB MAINTENANCE OF PUBLIC ORDER ORDINANCE, 1960

Which of the following is considered a “Sensitive Public Place” under the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Private residences
b) Public parks only
c) Government offices, educational institutions, hospitals, and courts
d) Private commercial buildings

Answer: c) Government offices, educational institutions, hospitals, and courts
Explanation: Section 2(e) defines “Sensitive Public Place” to include government buildings, educational institutions, hospitals, courts, and other notified locations.

 

Who has the authority to issue an order of arrest and detention under this Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Inspector General of Police
b) The Government of Punjab
c) Any police officer
d) A private security agency

Answer: b) The Government of Punjab
Explanation: Section 3(1) of the Ordinance states that the Government has the power to order the arrest and detention of individuals acting against public safety or order.

What is the maximum period a person can be detained under the ordinance without review by the Board?
a) One month
b) Three months
c) Six months
d) Indefinitely

Answer: b) Three months
Explanation: Section 3(5) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that a person cannot be detained for more than three months unless the Review Board confirms the necessity.

 

Who appoints the Review Board as defined in the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance ?
a) President of Pakistan
b) Chief Justice of Lahore High Court
c) Governor of Punjab
d) Prime Minister

Answer: b) Chief Justice of Lahore High Court
Explanation: Section 3(5-a) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that the Review Board is appointed by the Chief Justice of the Lahore High Court.

 

If the Review Board determines that a person’s detention is unnecessary, what action must the Government take?
a) Extend the detention for another three months
b) Transfer the case to a higher authority
c) Release the detained person
d) Increase the detention period

Answer: c) Release the detained person
Explanation: Section 3(5-g) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance requires the Government to release a detainee if the Review Board finds no sufficient cause for further detention.

What happens if a detained person absconds and cannot be found?
a) He is declared a fugitive under the ordinance
b) Sections 87, 88, and 89 of the Criminal Procedure Code apply
c) The Government orders his permanent detention
d) The case is closed

Answer: b) Sections 87, 88, and 89 of the Criminal Procedure Code apply
Explanation: Section 3(8) of the Ordinance allows for the application of CrPC said provisions for absconding persons.

 

Who has the authority to control the printing or publication of certain materials under this ordinance?
a) The Inspector General of Police
b) Any local journalist
c) Government or an authorized authority
d) Private publishing companies

Answer: c) Government or an authorized authority
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance Section 6(1) gives the Government the authority to prohibit or control publications affecting public order.

According to Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance what is the maximum duration for which a publication ban can be imposed?
a) One month
b) Two months
c) Six months
d) Indefinitely

Answer: b) Two months
Explanation: Section 6(2) of the Ordinance states that publication restrictions cannot remain in force for more than two months unless extended.

Under which section of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance can a Deputy Commissioner issue an order restricting a person’s movement?
a) Section 1
b) Section 3
c) Section 5
d) Section 6

Answer: c) Section 5
Explanation: Section 5 of the Ordinance allows the Deputy Commissioner to control the movement of individuals prejudicial to public safety.

What is the maximum period for which a movement restriction order by a Deputy Commissioner can remain valid without government extension?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) One year
d) Indefinitely

Answer: a) Three months
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance Section 5(2) states that an order under this section cannot exceed three months unless the Government extends it.

 

What penalty is imposed on a person who refuses to provide fingerprints, handwriting samples, or photographs when ordered under the ordinance?
a) Fine only
b) Six months imprisonment, fine, or both
c) No penalty
d) Only a warning

Answer: b) Six months imprisonment, fine, or both
Explanation: Section 4(2) of the Ordinance prescribes a punishment of up to six months imprisonment or fine for refusal to provide identifying information.

What punishment is prescribed for carrying firearms in a “Sensitive Public Place” without authorization?
a) Minimum seven days to one year imprisonment and a fine
b) Only a warning
c) No punishment
d) Lifetime imprisonment

Answer: a) Minimum seven days to one year imprisonment and a fine
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance Section 5A(3) states that carrying firearms in sensitive places without authorization results in imprisonment and a fine.

Under which section of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance can the Government prohibit a public meeting or procession in Punjab?
a) Section 3 b) Section 5
c) Section 7 d) Section 9

Answer: c) Section 7
Explanation: Section 7 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, empowers the Government to prohibit public meetings or processions in the interest of public order.

What is the maximum duration for which an order prohibiting a public meeting can be imposed?
a) One week b) Two weeks
c) One month d) Two months

Answer: d) Two months
Explanation: Section 7(2) states that such prohibitions cannot remain in force for more than two months unless extended.

If a person organizes a prohibited procession, what punishment can be imposed under the ordinance?
a) Fine only
b) One-year imprisonment, fine, or both
c) No punishment
d) A warning from authorities

Answer: b) One-year imprisonment, fine, or both
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 7(4) prescribes up to one year of imprisonment or a fine for organizing unlawful processions.

Which authority can impose restrictions on the use of loudspeakers in public places under the Ordinance?
a) Local municipal committees
b) Police officers of any rank
c) The Government or District Coordination Officer (DCO)
d) Religious institutions

Answer: c) The Government or District Coordination Officer (DCO)
Explanation: Section 8 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, empowers the Government or a DCO to regulate loudspeakers to maintain public order.

If someone violates a loudspeaker ban, what is the punishment under the ordinance?
a) Fine only
b) Three months imprisonment, fine, or both
c) No punishment
d) Only a written warning

Answer: b) Three months imprisonment, fine, or both
Explanations:  Section 8(3) of the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that anyone can be imprisoned up to three months and a fine for violating loudspeaker restrictions.

Who has the authority to require a person to furnish security for good behavior under this ordinance?
a) The Government or District Coordination Officer
b) Local police officers
c) Private security agencies
d) Court magistrates

Answer: a) The Government or District Coordination Officer
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, section 9 of allows the Government or the District Coordination Officer to demand security from individuals likely to disturb public order.

What is the maximum period for which security for good behavior can be required?
a) Three months b) Six months
c) One year d) Two years

Answer: c) One year
Explanation: Section 9(2) of the Ordinance states that security requirements cannot exceed one year.

If a person fails to furnish security for good behavior, what action can be taken?
a) The person is warned and released
b) The person is detained in preventive custody
c) The person is fined but not detained
d) No action is taken

Answer: b) The person is detained in preventive custody
Explanation: Section 9(3) allows for detention if a person fails to furnish required security.

Penalties for Violating Orders Under the Ordinance

What is the general punishment for violating any order issued under this ordinance?
a) A warning letter
b) Fine of up to Rs. 5,000
c) Imprisonment up to three years, fine, or both
d) No penalty

Answer: c) Imprisonment up to three years, fine, or both
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 10 provides a general penalty of up to three years of imprisonment or a fine for violations.

If a person aids or abets another in violating an order under this ordinance, what is the punishment?
a) No punishment for aiding or abetting
b) Half of the main offender’s punishment
c) The same punishment as the main offender
d) Only a fine without imprisonment

Answer: c) The same punishment as the main offender
Explanation: Section 10(2) of the Ordinance states that aiding or abetting in violation of orders results in the same penalty as the principal offender.

1. Who has the power to make rules for the implementation of this Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
   a) The President of Pakistan
   b) The Punjab Assembly
   c) The Government of Punjab
   d) The Supreme Court

Answer: c) The Government of Punjab
Explanation: Section 11 of the Ordinance grants the Government of Punjab the authority to make rules for carrying out the provisions of the ordinance.

If a police officer acts in good faith under Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, can he be held legally liable for his actions?
a) Yes, he can be sued for damages
b) No, if he acted in good faith
c) Only if approved by the Government
d) He can be fined but not imprisoned

Answer: b) No, if he acted in good faith
Explanation: Section 12 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance provides legal protection to government officials acting in good faith under the ordinance.

If a detained person is found to be mentally unfit, what action is taken?
a) The person is released immediately
b) The person is kept in ordinary jail conditions
c) The person is transferred to a mental health institution
d) No special provisions apply

Answer: c) The person is transferred to a mental health institution
Explanation: Section 3(7) of the Ordinance states that mentally unfit detainees should be sent to a mental health institution instead of jail.

Under the ordinance, which entity has the power to extend a detention order beyond three months?
a) Chief Minister of Punjab
b) Inspector General of Police
c) Review Board
d) Lahore High Court

Answer: c) Review Board
Explanation: Section 3(5) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that a detention order beyond three months requires Review Board approval.

 

What must the Government do if a detained person requests a review of their detention?
a) Deny the request outright
b) Refer the case to a local police station
c) Refer the case to the Review Board
d) Release the detainee immediately

Answer: c) Refer the case to the Review Board
Explanation: Section 3(5-f) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, ensures a detainee’s right to review by the Review Board.

If a newspaper publishes material violating this ordinance, who can be held responsible?
a) Only the writer
b) Only the publisher
c) Both the writer and publisher
d) No one, as newspapers have immunity

Answer: c) Both the writer and publisher
Explanation: According to Section 6 of the Ordinance, both the writer and the publisher can be penalized for unlawful publications.

Who has the authority to prohibit the entry of newspapers, periodicals, or other publications in Punjab under Section 7 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Only the Government
b) Deputy Commissioner or any public servant authorized by the Government
c) Only the Supreme Court
d) Any police officer
Answer: b) Deputy Commissioner or any public servant authorized by the Government
Explanation: The Ordinance allows the Government, a Deputy Commissioner, or an authorized public servant to prohibit such entry for maintaining public order.

For how long can an order under Section 7(1) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance remain in force?
a) Indefinitely b) Three months
c) Two months d) Six months
Answer: c) Two months
Explanation: As per Section 7(2), no prohibition order can exceed two months.

What action can the Government take if someone disobeys an order under Section 7?
a) Issue a warning
b) Impose a fine only
c) Seize all copies of the prohibited publication
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Seize all copies of the prohibited publication
Explanation: Section 7(4) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance allows the Government or the issuing authority to seize copies of the prohibited publication in case of disobedience.

Before ordering the seizure of a publication under Section 7(4), what must be provided to the affected person?
a) Compensation b) An opportunity to show cause
c) A court hearing d) None of the above
Answer: b) An opportunity to show cause
Explanation: According to Section 7(5) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance an affected person must be provided a chance to present their case before seizure is ordered.

Who can depute a police officer to attend public meetings for reporting purposes under the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Government
b) Deputy Commissioner
c) Any police constable
d) Any government officer
Answer: b) Deputy Commissioner
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 8(1) empowers a Deputy Commissioner to depute officers for reporting public meetings.

What is the minimum rank of a police officer who can be deputed under Section 8 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Inspector
b) Assistant Sub-Inspector
c) Head Constable
d) Constable
Answer: c) Head Constable
Explanation: According to Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, officers not below the rank of Head Constable can be deputed for reporting.

Who can direct the organizer of a public meeting to record all speeches?
a) Inspector General of Police
b) Incharge of a local police station with SDPO’s permission
c) Home Secretary
d) Any police officer
Answer: b) Incharge of a local police station with SDPO’s permission
Explanation: Section 8-A(1) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance specifies that such orders must come from the incharge of the local police station with SDPO’s approval.

What is the penalty for not submitting the required speech recordings under Section 8-A?
a) Three years’ imprisonment
b) Six months’ imprisonment and fine between 25,000 to 100,000 rupees
c) Fine only d) No penalty
Answer: b) Six months’ imprisonment and fine between 25,000 to 100,000 rupees
Explanation: Section 8-A(3) o the Ordinance provides the prescribed punishment for non-compliance.

Under which legal provision does the power to issue search warrants exist in this Act?
a) Section 98 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
b) Article 199 of the Constitution
c) Section 10 of this Act
d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation: Section 10 states that search warrants can be issued as per Section 98 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

What is the maximum punishment for contravening any provision of the Ordinance where no specific punishment is provided?
a) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
b) One year’s imprisonment
c) Five years’ imprisonment
d) Only a fine
Answer: a) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
Explanation: Section 13 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance provides this general penalty.

What is the punishment for spreading rumors that cause fear or alarm under Section 16 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) One-year imprisonment
b) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
c) No punishment
d) Fine only
Answer: b) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
Explanation: Section 16 of the Ordinance imposes punishment for speeches or statements that spread fear or alarm among the public.

What must a person prove to avoid punishment for possessing a prohibited document under Section 17 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance ?
a) That they were unaware of the document’s nature
b) That they had permission from the police
c) That they destroyed the document
d) None of the above
Answer: a) That they were unaware of the document’s nature
Explanation: Section 17 allows exemption if unawareness is proven.

What is the punishment for attempting to induce a public servant to disregard their duty?
a) One-year imprisonment or fine or both
b) Warning only
c) Three years’ imprisonment
d) No penalty
Answer: a) One-year imprisonment or fine or both
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 19 provides punishment for tampering with public servants.

Which of the following acts falls under sabotage under Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Damaging a government building
b) Hindering railway operations
c) Disrupting essential services
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance of Section 20(1) lists these as sabotage activities.

Who conducts summary trials for offenses punishable under the Ordinance?
a) Sessions Judge
b) Magistrate of the First Class
c) High Court Judge
d) Any police officer
Answer: b) Magistrate of the First Class
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 21, specifies that a First-Class Magistrate can conduct such trials.

Who is authorized to arrest a person without a warrant under this Ordinance?
a) Any private citizen
b) A police officer not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector
c) A Sessions Judge
d) Only the Home Secretary
Answer: b) A police officer not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector
Explanation: Section 23 empowers police officers of a certain rank to arrest individuals suspected of violating the Act.

 

THE PROTECTION AGAINST HARASSMENT OF WOMEN AT THE WORKPLACE ACT 2010

 

According to the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, who can be an “accused” in a harassment complaint?

A) Only a male employee
B) Only an employer
C) An employee or employer of an organization
D) Only a contractual employee

Answer: C) An employee or employer of an organization
Explanation: The Act defines “accused” as an employee or employer against whom a complaint has been made under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, without any gender restriction.

What does “CBA” stand for under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Collective Bargaining Agreement
B) Corporate Business Association
C) Central Bargaining Authority
D) Collective Bargaining Agent

Answer: D) Collective Bargaining Agent
Explanation: “CBA” refers to the Collective Bargaining Agent as provided under the Punjab Industrial Relations Act 2010 or any other relevant law in force.

What is the purpose of the “Code” mentioned in the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act.

A) It defines criminal penalties for harassment
B) It provides a Code of Conduct for preventing harassment
C) It outlines the duties of employers towards employees
D) It specifies salary structures in workplaces

Answer: B) It provides a Code of Conduct for preventing harassment
Explanation: The “Code” in this Act refers to the Code of Conduct included in the Schedule, which provides guidelines on workplace behavior to prevent harassment.

 

Who is considered a “Complainant” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Only a female employee who reports harassment
B) Only an employee who files a complaint to the Inquiry Committee
C) Any man or woman who has lodged a harassment complaint
D) Only an employer who files a complaint against an employee

Answer: C) Any man or woman who has lodged a harassment complaint
Explanation: The Act defines “Complainant” as a woman or a man who has filed a complaint either to the Ombudsperson or the Inquiry Committee regarding harassment.

Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of “Employer” under this Act?

A) A person responsible for management and control of an organization
B) A contractor who procures labor for another organization
C) A customer visiting a workplace
D) A director or office bearer of a company

Answer: C) A customer visiting a workplace
Explanation: The Act defines “Employer” broadly, including owners, directors, office bearers, and contractors. However, customers are not included in the definition of an employer.

What is the meaning of “harassment” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Any action that makes an employee uncomfortable at work
B) Any behavior that interferes with work performance or creates a hostile work environment due to sexual advances
C) Any argument between employees in the workplace
D) Any verbal disagreement related to job responsibilities

Answer: B) Any behavior that interferes with work performance or creates a hostile work environment due to sexual advances
Explanation: The Act defines harassment as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or conduct of a sexual nature that disrupts work performance or creates a hostile workplace.

What is the function of an “Inquiry Committee” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act ?

A) To oversee general workplace operations
B) To investigate complaints of harassment
C) To approve employee promotions
D) To draft employment contracts

Answer: B) To investigate complaints of harassment
Explanation: The “Inquiry Committee” is established under Section 3(1) of the Act and is responsible for investigating complaints related to harassment in the workplace.

Who appoints the “Ombudsperson” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) The employer of the organization
B) The Inquiry Committee
C) The Government
D) The employees through voting

Answer: C) The Government
Explanation: The Ombudsperson is appointed under Section 7 of the Act by the Government to handle harassment complaints independently.

What does the term “organization” include under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act ?

A) Only private companies
B) Only government offices
C) Only factories and businesses
D) Both public and private sector institutions

Answer: D) Both public and private sector institutions
Explanation: The Act defines “organization” broadly to include government ministries, corporations, educational institutes, medical facilities, private businesses, and NGOs.

According to the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, what is considered a “workplace”?

A) Only the designated office space assigned to an employee
B) Only the organization’s main office premises
C) Any location where official work is carried out, including work-related activities outside the office
D) Only industrial and commercial establishments

Answer: C) Any location where official work is carried out, including work-related activities outside the office
Explanation: The Act defines a “workplace” broadly to include not only office buildings but also any place where official duties are performed, including off-site work-related activities. This ensures comprehensive protection against workplace harassment in all professional settings.

Within how many days of the enactment of the Act must an organization constitute an Inquiry Committee?

A) 15 days B) 30 days
C) 45 days D) 60 days

Answer: B) 30 days
Explanation: According to Section 3(1), every organization is required to establish an Inquiry Committee within 30 days of the enactment of this Act to handle harassment complaints.

What is the minimum requirement regarding the composition of the Inquiry Committee?

A) It must have at least one external member
B) It must have at least two female members
C) It must have three members, with at least one woman
D) It must have only senior management officials

Answer: C) It must have three members, with at least one woman
Explanation: Section 3(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act states that the Inquiry Committee must consist of three members, of whom at least one must be a woman. The committee should include a senior management member and a senior employee representative.

What is the time frame within which the Inquiry Committee must communicate the charges to the accused after receiving a complaint?

A) 24 hours B) 3 days
C) 7 days D) 15 days

Answer: B) 3 days
Explanation: Section 4(1)(a) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act

mandates that the Inquiry Committee must inform the accused of the charges within three days of receiving the written complaint.

If the accused fails to submit a written defense within the given time, what action can the Inquiry Committee take?

A) Dismiss the complaint automatically
B) Extend the time indefinitely
C) Proceed with the inquiry ex-parte
D) Close the case without investigation

Answer: C) Proceed with the inquiry ex-parte
Explanation: As per Section 4(1)(b) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act , the Inquiry Committee allows the accused seven days to submit a written defense. If the accused fails to respond without reasonable cause, the committee proceeds ex-parte (without their input).

What are the two categories of penalties that the Inquiry Committee can recommend if the accused is found guilty?

A) Primary and secondary penalties B) Criminal and civil penalties
C) Minor and major penalties D) Temporary and permanent penalties

Answer: C) Minor and major penalties
Explanation: Section 4(4) divides penalties into minor and major penalties. Minor penalties include censure and withholding promotions, while major penalties include dismissal from service and compulsory retirement.

What is one of the powers granted to the Inquiry Committee under Section 5 of t the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) To issue arrest warrants for the accused
B) To summon and enforce attendance of any person
C) To terminate employees directly
D) To conduct trials in a court of law

Answer: B) To summon and enforce attendance of any person
Explanation: Section 5(1)(a) the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act

grants the Inquiry Committee the power to summon and enforce attendance of any person and examine them under oath during the investigation.

If the Inquiry Committee finds that a complaint was filed with mala fide intentions, what action can it take?

A) Recommend penalties against the complainant to the Ombudsperson
B) Ignore the false complaint and dismiss the case
C) Automatically punish the complainant
D) Close the case without informing the Ombudsperson

Answer: A) Recommend penalties against the complainant to the Ombudsperson
Explanation: Section 5(3) the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act  states that if the Inquiry Committee finds that a complaint was filed falsely and with bad intent, it can recommend appropriate action against the complainant to the Ombudsperson.

How long does a party have to file an appeal against a penalty imposed by the Competent Authority?

A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days

Answer: C) 30 days
Explanation: Section 6(1) of the Act provides that an appeal against minor or major penalties must be filed with the Ombudsperson within 30 days from the written communication of the decision.

Who appoints the Ombudsperson under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Chief Justice of Pakistan
B) President of Pakistan
C) The Government
D) Federal Public Service Commission

Answer: C) The Government
Explanation: As per Section 7(1) of the Act, the Government is responsible for appointing the Ombudsperson on prescribed terms and conditions.

Which of the following is NOT a qualification requirement for appointment as an Ombudsperson?

A) Must be at least 45 years of age
B) Must be a retired Chief Justice of Pakistan
C) Must have been a Judge of a High Court or qualified to be one
D) Must have served in BS-20 or above in Pakistan’s civil service

Answer: B) Must be a retired Chief Justice of Pakistan
Explanation: According to Section 7(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, an Ombudsperson must be at least 45 years old and either:

A Judge of a High Court or qualified to be one, or A retired civil servant of BS-20 or above, or An eminent educationist with at least four years of administrative experience.
There is no requirement to be a Chief Justice of Pakistan.

What is the tenure of the Ombudsperson, and can it be extended or renewed?

A) 3 years, extendable for another term
B) 4 years, extendable for another term
C) 4 years, non-renewable
D) 5 years, extendable for one more term

Answer: C) 4 years, non-renewable
Explanation: According to Section 7(5) the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, the Ombudsperson serves for four years and cannot be reappointed or have the tenure extended.

Within how many days must the Ombudsperson issue a show cause notice to the accused after receiving a complaint?

A) 24 hours B) 3 days
C) 5 days D) 7 days

Answer: B) 3 days
Explanation: Section 8(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act states that after receiving a complaint, the Ombudsperson must issue a written show cause notice to the accused within three days.

What is the consequence if the accused fails to submit a written defense without reasonable cause?

A) The complaint is dismissed
B) The complainant is automatically declared the winner
C) The Ombudsperson proceeds ex-parte
D) The accused is fined immediately

Answer: C) The Ombudsperson proceeds ex-parte
Explanation: Section 8(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act specifies that if the accused does not submit a written defense within five days without a valid reason, the Ombudsperson can proceed with the case ex-parte (without the accused’s response).

Who has the final authority to decide on appeals against the Ombudsperson’s decision?

A) Supreme Court of Pakistan
B) High Court
C) Federal Public Service Commission
D) The Governor

Answer: D) The Governor
Explanation: Section 9 of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act states that any person aggrieved by the Ombudsperson’s decision may appeal to the Governor within 30 days, and the Governor’s decision is final.

Which of the following powers does the Ombudsperson NOT have under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Summoning and enforcing attendance of any person
B) Issuing arrest warrants for the accused
C) Compelling the production of evidence
D) Issuing commissions for examination of witnesses

Answer: B) Issuing arrest warrants for the accused
Explanation: As per Section 10 of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, the Ombudsperson has judicial powers similar to a Civil Court, including summoning persons, compelling evidence, and issuing commissions. However, the Ombudsperson cannot issue arrest warrants, as that falls under the authority of criminal courts.

What is the responsibility of the employer under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) To ensure implementation of the Act and form an Inquiry Committee
B) To refer all complaints directly to the police
C) To personally handle all harassment cases without involving the Ombudsperson
D) To terminate any employee accused of harassment immediately

Answer: A) To ensure implementation of the Act and form an Inquiry Committee
Explanation: Section 11(1) of the Act, states that the employer must ensure the proper implementation of the Act, including:

• Forming an Inquiry Committee
• Designating a competent authority
• Incorporating the Code of Conduct into management policy

 

Within how many months of the commencement of the Act must employers display copies of the Code of Conduct in the workplace?

A) 2 months B) 4 months
C) 6 months D) 12 months

Answer: C) 6 months
Explanation: According to Section 11(2), employers must display the Code of Conduct in English and the local language within six months of the Act’s commencement.

 

What penalty can be imposed on an employer who fails to comply with the Act?

A) Imprisonment for five years
B) A fine between Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 100,000
C) Permanent closure of the business
D) Cancellation of all work contracts

Answer: B) A fine between Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 100,000
Explanation: As per Section 11(3) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, if an employer fails to comply with the Act, any employee can file a complaint before the Ombudsperson. If found guilty, the employer is liable to a fine ranging from Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000.

THE PUNJAB PROHIBITION OF EXPRESSING MATTERS ON WALLS ACT, 1995

(Act II of 1995)

What is the main objective of the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) To regulate advertisements in Punjab
B) To prohibit the expression of matters on walls in Punjab
C) To control the use of public property for business promotion
D) To regulate media content

Answer: B) To prohibit the expression of matters on walls in Punjab
Explanation: The Preamble clearly states that the Act aims to prohibit expressing matters on walls within the Punjab province.

 

What is the punishment for violating the Act by expressing matters on walls?

A) Fine up to Rs. 5,000
B) Imprisonment up to 1 year
C) Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine between Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000 or both
D) Only a warning

Answer: C) Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine between Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000 or both
Explanation: Section 2 of the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, specifies that violators can face imprisonment for up to six months or a fine ranging from Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000, or both.

Which of the following actions is prohibited under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Writing on walls with chalk or paint
B) Affixing posters or placards on walls
C) Expressing any matter on walls to attract public attention
D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Section 2 prohibits writing, affixing posters, placards, bills, or any advertisements on walls with the intention of attracting public attention.

What is the exception to the prohibition under this the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Government agencies can express matters on walls
B) Businesses can advertise with a special permit
C) The owner or possessor of the wall can express particulars related to himself or his business
D) Political parties can use walls for election campaigns

Answer: C) The owner or possessor of the wall can express particulars related to himself or his business
Explanation: The Exception Clause under Section 2 allows wall owners to express information related to themselves or their businesses.

What is the territorial extent of the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Only in major cities of Punjab
B) Only in Lahore
C) The whole province of Punjab
D) Nationwide

Answer: C) The whole province of Punjab
Explanation: Section 1(2) of the act  states that the Act extends to the entire province of Punjab.

When did the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, come into force?

A) After 30 days of approval
B) On 1st January 1995
C) Immediately upon enactment
D) After being published in the Gazette

Answer: C) Immediately upon enactment
Explanation: Section 1(3) states that the Act came into force at once upon its enactment.

Who is responsible for removing existing wall expressions after the Act comes into effect?

A) The owner of the wall
B) The Police
C) The Local Council
D) The District Commissioner

Answer: C) The Local Council
Explanation: Section 3 mandates that every Local Council must remove existing unlawful expressions from walls within 30 days of the Act’s commencement.

What type of offence is considered a violation under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Non-cognizable and bailable
B) Cognizable and non-bailable
C) Civil offence
D) Compoundable offence

Answer: B) Cognizable and non-bailable
Explanation: Section 2A(1), inserted through the 2015 amendment, classifies the offence as cognizable and non-bailable.

Who is authorized to conduct a trial for offences under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) A Civil Judge
B) A Magistrate of the First Class
C) A Sessions Judge
D) The District Commissioner

Answer: B) A Magistrate of the First Class
Explanation: Section 2A(2) of the Act states that a Magistrate of the First Class will conduct trials under Chapter XXII of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898, following summary trial procedures.

What was the original maximum fine under this Act before the 2015 amendment?

A) Rs. 1,000
B) Rs. 5,000
C) Rs. 10,000
D) Rs. 50,000

Answer: B) Rs. 5,000
Explanation: The 2015 amendment increased the fine from the original Rs. 5,000 to Rs. 25,000 

 

In which year was the provision for cognizance and summary trial added to the Act?

A) 1995
B) 1998
C) 2010
D) 2015

Answer: D) 2015
Explanation: Section 2A was inserted through the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls (Amendment) Act, 2015.

 

Under which section does the Provincial Government have the power to make rules for the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Section 2 B) Section 2A
C) Section 3 D) Section 4

Answer: D) Section 4
Explanation: Section 4 (added in 1998) grants the Provincial Government the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Act.

How was the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, introduced?

A) As an executive order
B) As a government bill
C) As a private member bill
D) As a Presidential Ordinance

Answer: C) As a private member bill
Explanation: The Act was moved as a private member bill by Mr. S.A. Hameed in the Punjab Assembly.

 

How many days does the Local Council have to remove unlawful wall expressions after the Act’s commencement?

A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days

Answer: C) 30 days
Explanation: Section 3 the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, requires all unlawful expressions on walls to be removed within 30 days.

Which amendment introduced the power for the Punjab Government to make rules under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) The 1998 amendment B) The 2005 amendment
C) The 2015 amendment D) The 2020 amendment

Answer: A) The 1998 amendment
Explanation: Section 4 of the Act, which allows the Provincial Government to make rules, was added through the 1998 amendment.

 

THE PUNJAB PROHIBITION OF KITE FLYING ORDINANCE, 2001

When was the Punjab Prohibition of Kite Flying Ordinance, 2001, promulgated?

A) 1st January 2001
B) 15th August 2001
C) 26th December 2001
D) 5th November 2001

Answer: C) 26th December 2001
Explanation: The ordinance was promulgated by the Governor of Punjab and published in the Punjab Gazette on 26th December 2001.

 

According to the ordinance, what does “kite flying” include?

A) Flying kites for recreational purposes
B) Flying kites with metallic wire or sharp maanjha
C) Selling paper kites without a permit
D) Using any material for kite flying

Answer: B) Flying kites with metallic wire or sharp maanjha
Explanation: The definition in Section 2(c) specifies that kite flying involves using metallic wire, nylon cord, or any coated thread that endangers human life or property.

Under the ordinance, which entity is authorized to allow kite flying for a limited period?

A) Chief Minister of Punjab
B) Deputy Commissioner
C) Nazim of the concerned district with Government approval
D) Superintendent of Police

Answer: C) Nazim of the concerned district with Government approval
Explanation: Section 4(2) states that the district Nazim may allow kite flying for up to 15 days during the spring season with prior approval from the Government.

What is the maximum imprisonment for violating Section 4(1) the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) 1 year B) 2 years
C) 3 years D) 5 years

Answer: C) 3 years

Explanation: Section 4(3) prescribes a maximum imprisonment of three years for committing or abetting an act of kite flying, manufacturing, storing, or selling dangerous kite-flying materials.

What is the maximum fine for violating the kite flying ban?

A) Rs. 10,000
B) Rs. 50,000
C) Rs. 100,000
D) Rs. 500,000

Answer: C) Rs. 100,000
Explanation: Section 4(3) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that violators can be fined up to Rs. 100,000.

 

What does “sharp maanjha” refer to in the ordinance?

A) A string used for normal kite flying
B) A thread coated with chemicals and glass
C) A decorative thread for kite designs
D) A biodegradable thread

Answer: B) A thread coated with chemicals and glass
Explanation: Section 2(f) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 defines sharp maanjha as a thread coated with chemicals, ground glass, or other harmful materials used for kite flying.

What is the legal status of an offence under this ordinance?

A) Non-cognizable and bailable
B) Cognizable and non-bailable
C) Non-cognizable but non-bailable
D) Cognizable but bailable

Answer: B) Cognizable and non-bailable
Explanation: Section 3 of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that an offence under this ordinance is cognizable and non-bailable, meaning police can arrest without a warrant, and bail is not granted easily.

Which legal procedure applies to trials under this ordinance?

A) Chapter VI of the CrPC
B) Chapter IX of the CrPC
C) Chapter XXII of the CrPC
D) Chapter XXV of the CrPC

Answer: C) Chapter XXII of the CrPC
Explanation: Section 3 specifies that offences under the ordinance will be tried summarily under Chapter XXII of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898.

 

Who is responsible for registering kite manufacturers and sellers?

A) Punjab Police
B) The District Government or City District Government
C) The Chief Secretary
D) The Home Department

Answer: B) The District Government or City District Government

Explanation: Section 4-A(1) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 mandates that kite manufacturers, traders, and sellers must register with the concerned District or City District Government.

 

What is the penalty for operating without registration under Section 4-A of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) Rs. 50,000 fine
B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
C) Rs. 10,000 fine
D) Life imprisonment

Answer: B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
Explanation: Section 4-A(2) states that non-registered manufacturers or sellers can face up to six months imprisonment, a fine of up to Rs. 100,000, or both.

 

What does the term “place” include under the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) Only public roads and streets
B) Only parks and playgrounds
C) Streets, roads, parks, houses, buildings, and open spaces
D) Only private properties

Answer: C) Streets, roads, parks, houses, buildings, and open spaces
Explanation: Section 2(d) defines “place” broadly, including public and private spaces such as roads, hotels, clubs, and even graveyards.

Can a person manufacture kites for sale without approval?

A) Yes, if they have a registered business
B) Yes, but only during the spring season
C) No, manufacturing kites without approval is prohibited
D) Yes, if they use only paper and cotton thread

Answer: C) No, manufacturing kites without approval is prohibited
Explanation: Section 4(1)(b) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 prohibits manufacturing, selling, or offering kites for sale unless permitted under the ordinance.

What action must an owner or possessor of a place take before allowing kite flying?

A) Obtain permission from the Union Nazim and inform the Station House Officer (SHO)
B) Apply for a business license
C) Pay a registration fee to the District Government
D) Sign an affidavit in court

Answer: A) Obtain permission from the Union Nazim and inform the Station House Officer (SHO)
Explanation: Section 4-B(1) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that an owner must obtain prior permission from the Union Nazim and notify the area SHO before allowing kite flying.

What is the punishment for violating Section 4-B(1) regarding permission for kite flying?

A) Rs. 50,000 fine
B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
C) Rs. 500,000 fine
D) 2 years imprisonment

Answer: B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
Explanation: Section 4-B(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, prescribes a maximum penalty of six months imprisonment, a fine of Rs. 100,000, or both for violating this requirement.

Who has the authority to establish a kite flying association?

A) Punjab Police
B) The Punjab Government
C) A District Government
D) The Home Ministry

Answer: C) A District Government
Explanation: Section 4-C(1) of the Ordinance states that a District Government may establish a kite flying association as per prescribed rules.

What functions does a kite flying association perform?

A) Organizing kite flying competitions
B) Regulating kite production and sales
C) Performing prescribed functions in the prescribed manner
D) Conducting safety awareness programs

Answer: C) Performing prescribed functions in the prescribed manner
Explanation: Section 4-C(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 states that a kite flying association performs functions as prescribed by law.

Under what circumstances can a police officer arrest a person without a warrant?

A) Only if caught flying a kite
B) Only if a complaint is filed
C) If they have reasonable suspicion of an offence under Section 4 or 4-A
D) Never, as a court order is required

Answer: C) If they have reasonable suspicion of an offence under Section 4 or 4-A
Explanation: Section 5(a) of the Ordinance authorizes a Sub-Inspector or higher-ranked officer to arrest any person suspected of violating kite flying laws without a warrant.

What authority does a police officer have under Section 5(b) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) Enter and search any place suspected of kite flying at any time
B) Only search a place with a court order
C) Confiscate only kites and not materials used
D) Conduct a search only in the presence of a witness

Answer: A) Enter and search any place suspected of kite flying at any time
Explanation: Section 5(b) gives a police officer the power to enter, search, and use necessary force to prevent violations of the ordinance.

 

Which court has jurisdiction to hear an appeal against a Magistrate’s order under this ordinance?

A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Court of Sessions
D) Anti-Terrorism Court

Answer: C) Court of Sessions
Explanation: Section 7 of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that appeals against a Magistrate’s order lie with the Court of Sessions, whose decision is final.

How does this ordinance affect other laws?

A) It operates alongside all other laws
B) It overrides any conflicting law
C) It is subordinate to the CrPC
D) It applies only if no other law exists

Answer: B) It overrides any conflicting law
Explanation: Section 8 of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 states that the ordinance has effect regardless of any other law in force.

What is the purpose of rules made under Section 8-A the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) To regulate and clarify the implementation of the ordinance
B) To introduce new penalties
C) To increase the punishment beyond the ordinance
D) To amend the Constitution

Answer: A) To regulate and clarify the implementation of the ordinance
Explanation: Section 8-A(1) allows the Government to make rules to carry out the purposes of the ordinance.

What is the punishment for violating the rules made under Section 8-A?

A) Rs. 10,000 fine
B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
C) 1-year imprisonment
D) Rs. 500,000 fine

Answer: B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
Explanation: Section 8-A(2) prescribes imprisonment of up to six months, a fine up to Rs. 100,000, or both for violating the rules.

Which material is explicitly prohibited for kite flying?

A) Plastic strings
B) Woolen threads
C) Metallic wire and nylon cord (tandi)
D) Bamboo sticks

Answer: C) Metallic wire and nylon cord (tandi)
Explanation: Section 4(1)(c) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 prohibits using metallic wire, nylon cord, or any thread coated with sharp maanjha for kite flying.

 

Who has the power to issue a general or special order regarding kite manufacturing?

A) The Inspector General of Police
B) The Home Secretary
C) The Government of Punjab
D) The Supreme Court

Answer: C) The Government of Punjab
Explanation: Section 4(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that the Government may issue orders specifying periods for kite manufacturing.

Who can issue a notification allowing kite flying for a limited period?

A) The Chief Minister of Punjab
B) The Inspector General of Police
C) The Nazim of the concerned district with prior approval of the Government
D) The Deputy Commissioner

Answer: C) The Nazim of the concerned district with prior approval of the Government
Explanation: Section 4(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, allows the Nazim, with Government approval, to issue a notification permitting kite flying for up to fifteen days during the spring season.

Can kite flying be permitted with metallic wire or sharp maanjha during the allowed period?

A) Yes, but only in open fields
B) No, it remains prohibited at all times
C) Yes, but only with a special permit
D) Yes, if conducted at night

Answer: B) No, it remains prohibited at all times
Explanation: The explanation in Section 4(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 clarifies that even if kite flying is temporarily allowed, the use of metallic wire, nylon cord, or sharp maanjha remains strictly prohibited.

What type of offence is a violation of the Punjab Prohibition of Kite Flying Ordinance, 2001?

A) Cognizable and non-bailable
B) Non-cognizable and bailable
C) Civil offence
D) Compoundable offence

Answer: A) Cognizable and non-bailable
Explanation: Section 3 of the ordinance,  states that offences under this ordinance are cognizable (police can arrest without a warrant) and non-bailable.

What is the maximum imprisonment for violating Section 4(1) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 (manufacturing, storing, selling, or offering prohibited kite flying materials)?

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years

Answer: C) 3 years
Explanation: Section 4(3) prescribes a maximum punishment of three years imprisonment or a fine of Rs. 100,000 or both for contravening Section 4(1).

 

What does the term “sharp maanjha” refer to under this ordinance?

A) A type of kite used in competitions
B) A thread coated with chemicals and ground glass or other dangerous material
C) A lightweight cotton thread used for kite flying
D) A type of string used for making musical instruments

Answer: B) A thread coated with chemicals and ground glass or other dangerous material
Explanation: Section 2(f) defines “sharp maanjha” as a mixture of chemicals and ground glass or any other injurious and dangerous material coated on thread for kite flying, making it hazardous.

 

CRIMINAL LAW

PAKISTAN PENAL CODE 1860

 

1. The year of enactment of Pakistan Penal Code is:
2. 1860 B. 1870
3. 1880 D. 1898

• Ans: A. 1860

 

2. Total sections of Pakistan Penal Code are:
3. 511 B. 565
4. 280 D. 411

• Ans: A. 511

 

3. Wrongful loss is:
4. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled
5. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is not legally entitled
6. All of them
7. None of these

• Ans: A. the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled

 

4. How many accused persons are required to establish common intention u/s 34? 
5. 5 B. More than one and less than five
6. 7 D. None of these

• Ans: B. More than one and less than five

 

5. How many accused persons are required to establish common object?
6. 4 B. Five or more than five persons 
7. 3 D. None of these

• Ans: B. Five or more than five persons

 

6. Punishment for rape according to section 376 PPC:
7. Death or life imprisonment B. Imprisonment for ten years
8. Imprisonment for 7 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. Death or life imprisonment

 

7. How many accused persons are required for the offence of “Dacoity”?
8. 4 B. 5 or more than 5
9. 2 or more than 2 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 5 or more than 5

 

8. Unlawful assembly comprises of:
9. At least 5 persons B. At least 6 persons
10. At least 4 persons D. None of these

• Ans: A. At least 5 persons

 

9. Which section provides punishment for common :
10. 149 B. 141 
11. 96 D. 151 

• Ans: A. 149 

10. Affray is:
11. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting
12. Disturbance of public peace by one person by fighting
13. Disturbance of public peace by five or more persons by fighting
14. None of these

• Ans: A. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting

 

11. Attempt to commit suicide is an offence according to PPC under section:
12. 322 B. 324 
13. 325 D. 327 

• Ans: C. 325

 

12. Imprisonment for life according to PPC is :
13. Imprisonment for 25 years B. Imprisonment till death
14. Imprisonment till old age D. None of these

• Ans: A. Imprisonment for 25 years

 

13. Imprisonment for life according to Hadood laws:
14. Imprisonment till death B. Imprisonment for 25 years 
15. Imprisonment till old age D. None of these

• Ans: A. Imprisonment till death

 

14. Imprisonment for theft may extend to :
15. 3 years B. 5 years
16. 2 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. 3 years

 

15. Punishment for giving false evidence is mentioned in PPC u/s: 
16. 192 B. 191
17. 190 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 192

 

16. Gratification u/s 161 includes :
17. Monitory gains 
18. pecuniary terms
19. Gratification estimable in money
20. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

17. The punishment for the exercise of personal influence with public servant is:
18. Death penalty
19. Life imprisonment
20. Rigorous imprisonment extendable to 2 years
21. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

• Ans: D. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

 

18. Shajjah is of following kinds:
19. 6 B. 9
20. 7 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 6

 

19. Life according to PPC is:
20. Life of men only B. Life of human being 
21. Life of Animal D. None of these

• Ans: B. Life of human being

 

20. A sentence of death awarded by way of “Qisas” or “Tazir” shall not be executed until:
21. Confirmed by High Court
22. Confirmed by Session Judge
23. Confirmed by Supreme Court
24. None of these

• Ans: A. Confirmed by High Court

 

21. The property, according to section 378 of PPC, in theft has to be:
22. Movable B. Immovable
23. Corporeal D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Movable

 

22. Theft has been defined u/s:
23. 376 B. 378
24. 377 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 378

 

23. A Robbery becomes a dacoity if committed by:
24. 6 or more than 6 persons B. 4 or more than 4 persons
25. 5 or more than 5 persons D. None of these

• Ans: C. 5 or more than 5 persons

 

24. Criminal breachof trust has been defined u/s:
25. 405 B. 406 
26. 407 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 405 of PPC

 

25. The word “death” denotes the death of:
26. An bird B. A human being
27. An Animal D. All of the above

• Ans: B. A human being

 

26. Kidnapping includes:
27. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship
28. Kidnapping from Pakistan
29. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship
30. None of these

• Ans: C. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship

 

27. The value of diyat under section 323 PPC is:
28. Discretion of the court 
29. Not less than the value of 30640 grams of silver
30. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver
31. None of these

• Ans: C. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver

 

28. Arsh denotes the compensation to be paid:
29. To the victim or his heirs B. To the accused or his heirs 
30. Both D. None of these

• Ans: A. To the victim or his heirs

 

29. Criminal intimidation is defined u/s:
30. 503 B. 505
31. 507 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 503

 

30. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab shall be:
31. Diyat B. Imprisonment for 2 years
32. Imprisonment upto 25 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. Diyat

 

31. Punishment for “Robbery” has been defined u/s :
32. 392 B. 391
33. 390 D. None to these

• Ans: C. 392

 

32. Punishment for robbery:
33. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than five years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine
34. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than two years nor more than five years and shall also be liable to fine
35. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine 
36. None of these

• Ans: C. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine

 

33. Qatl-i-amd has been defined u/s:
34. 299 B. 300,301 
35. 301,302 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 300,301

 

34. Punishment of qatl-i-amd under section 302 B. when proof of qatl-i-amd is not available under section 304 PPC:
35. Death as Ta’zir B. Death or imprisonment for life as ta’zir
36. Imprisonment for 5 years D. None of these

• Ans: B. Death or imprisonment for life as ta’zir

 

35. Punishment of qatl-i-amd under section 302 A. when proof of qatl-i-amd is available under section 304 PPC:
36. Death as qisas B. Death as ta’zir
37. Imprisonment for 5 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. Death as qisas

 

36. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd: 
37. Death
38. Diyat
39. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 7 years as Ta’zir

• Ans: C. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir

 

37. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd has been defined u/s:
38. 310 B. 316 
39. 312 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 316

 

38. Punishment for Qatl-i-Khata has been defined u/s:
39. 316 B. 318 
40. 320 D. 319

• Ans: D. 319

 

39. Punishment for Qatli-i-Khata by rash or negligent driving:
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years
41. Arsh and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years 
42. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 5 years
43. none of these

• Ans: A. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years

 

40. Attempt to commit qatl-i-amd is prescribed u/s:
41. 326 B. 325 
42. 324 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 324

 

41. Kinds of hurt u/s 332:
42. 4 B. 5
43. 6 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 5

42. Kinds of ghayr-jaifah under section 337 (E):
43. 6 B. 8
44. 10 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 6

 

43. Kinds of punishments u/s 53 :
44. 15 B. 13
45. 10 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 10

 

44. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
45. 7 years of age
46. 12 years of age 
47. 15 years of age
48. None of these

• Ans: A. 7 years of age

 

45. Nothing is an offence which is done in exercise of the right of private defence under sections:
46. 76-96 B. 96 to 106 
47. 80-100 D. 100-104

• Ans: B. 96 to 106 

 

46. Defamation has been defined u/s:
47. 499 B. 299 
48. 399 D. 199

• Ans: A. 499 PPC

 

47. Whoever uses derogatory remark etc, in respect of the Hazrat Mohammad (Peace Be Upon Him) shall be punished with: 
48. Death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(B) PPC
49. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC
50. Imprisonment for life
51. None of these

• Ans: B. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC

 

48. The word “Person includes”:
49. Any company B. Body of persons
50. Association D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

49. Public servant includes:
50. Member of National Assembly
51. Person who holds any office of the Government 
52. Member of WASA
53. None of these

• Ans: B. Person who holds any office of the Government

 

50. In a case of Qatl, the wali shall be:
51. The children of the victim, according to his family law
52. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law
53. The Nazim of the city
54. The Government 

• Ans: B. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law

 

51. Qatl-i-amad is not liable to Qisas:
52. If the offender is a close relative of the victim
53. If the offender is a husband of the victim
54. When the offender is minor or insane
55. All of the above

• Ans: C. When the offender is minor or insane

 

52. Arsh for causing itlaf of a tooth shall be:
53. One twentieth of diyat
54. One tenth of diyat
55. Equal to the value of the diyat
56. None of these

• Ans: A. One twentieth of diyat

 

53. U/S 209 Whoever fraudulently or dishonesty or with intent to injure or annoy any person makes in a court of justice any claim which he knows to be false:
54. Shall be punished with imprisonment for 5 years or fine or both
55. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall also be liable to fine
56. Shall be liable to fine only
57. All of above

• Ans: B. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall be liable to fine

 

54. Diyat means the compensation payable to the heirs of the victim specified u/s: 
55. 324 B. 338
56. 323 D. 330

• Ans: C. 323

 

55. The value of daman may be determined by the court keeping in view:
56. The expenses incurred on the treatment of the victim
57. The loss or disability caused in the functioning or power of any organ
58. The compensation for the anguish suffered by the victim
59. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

56. Qisas for qatl-i-amad shall not be conforced:
57. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas
58. When the offender is punished with Tazir.
59. When the offender has close relation with victim.
60. None of these

• Ans: A. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas

 

57. Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension is liable to be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both as given u/s:
58. 224 B. 225
59. 225-A D. 225-B

• Ans: A. 224

 

58. Whoever causes Jurh in which the injury extends to the body cavity of the trunk, is said to cause.
59. Hurt B. Jaifah
60. Shajjah D. None

• Ans: B. Jaifah

 

59. The president has the right to grant pardons reprieves, respites or remissions of Punishment u/s.
60. 58 B. 155
61. 55-A D. 160

• Ans: C. 55-A

 

60. Criminal conspiracy u/s 120-A means when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done.
61. An illegal act
62. Or an act, which is not illegal but done by illegal means
63. An act, which is illegal by law but not by tradition
64. A and B both

• Ans: D. A and B both

 

61. Whoever by force compels or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place.
62. Is said to abduct that person
63. Is said to kidnap that person
64. Is said to confine that person
65. Is said to abduct and kidnap that person

• Ans: A. Is said to abduct that person

 

62. Without exposing bone of the victim, the accused is said to cause: 
63. Shajjah-i-Khafifah B. Shajjah-i-Damighah
64. Shajjjah-i-Mudihah D. Shajjah-i-Hashimah 

• Ans: A. Shajjah-i-Khafifah

 

63. Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
64. Ten years or with fine or with both
65. Seven years
66. Seven years or with fine or with both
67. Life imprisonment

• Ans: C. Seven years or with fine or with both

 

64. Whoever kidnaps any person with intent to cause that person to be secretly and wrongfully confined shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to: 
65. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine
66. 10 years and shall also be liable to fine 
67. Life imprisonment and shall also be liable to fine
68. None of above

• Ans: A. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine

 

65. Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit:
66. Robbery B. Extortion 
67. Theft D. All of above

• Ans: C. Theft

 

66. The term “Court of Justice” denotes:
67. The chamber of the court
68. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially
69. A Bench of judge, which is empowered by law to act judicially
70. None of these

• Ans: B. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially

 

67. Special law denotes:
68. A law which is made by traditions
69. A law applicable to a particular subject 
70. A law applicable to a particular place
71. A law applicable to a special class of people

• Ans: B. A law applicable to a particular subject

 

68. Local law denotes:
69. A law applicable only to particular class of persons in Pakistan
70. A law applicable to the entire country
71. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan
72. None of these

• Ans: C. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan

 

69. When two or more person by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to:
70. Commit an affray
71. Create a public nuisance
72. Guilty of offence of being members of the unlawful assembly
73. None of these

• Ans: A. Commit an affray

 

70. When one act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable for the act done.
71. False B. True
72. A and B Both D. None 

• Ans: B. True

 

71. Whoever uses any false trade mark or any false property mark shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
72. One year or with fine or with both
73. Three years or with fine or with both
74. Four years or with fine or with both
75. None of these

• Ans: A. One year or with fine or with both

 

72. Punishment for jaifah is given u/s:
73. 337B B. 337C
74. 337D D. 337E

• Ans: C. 337D

 

73. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab is:
74. Diyat
75. Diyat and five year imprisonment
76. Diyat and 10 year imprisonment
77. None of the above

• Ans: A. diyat

 

74. “Mischief” is narrated u/s:
75. 425 B. 426
76. 428 D. 428

• Ans: A. 425

 

75. Punishment for criminal intimidation is provided u/s:
76. 503 B. 505
77. 506 D. 507

• Ans: C. 506

 

76. Whoever attempts to commit robbery shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
77. 3 years and shall be liable to fine
78. 5 years and shall be liable to fine
79. 7 years and shall be liable to fine
80. None of the above

• Ans: C. 7 years and shall be liable to fine

 

77. What is the relevant provision for isqat-i-janin?
78. 338 A B. 338 B
79. 338 C D. 338 D

• Ans: B. 338 B

 

78. Qatlshibh-i-amd is defined section/s:
79. 310 B. 311
80. 315 D. 318

• Ans: C. 315

 

79. Wrongful gain is discussed u/s:
80. 21 B. 22
81. 23 D. 24

• Ans: C. 23

 

80. Sec 53 deals with:
81. Punishments B. Fines
82. Vessels D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Punishments

 

81. What are the requisites of defamation?
82. Be defamatory B. Be false
83. Be published D. All of the above

• Ans: D. all of the above

 

82. Imprisonment in default of payment of fine worth exceeding Rs. 100 is:
83. 4 months B. 6 months
84. 1 year D. None of the above

• Ans: B. 6 months

 

83. Whoever commits criminal trespass shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
84. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both
85. 6 months or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees or with both
86. 1 year or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees
87. None of the above

• Ans: A. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both

 

84. Fornication is defined u/s:
85. 496 B. 496 A
86. 496 B D. 496 C

• Ans: C. 496 B

 

85. Sedition is discussed u/s:
86. 121 B. 122 A
87. 124 A D. 126 A

• Ans: C. 124 A

 

86. When violence is used by any member of an unlawful assembly it is called:
87. Affray B. Rioting
88. Intimidation D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Affray

 

87. Issuing or signing false certificate is a crime u/s:
88. 195 B. 196
89. 197 D. 198

• Ans: C. 197

 

88. Counterfeiting Pakistani coins is an offence u/s:
89. 232 B. 233
90. 234 D. 235

• Ans: A. 232

 

The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (CR.PC)

 

1. A private complaint can be filed u/s:
2. 200 B. 202
3. 203 D. 204

• Ans: A. 200

 

2. The Magistrate can acquit an accused u/s 249A. at any stage of trial:
3. Yes B. No

• Ans: A. Yes

 

3. A person arrested by Police can be discharged by a Magistrate u/s:
4. 63 B. 163
5. 263 D. 265

• Ans: A. 63

 

4. The Additional Sessions Judge can acquit an accused at any stage of trial u/s:
5. 249A. B. 265
6. 265(k) D. none of these

• Ans: C. 265(k)

 

5. After completion of investigation by Police, Challan is submitted u/s:
6. 173 B. 169
7. 154 D. 167

• Ans: A. 173

 

6. A Magistrate empowered under section 30 can award maximum sentence up to:
7. 5 years B. 7 years
8. 10 years D. none of these

• Ans: B. 7 years

 

7. Pre arrest Bail is granted u/s:
8. 103 B. 344 
9. 498 D. 497

• Ans: C. 498 

 

8. Pre arrest bail can be availed from : 
9. Magistrate B. Court of Session
10. High Court D. B and C both

• Ans: B. B and C both

 

9. Limitation to file Appeal against acquittal by aggrieved person before High Court:
10. 30 days B. 16 days
11. 60 days D. 90 days

• Ans: A. 30 days

 

10. Limitation of appeal against acquittal by Govt through Public Prosecutor:
11. 6 month under Article 157 Limitation Act 
12. 8 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
13. 10 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
14. None of these

• Ans: A. 6 months under Article 157 Limitation Act

 

11. Forum for appeal against acquittal:
12. High Court B. Magistrate
13. Court of session D. None of these

• Ans: A. High Court

 

12. Forum for cancellation of bail:
13. High Court B. Same Court 
14. Session Court D. All of the above

• Ans: B. All of the above

 

13. Every warrant of arrest shall be signed by:
14. The reader of the Court B. Complainant 
15. Police Officer D. Presiding Officer of the Court 

• Ans: D. Presiding Officer of the Court

 

14. A report, which is made u/s 174 is called:
15. Inquest Report B. Statement under Section 161
16. Challan D. First Information Report

• Ans: A. Inquest Report

 

15. Summons issued by a Court under this Code shall be served by:
16. Witnesses B. Police Officer
17. The complainant D. All above mentioned

• Ans: B. Police Officer

 

16. Appeal against the order of Magistrate u/s 30 lies before:
17. High Court B. Court of Session
18. Supreme Court D. None of these

• Ans: B. Court of Session

 

17. Remedy against the executive order of the Magistrate is:
18. Appeal only before the High Court
19. Revision only before the High Court
20. Writ only before the High Court
21. None of these

• Ans: C. Writ only before the High Court

 

18. Forum for cancellation of bail:
19. High Court B. Same Court 
20. Session Court D. All of the above

• Ans: B. All of the above

 

19. The accused is _____ after recording confessional statement:
20. Released on Bail B. Set free
21. Kept in judicial lock-up D. Discharged from investigation 

• Ans: C. Kept in judicial lock-up

 

20. Arrest how made:
21. By hand cuffing the accused B. By actually touching or confining
22. By spoken words D. By showing the warrant.

• Ans: B. By actually touching or confining

 

21. Court of Magistrate of the Third Class may pass the sentence of Imprisonment upto:
22. 1 month B. 6 months
23. 12 months D. None of these

• Ans: A. 1 month

 

22. Court of Magistrate of the Second Class may pass the sentence of imprisonment upto:
23. 10 years B. 01 year
24. 15 years D. None of these

• Ans: B. 01 year

 

23. After framing charge, it is read over to the:
24. Accused B. Complainant 
25. Public Prosecutor D. Witness

• Ans: A. Accused

 

24. An accused person may be declared absconder u/s:
25. 87 B. 61 
26. 167 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 87 

 

25. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
26. 164 B. 337
27. 366 D. 364

• Ans: C. 366

 

26. Post arrest bail is granted u/s:
27. 100 B. 491 
28. 497 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 497 

 

27. Bail means:
28. To discharge the accused
29. To release the accused after executing Bond
30. To acquit the accused
31. None of these

• Ans: B. To release the accused afterexecuting Bond

 

28. A revision shall lie to the High Court u/s:
29. 374 B. 417
30. 439 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 439

 

29. When the Court of Sessions passes sentence of Death, the time period for the appeal is:
30. 07 days B. 30 days
31. 60 days D. 90 days

• Ans: A. 07 days

 

30. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
31. 164 B. 337
32. 366 D. 364

• Ans: C. 366

 

31. An accomplice means any person who is:
32. Complainant B. Public Officer 
33. Police Officer D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime 

• Ans: D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime

 

32. Section 164 deals with the:
33. First Information Report B. Confessions and statements 
34. All of the above D. Challan

• Ans: B. Confessions and statements

 

33. Conditional order for the removal of nuisance is made by the Magistrate u/s:
34. 100 B. 103 
35. 133 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 133 

 

34. Investigation is conducted by:
35. Magistrate B. Session Judge
36. Police Officer D. None of these

• Ans: C. Police Officer

 

35. Inquiry includes one which is conducted by:
36. Magistrate or Court B. Police Officer
37. Advocate D. None of these

• Ans: A. Magistrate or Court

 

36. The Code of Criminal Procedure extends to the:
37. Punjab B. Sindh
38. Whole of Pakistan D. None of these

• Ans: C. Whole of Pakistan

 

37. Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been mentioned u/s:
38. 529 B. 530
39. 537 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 529

 

38. A case in which a police officer may not arrest without warrant is called:
39. Cognizable offence B. Non-cognizable offence
40. Non-cognizable case D. B & Care correct

• Ans: D. B &C are correct

 

39. Any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being in force is known as: 
40. Offence B. Cognizable offence 
41. Non-cognizable offence D. None of the above

• Ans: A. Offence

 

40. Place includes:
41. A House B. A tent & a vessel
42. A building D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

41. Magistrate may dispense with the personal attendance of accused u/s:
42. 204 B. 205 
43. 206 D. 221 

• Ans: B. 205 

 

42. Police inquiry on suicide etc. is conducted u/s:
43. 173 B. 174 
44. 175 D. 176 

• Ans: B. 174 

 

43. Challan is a report of the police officer submitted before the court under section:
44. 170 B. 171 
45. 172 D. 173 

• Ans: D. 173 

 

44. A police officer is empowered to conduct search u/s:
45. 162 B. 165 
46. 166 D. 164 

• Ans: B. 165 

 

45. Supply of statements and documents to the accused is made u/s:
46. 240 B. 242
47. 241-A D. 341

• Ans: C. 241-A

 

46. When a person is charged with one offence:
47. He may be convicted of another
48. He may not be convicted of another
49. Both of the above
50. None of the above

• Ans: A. He may be convicted of another

 

47. Table of the compoundable offences mentioned in PPC is given u/s:
48. 344 B. 345
49. 346 D. 347

• Ans: B. 345

 

48. Power to postpone or adjourn the procedure is vested in a Criminal Court u/s:
49. 344 B. 342
50. 345 D. 346

• Ans: A. 344

 

49. F.I.R (First Information Report) of a cognizable offence is recorded u/s: 
50. 155 of Cr.P.C B. 156 of Cr.P.C
51. 154 of Cr.P.C D. 200 of Cr.P.C

• Ans: C. 154 of Cr.P.C

 

50. Magistrate may acquit accused at any stage considering the charge groundless u/s:
51. 248 B. 249
52. 249-A D. 250

• Ans: C. 249-A

 

51. Chapter XXIV lays down general provisions as to:
52. Inquiries B. Trials
53. Investigations D. Inquiries and trials 

• Ans: D. Inquiries and trials

 

52. Section 265-L empowers the:
53. Advocate General to stay prosecution
54. Court to stay prosecution
55. Inspector legal to stay prosecution
56. Defence Counsel to stay prosecution

• Ans: A. Advocate General to stay prosecution

 

53. In a Court of Session, statement under section 164 is admissible u/s:
54. 265-K B. 265-E
55. 265-J D. 265-L

• Ans: C. 265-J

 

54. Application for acquittal of an accused is moved before a Court of Session u/s:
55. 265-A B. 265-D
56. 265-J D. 265-K

• Ans: D. 265-K

 

55. Procedure for trial before High Court and Court of Session is laid down in chapter:
56. XXII-A B. XXIII
57. XXII-B D. None of the above 

• Ans: A. XXII-A

 

56. No installments shall be allowed in the execution of sentence of:
57. Death B. Stoning to death
58. Whipping D. Imprisonment

• Ans: C. Whipping

 

57. Direction of warrant for execution of sentence of imprisonment shall be to:
58. Inspector General of Jails B. Inspector General of Police 
59. Officer of the Jail D. All of the above

• Ans: C. Officer of the Jail

 

58. In case of sentence of death on a pregnant woman, the High Court shall:
59. Forgive the woman B. Postpone the sentence
60. Execute the woman D. None of the above

• Ans: B. Postpone the sentence

 

59. If the death sentence is passed by Sessions Court, it will be executed:
60. Right away
61. After submission and confirmation by High Court
62. After confirmation and submission to Supreme Court
63. By High Court 

• Ans: B. After submission and confirmation by High Court

 

60. According to section 371 the copy of the judgment shall be given to the accused:
61. Free of cost B. For one hundred rupees
62. For fifty rupees D. For ten rupees

• Ans: A. Free of cost

 

61. A High Court may alter its judgment only in case of :
62. Appeal B. Discretion
63. Clerical error D. None of the above

• Ans: C. Clerical error

 

62. Describe the number of sections in Cr.P.C:
63. 562 B. 563
64. 564 D. 565

• Ans: D. 565

 

63. Offence of Defamation is :
64. Bailable and not compoundable
65. Bailable and compoundable 
66. A and B both
67. None of the above

• Ans: B. Bailable and compoundable

 

64. The offence u/s 489-F (P.P.C) is triable by:
65. Court of Session B. Magistrate 2nd class
66. Magistrate 3rd class D. Magistrate 1st class

• Ans: D. Magistrate 1st class

 

65. Unnatural offence is:
66. Bailable and compoundable 
67. Not bailable and not compoundable 
68. Both
69. None of these

• Ans: B. Not bailable and not compoundable

 

66. Kidnaping is tried by:
67. Court of Session B. Magistrate 1st class
68. Both of the above D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

67. Rape case is tried by:
68. Court of Session B. High Court
69. Magistrate of 1st class D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: A. Court of Session

 

68. Trial of Qatl bis-sabab is conducted by:
69. High Court B. Court of Session
70. Magistrate 1st class D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: B. Court of Session

 

69. Qatl-i-amd is tried by:
70. High Court B. Magistrate 1st class
71. Magistrate 2nd class D. Court of Session

• Ans: D. Court of Session

 

70. Who may try the case u/S. 241 P.P.C:
71. Magistrate 1st class B. Magistrate 2nd class
72. Magistrate 3rd class D. A and B both

• Ans: C. A and B both

 

71. Rioting is tried by:
72. Judicial Magistrate B. Executive Magistrate 
73. Magistrate 1st calss D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: B. Executive Magistrate

 

72. Schedule II coulumn 6 of the Code deals with the offences whether:
73. Bailable or not B. Compoundable or not
74. Triable or not D. None of the above

• Ans: B. Compoundable or not

 

73. Column 8 of 2nd Schedule deals with:
74. Offences B. Warrants
75. Name of trial Court D. There is no 8th column is schedule II

• Ans: C. Name of trial Court

 

74. The power to appoint Public Prosecutor rests with the:
75. High Court B. Supreme Court
76. Provincial Govt D. Federal Govt

• Ans: C. Provincial Govt

 

75. 2nd Revision is competent before:
76. High Court B. Supreme Court
77. Shariat Court D. Session Court

• Ans: C. Shariat Court

 

76. Lunatic means:
77. Minor B. Insane
78. Insolvent D. All of the above

• Ans: B. Insane

 

77. Bail may not be granted to a person against whom security proceedings are taken u/s:
78. 1171 B. 1172
79. 1173 D. 1174

• Ans: C. 1173

 

78. What is the form number of bail bond?
79. Form 42 of Schedule 5 B. Form 43 of Schedule 5
80. Form 44 of Schedule 5 D. Form 45 of Schedule 5

• Ans: A. Form 42 of Schedule

 

79. Who may grant bail in bailable offences?
80. Court of law
81. An officer of Court
82. Officer Incharge of police station
83. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

80. Bail is a:
81. statutory concession B. Inherent right
82. Natural right D. All of the above

• Ans: A. statutory concession

 

81. Confession shall be recorded in:
82. Points B. Full
83. Parts D. All of the above

• Ans: B. Full

 

82. What is the value of evidence of an accomplice:
83. Conviction is based B. Corroboration is required 
84. Weak in status D. All of the above 

• Ans: A. Conviction is based

 

83. Who may grant pardon during trial?
84. High Court
85. Session Court
86. Officer Incharge of prosecution in district
87. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

84. What is the mode of amendment in charge:
85. Suo moto by Court B. On application by prosecution
86. Both of the above D. None of these

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

85. What is the mode of transfer of cases u/s 526:
86. Application by interested person
87. Application by lower Court
88. Suo moto
89. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

86. Section 439 and 439 A deal with:
87. Appeal B. Review
88. Revision D. None of the above

• Ans: C. Revision

 

87. When the judges of Court of Revision are equally divided u/s 439:
88. The case is dismissed 
89. The former sentence is confirmed
90. The case shall be laid before another Judge
91. None of the above

• Ans: C. The case shall be laid before another Judge

 

88. An Assistant Sessions Judge may pass sentence authorized by law except:
89. A sentence of imprisonment 
90. A sentence of death
91. Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
92. None of the above

• Ans: D. None of the above

 

89. Where the evidence is partly recorded by one Presiding Officer and partly by another, the procedure for conviction is given u/s:
90. 350 B. 3501
91. 3502, 3 D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

90. Trial of persons previously convicted of offences against coinage, stamp law or property is conducted u/s:
91. 347 B. 348
92. 349 D. 350

• Ans: B. 348

 

91. Police station means any post or place declared generally or specially to conduct investigation by the:
92. Federal Government B. Local Government 
93. Provincial Government D. A & C both

• Ans: C. Provincial Government

 

92. Copies of the statement u/s 161 and 164 and other necessary documents shall be supplied free of cost to the accused not less than:
93. 7 days before commencement of trial
94. 15 days before commencement of trial
95. 30 days before commencement of trial
96. None of these

• Ans: A. 7 days before commencement of trial

 

93. At any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, the Court may summon any person as a witness or re-call and re-examine any person already examined u/s:
94. 539 B. 540 
95. 540A D. None of these

• Ans: B. 540 

 

94. The Sessions Judge may exercise the same powers of Revision u/s ______ of the Cr.P.C as are conferred on the High Court:
95. 374 B. 417
96. 423 D. 439A

• Ans: D. 439A

 

95. Forum of protective bail:
96. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)
97. Court of session
98. Magistrate
99. None of these 

• Ans: A. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)

 

96. Who is authorized under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to take down the statements of the witnesses or the accused?
97. A Civil Judge B. A Session Judge
98. A Police Officer D. A Magistrate

• Ans: C. A Police Officer

 

97. Every information relating to the commission of an offence if given orally or in writing to the Officer Incharge of Police is called:
98. Complaint B. A news
99. First Information Report D. None of these

• Ans: C. First Information Report

 

98. The Powers of a Magistrate u/s 145 constitute the integral part of the Preventive Jurisdiction of the Magistrate:
99. Correct B. Incorrect
100. Partly correct, Partly incorrect D. None of these

• Ans: A. Correct

 

99. Power of a Magistrate to Sentence to imprisonment in default of fine is contained in Section ________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
100. 33 B. 60
101. 154 D. 221

• Ans: A. 33

 

100. A person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again for same offence under Section ______ of the Code:
101. 337 B. 403
102. 503 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 403

 

101. Which Section delegates powers to a private person to arrest any person who in his view commits a non-Bailable and cognizable offence or who is a proclaimed offender:
102. 190 B. 167 
103. 161 D. 59 

• Ans: D. 59 

 

102. A Challan of the accused under Section 173 of shall be forwarded to a Magistrate through:
103. The Public Prosecutor B. The complainant
104. The PoliceOfficer D. None of these

• Ans: A. The Public Prosecutor

 

103. Whether a PoliceOfficer may release the accused under Section 169 when evidence is deficient against him?
104. Yes
105. No
106. With the Permission of the Court
107. None of these

• Ans: A. Yes

 

104. An allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate for an action against a person who has committed an offence excluding the report of Police Officer is known as:
105. Complaint B. FIR (First Information Report)
106. Statement of allegation D. None of these

• Ans: A. Complaint

 

105. Any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath is known as:
106. Enquiry B. Investigation
107. Non-judicial proceedings D. Judicial proceedings 

• Ans: D. Judicial proceedings

 

106. The proceedings for the collection of evidence conducted by a Police Officer or by any person other than a Magistrate who is authorized by a Magistrate in this regard are known as:
107. Investigation B. Enquiry
108. Judicial Enquiry D. None of the above

• Ans: A. Investigation

 

107. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend, the amount of fine to which the offender is liable is unlimited but it shall not be:
108. Less than 20,000 Rupees. B. More than 20,000 Rupees
109. Excessive D. Deficient 

• Ans: C. Excessive

 

108. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment under Section 57 the imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for:
109. 12 – ½ years B. 15 years
110. 25 years D. Whole life

• Ans: C. 25 years

 

109. A confessional statement is recorded by a Magistrate especially empowered by the Provincial Government u/s:
110. 163 B. 164 
111. 165 D. 166 

• Ans: B. 164 

 

110. If a Magistrate upon taking evidence finds the accused not guilty:
111. He shall convict him B. He shall record an order of acquittal
112. He shall only record an order D. He shall transfer the case

• Ans: B. He shall record an order of acquittal

 

111. Right of a person, against whom proceedings are instituted to be defended and his competency to a witness is given u/s:
112. 339 B. 340
113. 341 D. 343

• Ans: B. 340

 

112. Where a person is guilty of one of several offences specified in the judgment, but that is doubtful that which of these offences he is guilty, the offender will be punished for the offence for which:
113. The lowest punishment is awarded if the same punishment is provided
114. The highest punishment is awarded if same punishment is provided for all
115. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all
116. None of the above

• Ans: C. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all

 

113. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
114. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
115. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
116. Both of the above
117. There is no limitation on revision

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

114. Besides the High Court and the courts constituted under any law other than Cr. P.C, for the time being in force, there shall be two classes of criminal courts in Pakistan, namely:
115. Supreme Court and Tribunals
116. Anti-Corruption Courts and Special Courts
117. Magisterial Courts and Anti-Terrorist Court 
118. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

• Ans: D. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

 

115. U/S 221 of the Cr.P.C, every charge shall state:
116. The history of the accused
117. Offence of the accused
118. Offence with which the accused is charged
119. Nature of the offence

• Ans: C. Offence with which the accused is charged

 

116. Section 160 enshrines:
117. Police Officer’s power to examine witnesses 
118. Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses
119. Police Officer’s power tosuspect
120. Police Officer’s power to hold investigation 

• Ans: B. Police officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses

 

117. At any time before a final order is passed in any case if a complainant satisfies the Magistrate for permission to withdraw his complaint:
118. The Magistrate shall permit him to with draw the case
119. Shall there upon acquit the accused
120. May permit him to withdraw the same
121. ‘B’ & ‘C’ are correct 

• Ans: D. B’ & ‘C’ are correct

 

118. If the summon has been issued on a complaint and upon the day appointed for the appearance of the accused, the complainant does not appear:
119. The magistrate shall acquit the accused
120. Unless for some reason he thinks proper to adjourn the hearing of the case till some other day.
121. A & B are correct
122. None of these

• Ans: C. A & B are correct

 

119. Where the Magistrate does not proceed in accordance with the provisions of section 349, he shall, if he finds the accused guilty:
120. Pass sentence upon him according to law
121. Acquit him
122. Refer the case to superior court
123. Shall proceed under section 349 of the Cr.P.C

• Ans: A. Pass sentence upon him according to law

 

120. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the commencement of trial:
121. The prosecutor shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witnesses
122. The accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness
123. The court shall summon any witness who may have been examined
124. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

• Ans: D. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

 

121. Section 343 says:
122. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge
123. Every influence is to be used to induce disclosure
124. A & B both are correct
125. All of the above

• Ans: A. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge

 

122. A warrant for execution of any sentence shall be issued by:
123. High Court
124. Session Court 
125. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence
126. A & C both

• Ans: C. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence

 

123. In case of sentence of death, according to section 368 , the sentence shall direct that:
124. A person be shot in the chest
125. A person be killed by knife
126. A person be slaughtered by neck for 5 minutes
127. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

• Ans: D. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

 

124. Section 357 speaks as to:
125. Memorandum when evidence is not taken down
126. Language of record of evidence 
127. Manner of record of evidence
128. Option with Magistrate in cases under section 335 

• Ans: B. Language of record of evidence

 

125. Section 364 lays down:
126. Procedure to record evidence in trial of certain cases
127. Procedure of recording inquiry
128. Manner of recording evidence
129. All of the above 

• Ans: C. Manner of recording evidence

 

126. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
127. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
128. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
129. Both of the above
130. There is no limitation on revision

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

127. When incriminating questions may be asked u/s 342(2):
128. To prove offence with which the accused is charged 
129. Where the accused tries to establish his good character
130. Where the accused gives evidence for any other person
131. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

128. The duty of Court towards the acused u/s 340(2) :
129. To the accused may make a statement on oath
130. The accused may confess to any offence
131. Both of the above
132. The Court has no duty

• Ans: A. to the accused may make a statement on oath

 

129. Requirement for accused to appear as a witness:
130. When proceedings are instituted against him
131. When he does not plead guilty
132. When he is accused of some offence before Criminal Court
133. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

QANOON-E-SHAHADAT ORDER 1984

 

1. A person shall not be competent to testify if he has been convicted by a court for:
2. Perjury B. Giving false evidence 
3. Bad character D. A & B

• Ans: D. A & B

 

2. No Magistrate or Officer shall be competed to my whence he got any information as to the:
3. Planning of an offence B. Preparation of an offence 
4. Omission of an offence D. Commission of a offence

• Ans: D. Commission of a offence

 

3. The subject of “refreshing memory” is dealt within article:
4. 153 B. 154
5. 155 D. 156

• Ans: C. 155

 

4. Under article 148, the court shall forbid any question which appears to the court as intended to:
5. Annoy B. Offensive 
6. Insult D. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

5. Leading question is defined in article:
6. 134 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
7. 135 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 137 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

• Ans: C. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

6. Examination-in-chief has been defined in article:
7. 131 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 133 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
10. 143 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

• Ans: B. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

7. If no evidence at all were given in a suit or proceedings the burden of proof would be on:
8. The one who would fall as a result
9. The one who would rise as a result
10. Both the parties
11. None of them.

• Ans: A. The one who would fall as a result

 

8. Public document are defined in article:
9. 83 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
10. 94 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
11. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
12. 86 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

• Ans: C. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

 

9. The contents of documents may be proved by:
10. Primary evidence B. Secondary evidence 
11. Territory evidence D. a & b

• Ans: D. a & b

 

10. All accused persons, including an accomplice shall be liable to:
11. Hadd B. Criminal proceeding 
12. Cross-examination D. Imprisonment 

• Ans: C. Cross-examination

 

11. All facts may be proved by oral evidence except:
12. Contents of Re-written statements
13. Contents of an oral statement 
14. Contents of documents.
15. b & c

• Ans: D. b & c

 

12. Admission is defined in article:
13. 28 of Qanun-e-Shahadat B. 29 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
14. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat D. 31 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

• Ans: C. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

13. In suits for damages facts intending to enable the court to determine amount are:
14. Partly relevant and partly irrelevant
15. Relevant
16. Irrelevant
17. None of the above 

• Ans: B. Relevant

 

14. In civil cases, previous character taken into account for deciding damges,is:
15. Partly relevant partly irrelevant B. Relevant
16. Irrelevant D. All of the above

• Ans: B. Relevant

 

15. In criminal cases, previous good character is:
16. Irrelevant
17. Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant
19. All of the above

• Ans: B. Relevant

 

16. In civil ases, character to prove conduct imputed is:
17. IrrelevantB)Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Irrelevant

 

17. Article 9 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984” shall also apply to:
18. Interpreters B. Clerks of advocate in writing
19. Servants of advocates D. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

18. According to Article 21, any fact is relevant which shows or constitutes:
19. Any preparation for any fact B. Any motive for any fact
20. A relevant fact D. all of the above

• Ans: D. all of the above

 

19. A competent witness against an accused person except in case of Hadd is _______
20. Party of Suit B. Defendant
21. Accomplice D. None of them

• Ans: C. Accomplice

 

20. Facts which though not in issue are so connected with fact in issue are _______
21. Admitted facts B. Relevant facts
22. Related Facts D. General Facts\

• Ans: B. Relevant facts

 

21. The basic scheme of any action is _______
22. Intention B. Plan
23. Motive D. Preparation

• Ans: C. Motive

 

22.“ Inter alia” means ______

1. Previous judgment can be relevant
2. Judgment is relevant to fact
3. Facts are to be proved
4. Facts proved

• Ans: A. Previous judgment can be relevant

 

23. Article 20 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with ________
24. Admission B. Identification of Accused
25. Appreciation of evidence D. Admissibility of facts

• Ans: D. Admissibility of facts

 

24. A dealing which is carried on between two or more persons is _______
25. Transaction B. Business
26. Agreemen D. Contract

• Ans: A. Transaction

 

25. Article 30 of Qanoon e Shahadat 1984 defines _________
26. Admission B. Confession
27. Intention D. Common intention

• Ans: A. Admission

 

26. In criminal cases, parties may be called as ____________
27. plaintiff and defendant B. accused and complainant
28. accused and prosecution D. A and C

• Ans: B. accused and complainant

 

27. Any opinion which is held by a body of a man is ______.
28. Tenets B. Aggrieved opinion
29. Dogma D. Doctrine

• Ans: A. Tenets

 

28. Document itself produced before the court is _________ 
29. Direct evidence B. primary evidence
30. secondary evidence D. None of them

• Ans: B. primary evidence

 

29. Documents which are prepared by public officer are ________
30. official documents B. Public documents
31. fair documents D. legal documents

• Ans: B. Public documents

 

30. In order to vitiate document must have been committed in the execution of document.
31. In case of fraud B. in case of decified 
32. In case of ADR D. None of them

• Ans: A. In case of fraud

 

31. The lists of facts of which the court shall take notice, which shall be called as _____
32. Legislative notice B. Public notice
33. Judicial Notice D. official notice

• Ans: C. Judicial Notice

 

32. In which deed endorsement to the receipt of consideration/ possession is refundable?
33. Gift dee B. Sale deed
34. Marital deed D. Both a and b

• Ans: A. Gift dee

 

33. Mutual mistake in the working of an agreement is ________
34. Working mistake B. Agreement mistake
35. mistake of law D. Mistake of fact

• Ans: D. Mistake of fact

 

34. Facts which need not to be proved are __________
35. noticeable B. judicial noticeable facts
36. proved facts D. facts not admitted

• Ans: B. judicial noticeable facts

 

35. Grant of interest is prohibited directly under the injunctions of ________
36. Quran B. Sunnah
37. Constitution 1973 D. Qanoon e Shahadat Act

• Ans: A. Quran

 

36. Estoppel shuts the mouth of party, res judicata ousts the __________
37. successive litiatious B. offending act
38. violation of rights D. jurisdiction of court

• Ans: D. jurisdiction of court

 

37. In case of infringement of fundamental rights, one can enjoy _______
38. Right to sue B. right of estopel
39. right of life D. A and C

• Ans: B. right of estopel

 

38. One can enjoy right of estopel uner what article of Qanoon e Shahadat Order.
39. 25 B. 103
40. 112 D. 114

• Ans: D. 114

 

39. Secundum allegata at probate is _______.
40. Petition by bank for recovery of loan
41. execution of consent decree
42. Agreement to sell
43. Illegal contract

• Ans: A. Petition by bank for recovery of loan

 

40. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact is said ________
41. Burden of proof lies on him B. He is not liable to any act
42. He is judgment debtor D. None of them

• Ans: A. Burden of proof lies on him

 

41. Article 117 of Qanoon e Shahadat is about _______
42. Relevancy of fact B. trade marks
43. burden of proof D. Affirmative of issue.

• Ans: C. burden of proof

 

42. A documentary evidence is proved to be true by _______
43. Cross examination B. Confirmation of writer and witnesses
44. Verification D. None of them

• Ans: B. Confirmation of writer and witnesses

 

43. An oral evidence is proved to be true by ________.
44. Cross examination B. confirmation of writer of witnesses
45. Verification D. None of them

• Ans: A. Cross examination

 

44. Documentary evidence relates to documents whereas oral evidence relates to _____
45. incident B. persons
46. offence D. defendant

• Ans: B. persons

 

45. Hearsay evidence is an admissible evidence where it is about _______
46. civil matters B. custom
47. criminal matter D. ADR

• Ans: B. custom

 

46. It is mandatory to _________ accept or reject an admission.
47. discretionarily B. Partially
48. Completely D. None of them

• Ans: C. Completely

 

47. An admission is always made about ________
48. Facts B. Law
49. Parties D. Issues

• Ans: A. Facts

 

48. Admission can be made in _________
49. Criminal matters B. Civil matters
50. A & B D. None of them

• Ans: C. A & B

 

49. A confession is said to be void if it is ________.
50. extra judicial B. under threat
51. pressure D. All of them

• Ans: D. All of them

 

50. Judicial confession is _________ evidence.
51. admissible B. inadmissible
52. partially admissible D. partially inadmissible

• Ans: A. admissible

 

51. Extra judicial confession is ________ evidence.
52. Partially inadmissible B. partially admissible
53. admissible D. inadmissible

• Ans: B. partially admissible

 

52. There are _______types of estopple theory.
53. two B. three
54. four D. five

• Ans: B. three

 

53. If a person makes an admission through a document, this shall be called _______
54. estopple by conduct B. estopple by deed
55. estopple by judgment D. All of them

• Ans: B. estopple by deed

 

54. Theory of estopple is applied matter is about ________________.
55. Question of fact B. question of law
56. behaviour D. A and B

• Ans: A. Question of fact

 

55. _________ is such questions which are asked by party who calls him.
56. Leading question B. Re-examination
57. Examination in chiefC. Cross examination

• Ans: C. Examination in chief

 

56._______ question are asked after cross examination, by the party who calls him.

1. Leading question B. Re-examination
2. Cross examination D. Re-examination

• Ans: D. Re-examination

 

57. Answers of ___________ is always in form of “Yes” or “No” 
58. Cross examination B. leading question
59. Re-examination D. None of them

• Ans: B. leading question

 

58. Cross examination question are asked by _________.
59. Defendant B. Court
60. Prosecution D. All of them

• Ans: C. Prosecution

 

59. _______ is competent to declare whether any question is appropriate or not.
60. Court B. Prosecution
61. Complainant D. Defendant

• Ans: A. Court

 

60. This is discretionary power of __________ to allow counsel to ask question.
61. Court B. Defendant
62. Counsel D. None of them

• Ans: A. Court

 

61. Facts of which courts shall take judicial notice are ________.
62. All Pakistan Laws B. Proceedings of Legislature
63. Seal of the Court D. All of them

• Ans: D. All of them

 

62. Question of estopple is a question of ________
63. Law B. Fact
64. Ego D. Admissible

• Ans: B. Fact

 

63. The estopple by representation is know as _________
64. Estopple B. General Estopple
65. Promissory Estopple D. Equitable Estopple

• Ans: D. Equitable Estopple

 

64. The estopple cannot be allowed to defeat the provisions of ________
65. Statute B. Fact
66. Evidence D. All of them

• Ans: A. Statute

 

65. An expert may refresh his memory by reference to _________
66. Professional activities B. Professional Life
67. Professional treaties D. None of them

• Ans: C. Professional treaties

 

66. The court shall forbid any question which appears to it, to be intended to ______the witness.
67. insult or annoy B. permit
68. necessary D. ask

• Ans: A. insult or annoy

 

67.______ stages are provided for the purposes of recording evidence.

1. Twp B. Three
2. five D. Four

• Ans: B. Three

 

68. The estopple classified into _______ kinds.
69. one B. two
70. three D. four

• Ans: C. three

 

69. Audi Atteram Partem means _____
70. Condemned unheard B. Right of cross examination
71. Dismissal of appeal D. All of them

• Ans: A. Condemned unheard

 

70. Provisions of Qanoon-e-shahadat are not applied on proceedings before _______.
71. Sessions Judge B. Service Tribunal
72. Mohtasib D. High Court

• Ans: C. Mohtasib

 

71. Competence of witnesses is specifically determined in light of _______.
72. Court’s discretion B. relevant law
73. injunction of Islam D. None of them

• Ans: C. injunction of Islam

 

72. Court may allow a person to testify who is convicted for giving false evidence if he is ______
73. Minor B. Insane
74. Solvent D. Repented

• Ans: D. Repented

 

73. Court cannot compel an counsel to disclose his communication with _____
74. Prosecutor B. Police
75. Client D. Witnesses

• Ans: C. Client

 

74._______ has relevancy with facts and is a conclusive proof.

1. Matrimonial B. Expert opinion
2. hearsay evidence D. Oral evidence

• Ans: A. Matrimonial

 

75. When court requires opinion of an expert it is _____ fact in certain cases.
76. relevant B. irrelevant
77. admissible D. None of them

• Ans: A. relevant

 

76. Every accused shall be given right of _______ in non-cognizable offenses.
77. cross examination B. bail
78. re-examination D. None of them

• Ans: A. cross examination

 

77. While testifying, if an answer of witness criminates him, the court shall order _____ him.
78. to Arrest B. Remand
79. FIR D. None of them

• Ans: D. None of them

 

78. Extra Judicial confession can be proved as evidence against accused in _______ court.
79. High Court B. Sessions Court
80. Shairat Court D. None of them

• Ans: D. None of them

 

79. Admission is either ______ accepted or ______ rejected.
80. Completely B. partially
81. discretionarily D. None of them

• Ans: A. Completely

 

80. A valid admission can only be made before _________
81. Magistrate B. Police
82. Prosecutor D. Complainant

• Ans: A. Magistrate

 

81. Confession made before a person other than authorized authority is called _______.
82. Judicial B. Extra Judicial
83. Secondary D. Mandatory

• Ans: B. Extra Judicial

 

82. Court can compel _____ to disclose its source of information regarding commission of crime.
83. Police B. Magistrate
84. Prosecutor D. None of them

• Ans: D. None of them

 

83. It is decided by _______ whether evidence is admissible or inadmissible.
84. Police B. Prosecutor
85. Court D. Complainant

• Ans: C. Court

 

84. Dying declaration is hearsay evidence and it is _______ under law.
85. admissible B. inadmissible
86. rejected D. partially accepted

• Ans: A. admissible

 

85. Witness of a non-Muslim against a Muslim is ________ evidence in Hudood cases.
86. Secondary B. Mandatory
87. Admissible D. inadmissible

• Ans: D. inadmissible

 

86. Benefit of doubt goes in favour of _________.
87. Accused B. Complainant
88. Police D. None of them

• Ans: A. Accused

 

87. Qanoon-e-Shahadar Order, 1984 divides documents in _________ categories.
88. three B. one
89. two D. Four

• Ans: C. two

 

89. ______ are not considered to be public documents.
90. official notes B. certified copies
91. Dummy copies D. None of them

• Ans: A. official notes

 

90. Facts judicially noticeable need not to be _________
91. Solved B. declared
92. proved D. Reliance

• Ans: C. proved

 

91. ________ facts need not to be proved.
92. denied B. admitted
93. admission D. admitted

• Ans: B. admitted

 

92. Birth during marriage _________ proof of legitimacy.
93. conclusive B. conditional
94. uncertain D. doubtful

• Ans: A. conclusive

 

93. _________ has to decide as to admission bluntly of evidence.
94. lawyer B. judge
95. witness D. None of them

• Ans: B. judge

 

94. The order in which witnesses are produced and examined shall be regulated ______
95. Prescribed Law B. Judge
96. Lawyer D. Witness

• Ans: A. Prescribed Law

 

95. The examination of a witness by the party who calls him shall be called his _______
96. Examination in chief B. Prosecutor
97. Investigator D. None of them

• Ans: A. Examination in chief

 

96. The examination of witness by the adverse party shall be called _______
97. Admission B. re-examination
98. information D. Cross examination

• Ans: D.  Cross examination

 

97. _________ questions must not be asked.
98. confusing B. difficult
99. leaching D. easy

• Ans: C. leaching

 

98. Question not to be asked without __________ grounds.
99. Normal B. Reasonable
100. Specific D. unreasonable

• Ans: B. Reasonable

 

99. _________ may refresh his memory by reference to professional treaties.
100. Expert B. Judge
101. Lawyer D. Witness

• Ans: A. Expert

 

100. The complainant can support of his claim by __________.
101. Promise B. Statement
102. Oath D. All of them

• Ans: C. Oath

 

101. _______ power to discover or to obtain proper proof of relevant.
102. Judge B. Witness
103. Lawyer D. Prosecutor

• Ans: A. Judge

 

102. Questions tendering to corroborate evidence of relevant fact _______
103. denial B. inadmissible
104. admissible D. Secondary

• Ans: C. admissible

 

103. Statement not challenged in cross examination is considered as _________
104. admitted B. denied
105. false D. Partially accepted

• Ans: A. admitted

 

104. Agreement amongst two or more persons to do any illegal act that amount to any offence is ________
105. Conspiracy B. Pre planning
106. Common intention D. Malafide Intention 

• Ans: A. Conspiracy

 

105. The matter as to when a question shall be asked and when witness compiled to answer shall be decided by:
106. The Supreme Court B. The Provincial Government 
107. The Federal Government D. The concerned court

• Ans: D. The concerned court

 

106. Under Article 162, the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for:
107. Appeal B. A new trial
108. Reversal of any decision D. a & b

• Ans: A. Appeal

 

107. Under Article 158 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat”, the validity of any objection over the production of a document shall be decided by:
108. The Supreme Court B. The Federal Government
109. The Provincial Government D. The concerned court 

• Ans: A. The Supreme Court

 

108. Under article 46, the cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found etc, is:
109. Relevant B. Irrelevant
110. Partly D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Relevant

109. Under Article 48, entries in books of according in the normal course of business, are relevant whenever they refer to matter into which the court has to inquire, but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to:
110. Start proceedings against a person
111. Discharge any person form liability
112. Charge any person with liability 
113. End proceedings against a person

• Ans: C. Charge any person with liability

 

110. The competence of a person to testify, and the number of witnesses required in any case of Hadd shall be determined in accordance with:
111. Tazir B. Constitution
112. Quran & Sunnah D. Cr.P.C

• Ans: C. Quran & Sunnah

 

111. An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, except in the …. of offence punishable with:
112. Life imprisonment.
113. Hadd
114. Death penalty
115. Imprisonment of a term more than 10 years

• Ans: B. Hadd

 

112. In Section 6 “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984”, official record relating to the affairs of state” includes documents concerning industrial or commercial activities carried on directly or indirectly by the:
113. Provincial government B. Local government 
114. Federal government D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

113. The proceedings in which a jural relation is to be determined between one person to another is _______
114. Judicial B. Court 
115. Tribunal D. ADR

• Ans: A. Judicial

 

114. Fact of presence elsewhere is essentially inconsistent with presence at the place and time alleged and therefore, with personal participation in the act.
115. Theory of presence in act B. Theory of Alibi
116. Plea of Alibi D. C and B

• Ans: D. C and B

 

115. What is substantive piece of evidence that the deceased had substituted an innocent person in place of real culprit?
116. Document B. Will
117. Dying Declaration D. A and B

• Ans: C. Dying Declaration

 

116. Any instrument empowering a specified person to act for an in the name of the person executing, it is _________
117. Agent B. Power of Attorney
118. Advocate D. pleader

• Ans: B. Power of Attorney

 

117. In which condition, no evidence of any oral agreement or instrument shall be admitted between parties __________
118. when one is real owner B. Representation in interest
119. In case of preemptor D. All are correct

• Ans: B. Representation in interest

 

118. Personal disqualification laid down upon a person peculiary circumstanced from proving peculiar fact is _______
119. Estoppel B. Acquiescence
120. Res Judicata D. Preemptive rights

• Ans: A. Estoppel

 

119. A person who remained quiet unreasonably long time without any objection for having full knowledge of violation of his right is _______
120. Fraud B. Fraudulent intention
121. Waiver D. Void Agreement

• Ans: C. Waiver

 

120. The abadon or to relinquish non-vested right by express declaration or conduct known as _______
121. Estopple by Conduct B. Estopple by waiver
122. Estopple by Judgment D. None of them

• Ans: B. Estopple by waiver

 

121. A witness may give _______ of statement made by other persons about the content of the document.
122. Oral evidence B. Written evidence
123. Evidence D. Documentary evidence

• Ans: A. Oral evidence

 

122. The court may allow to produce any evidence that may have become provided in the shape of ________
123. video film B. press clipping
124. email D. All of them

• Ans: D. All of them

 

123. If it is not in public interest, the court may not compel _______ to disclose any information which has not been published?
124. Counsel of accused B. Company
125. Trust D. Public Officer

• Ans: D. Public Officer

 

124. Previous bad character of an accused is not _______, except where accused is proving him of good character
125. irrelevant B. relevant
126. inadmissible D. accepted

• Ans: B. relevant

 

125. Where a person is able to be produces before court, his statement shall be relevant if it is about _______
126. Robbery B. Murder
127. Cause of his death D. Rape

• Ans: C. Cause of his death

 

126. Under Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, burden of proof is on _______ to prove allegation against accused.
127. Prosecution B. Police
128. Complainant D. None of them

• Ans: A. Prosecution

 

127. Decision of authority for determination of evidence whether it is admissible or inadmissible is _______.
128. Question of fact B. Question of law
129. framing of charge D. Prosecution

• Ans: B. Question of law

 

128. If an accused claims that his case falls in exception provided in PPC then burden of proof shall be transferred on _________
129. Prosecutor B. Complainant
130. Accused D. Police

• Ans: C. Accused

 

129.__________ of public document shall not be admissible unless it has been certified to be the true copy, by the officer concerned, who has the custody of original document.

1. Dummy copy B. Photostat
2. certified copy D. uncertified

• Ans: B. Photostat

 

130. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact it is said that ________ lies on that person.
131. legal rights B. burden of proof
132. admitted facts D. none of them

• Ans: B. burden of proof

 

131. The burden of proof in a proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no ______ at all were given on either side.
132. indication B. admission
133. denial D. evidence

• Ans: D. evidence

 

132. The examination of witness subsequent to the cross examination by the party who called him, shall be called his ________
133. Admission B. Confession
134. Re-examination D. Cross examination

• Ans: C. Re-examination

 

133. The court may ________ any question or inquiries which it regards as indecent or scandalous.
134. Forbid B. Allow
135. discretion D. None of them

• Ans: A. Forbid

 

134. The court may allow to be produced any evidence that may have become available because of _______.
135. Tradition B. Modern devices
136. Old techniques D. None of them

• Ans: B. Modern devices

 

135. The court shall, on the application of plaintiff call upon the ________ to deny the claim on oath.
136. Complainant B. Defendant
137. Judge D. Statement

• Ans: B. Defendant

 

136. Proof of former statement inconsistent with any past of his evidence which is liable to be contradicted is _______ of witness.
137. Impeaching credit B. Support
138. against D. None of them

• Ans: A. Impeaching credit

 

137. The Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order 1984 extends to whole of Pakistan an applies to all judicial proceedings before any forum, except: 
138. Court, including a Court Martial
139. Tribunal
140. Authority exercising judicial or quasi-judcial proceeding
141. Arbitrator

• Ans: D. Arbitrator

 

138. No judge or Magistrate shall be compelled to answer any question as to his own conduct in court as Judge or Magistrate except:
139. Upon the general order of his superior court
140. Upon the special order of this superior court 
141. Upon the orders provincial government.
142. All of the above 

• Ans: B. Upon the special order of this superior court

 

139. Article 161, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
140. Judge’s power to put question or order production
141. Production of document.
142. Refreshing memory.
143. None of the above

• Ans: A. Judge’s power to put question or order production

 

140. Article 133 deals with: 
141. Judge of decide as to admissibility of evidence 
142. The order of productions and examination of witnesses
143. Examination-in-chief
144. Order of examination

• Ans: B. The order of productions and examination of witnesses

 

141. The burden of proof shall be on the one:
142. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which any other person asserts.
143. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which the public asserts.
144. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.
145. None of the above 

• Ans: C. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.

 

142. The evidence of terms of contracts grants and other disposition of property, when reduced to a document, shall be:
143. The original terms of contracts, grants and other disposition of property
144. The document, itself
145. Secondary evidence of it’s contents
146. a & b

• Ans: D. a & b

 

143. When more than one persons are being tried jointly for the same offence, and a confession made by one of such persons is proved, then:
144. The court may take into consideration such confession as circumstantial evidence against such other person.
145. Such confession shall be proof against the persons making it.
146. Such confession shall be taken as abetment or an attempt to commit an offence.
147. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

144. A confession is considered irrelevant by a court in criminal proceedings if it is made:
145. Due to threat
146. Due to inducement
147. Under any promise to the …… Interest
148. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

145. Article 31 of The Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
146. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc
147. Admission by persons whose position must be proved as against party to suit.
148. Admission by person expressly referred to by party
149. Proof of admissions against persons making them.

• Ans: A. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc

 

146. According to Article 24, facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if:
147. By themselves, they make the existence or nonexistence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probably or improbable.
148. In connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable 
149. They are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact.
150. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

147. Article 22 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat deal with:
148. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts
149. Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct.
150. Relevancy of fact forming part of same transaction.
151. Things said or done by conspirator in reference to common design.

• Ans: A. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts

 

148. A witness shall not be excused from answering a question on ground that the answer will criminate him, provided that no such answer, shall:
149. Subject him to any prosecution
150. Subject him to any arrest 
151. Be proved against him in any criminal proceedings
152. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

149. According to Article 14, no one shall be compelled to produce documents in his possession which any other person would be entitled any other person would be entitled to refuse to produce if they were in his possession, unless such last mentioned person. 
150. Is in a fear of getting sentenced for the non production of such documents
151. Is sentenced for the non-production of such documents
152. Has consented to their production 
153. None of the above 

• Ans: C. Has consented to their production

 

150. Article 9 does not impose any restriction on an advocate from disclosing any communication before the court which:
151. Is any observed fact that the client has committed the offence
152. Is against the interest of the client.
153. Is in furtherance of any illegal purpose
154. a & c

• Ans: D. a & c

PAKISTAN PENAL CODE 1860

1. The year of enactment of Pakistan Penal Code is:
2. 1860 B. 1870
3. 1880 D. 1898

Ans: A. 1860

 

2. Total sections of Pakistan Penal Code are:
3. 511 B. 565
4. 280 D. 411

Ans: A. 511

 

3. Wrongful loss is:
4. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled
5. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is not legally entitled
6. All of them
7. None of these

Ans: A. the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled

 

4. How many accused persons are required to establish common intention u/s 34? 
5. 5
6. More than one and less than five
7. 7
8. None of these

Ans: B. More than one and less than five

 

5. How many accused persons are required to establish common object?
6. 4
7. Five or more than five persons 
8. 3
9. None of these

Ans: B. Five or more than five persons

 

6. Punishment for rape according to section 376 PPC:
7. Death or life imprisonment
8. Imprisonment for ten years
9. Imprisonment for 7 years
10. None of these

Ans: A. Death or life imprisonment

 

7. How many accused persons are required for the offence of “Dacoity”?
8. 4
9. 5 or more than 5
10. 2 or more than 2
11. None of these

Ans: B. 5 or more than 5

 

8. Unlawful assembly comprises of:
9. At least 5 persons
10. At least 6 persons
11. At least 4 persons
12. None of these

Ans: A. At least 5 persons

 

9. Which section provides punishment for common :
10. 149 B. 141 
11. 96 D. 151 

Ans: A. 149 

10. Affray is:
11. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting
12. Disturbance of public peace by one person by fighting
13. Disturbance of public peace by five or more persons by fighting
14. None of these

Ans: A. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting

 

11. Attempt to commit suicide is an offence according to PPC under section:
12. 322 B. 324 
13. 325 D. 327 

Ans: C. 325

 

12. Imprisonment for life according to PPC is :
13. Imprisonment for 25 years
14. Imprisonment till death
15. Imprisonment till old age
16. None of these

Ans: A. Imprisonment for 25 years

 

13. Imprisonment for life according to Hadood laws:
14. Imprisonment till death
15. Imprisonment for 25 years 
16. Imprisonment till old age
17. None of these

Ans: A. Imprisonment till death

 

14. Imprisonment for theft may extend to :
15. 3 years B. 5 years
16. 2 years
17. None of these

Ans: A. 3 years

 

15. Punishment for giving false evidence is mentioned in PPC u/s: 
16. 192 B. 191
17. 190 D. None of these

Ans: A. 192

 

16. Gratification u/s 161 includes :
17. Monitory gains 
18. pecuniary terms
19. Gratification estimable in money
20. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

17. The punishment for the exercise of personal influence with public servant is:
18. Death penalty
19. Life imprisonment
20. Rigorous imprisonment extendable to 2 years
21. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

Ans: D. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

 

18. Shajjah is of following kinds:
19. 6 B. 9
20. 7
21. None of these

Ans: A. 6

 

19. Life according to PPC is:
20. Life of men only
21. Life of human being 
22. Life of Animal
23. None of these

Ans: B. Life of human being

 

20. A sentence of death awarded by way of “Qisas” or “Tazir” shall not be executed until:
21. Confirmed by High Court
22. Confirmed by Session Judge
23. Confirmed by Supreme Court
24. None of these

Ans: A. Confirmed by High Court

 

21. The property, according to section 378 of PPC, in theft has to be:
22. Movable B. Immovable
23. Corporeal
24. All of the above

Ans: A. Movable

 

22. Theft has been defined u/s:
23. 376 B. 378
24. 377
25. None of these

Ans: B. 378

 

23. A Robbery becomes a dacoity if committed by:
24. 6 or more than 6 persons
25. 4 or more than 4 persons
26. 5 or more than 5 persons
27. None of these

Ans: C. 5 or more than 5 persons

 

24. Criminal breachof trust has been defined u/s:
25. 405 B. 406 
26. 407
27. None of these

Ans: A. 405 of PPC

 

25. The word “death” denotes the death of:
26. An bird
27. A human being
28. An Animal
29. All of the above

Ans: B. A human being

 

26. Kidnapping includes:
27. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship
28. Kidnapping from Pakistan
29. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship
30. None of these

Ans: C. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship

 

27. The value of diyat under section 323 PPC is:
28. Discretion of the court 
29. Not less than the value of 30640 grams of silver
30. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver
31. None of these

Ans: C. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver

 

28. Arsh denotes the compensation to be paid:
29. To the victim or his heirs 
30. To the accused or his heirs 
31. Both
32. None of these

Ans: A. To the victim or his heirs

 

29. Criminal intimidation is defined u/s:
30. 503 B. 505
31. 507 D. None of these

Ans: A. 503

 

30. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab shall be:
31. Diyat B. Imprisonment for 2 years
32. Imprisonment upto 25 years D. None of these

Ans: A. Diyat

 

31. Punishment for “Robbery” has been defined u/s :
32. 392 B. 391
33. 390 D. None to these

Ans: C. 392

 

32. Punishment for robbery:
33. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than five years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine
34. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than two years nor more than five years and shall also be liable to fine
35. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine 
36. None of these

Ans: C. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine

 

33. Qatl-i-amd has been defined u/s:
34. 299 B. 300,301 
35. 301,302
36. None of these

Ans: B. 300,301

 

35. Punishment of qatl-i-amd under section 302 when proof of qatl-i-amd is available under section 304 PPC:
36. Death as qisas
37. Death as ta’zir
38. Imprisonment for 5 years
39. None of these

Ans: A. Death as qisas

 

36. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd: 
37. Death
38. Diyat
39. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 7 years as Ta’zir

Ans: C. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir

 

37. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd has been defined u/s:
38. 310 B. 316 
39. 312
40. None of these

Ans: B. 316

 

38. Punishment for Qatl-i-Khata has been defined u/s:
39. 316 B. 318 
40. 320 D. 319

Ans: D. 319

 

39. Punishment for Qatli-i-Khata by rash or negligent driving:
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years
41. Arsh and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years 
42. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 5 years
43. none of these

Ans: A. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years

 

40. Attempt to commit qatl-i-amd is prescribed u/s:
41. 326 B. 325 
42. 324
43. None of these

Ans: C. 324

 

41. Kinds of hurt u/s 332:
42. 4 B. 5
43. 6
44. None of these

Ans: B. 5

42. Kinds of ghayr-jaifah under section 337 (E):
43. 6 B. 8
44. 10
45. None of these

Ans: A. 6

 

43. Kinds of punishments u/s 53 :
44. 15 B. 13
45. 10
46. None of these

Ans: C. 10

 

44. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
45. 7 years of age
46. 12 years of age 
47. 15 years of age
48. None of these

Ans: A. 7 years of age

 

45. Nothing is an offence which is done in exercise of the right of private defence under sections:
46. 76-96 B. 96 to 106 
47. 80-100 D. 100-104

Ans: B. 96 to 106 

 

46. Defamation has been defined u/s:
47. 499 B. 299 
48. 399 D. 199

Ans: A. 499 PPC

 

47. Whoever uses derogatory remark etc, in respect of the Hazrat Mohammad (Peace Be Upon Him) shall be punished with: 
48. Death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(B) PPC
49. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC
50. Imprisonment for life
51. None of these

Ans: B. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC

48. The word “Person includes”:
49. Any company
50. Body of persons
51. Association
52. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

49. Public servant includes:
50. Member of National Assembly
51. Person who holds any office of the Government 
52. Member of WASA
53. None of these

Ans: B. Person who holds any office of the Government

 

50. In a case of Qatl, the wali shall be:
51. The children of the victim, according to his family law
52. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law
53. The Nazim of the city
54. The Government 

Ans: B. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law

 

51. Qatl-i-amad is not liable to Qisas:
52. If the offender is a close relative of the victim
53. If the offender is a husband of the victim
54. When the offender is minor or insane
55. All of the above

Ans: C. When the offender is minor or insane

 

52. Arsh for causing itlaf of a tooth shall be:
53. One twentieth of diyat
54. One tenth of diyat
55. Equal to the value of the diyat
56. None of these

Ans: A. One twentieth of diyat

 

53. U/S 209 Whoever fraudulently or dishonesty or with intent to injure or annoy any person makes in a court of justice any claim which he knows to be false:
54. Shall be punished with imprisonment for 5 years or fine or both
55. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall also be liable to fine
56. Shall be liable to fine only
57. All of above

Ans: B. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall be liable to fine

 

54. Diyat means the compensation payable to the heirs of the victim specified u/s: 
55. 324 B. 338
56. 323 D. 330

Ans: C. 323

 

55. The value of daman may be determined by the court keeping in view:
56. The expenses incurred on the treatment of the victim
57. The loss or disability caused in the functioning or power of any organ
58. The compensation for the anguish suffered by the victim
59. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

56. Qisas for qatl-i-amad shall not be conforced:
57. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas
58. When the offender is punished with Tazir.
59. When the offender has close relation with victim.
60. None of these

Ans: A. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas

 

57. Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension is liable to be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both as given u/s:
58. 224 B. 225
59. 225-A D. 225-B

Ans: A. 224

 

58. Whoever causes Jurh in which the injury extends to the body cavity of the trunk, is said to cause.
59. Hurt B. Jaifah
60. Shajjah D. None

Ans: B. Jaifah

 

59. The president has the right to grant pardons reprieves, respites or remissions of Punishment u/s.
60. 58 B. 155
61. 55-A D. 160

Ans: C. 55-A

 

60. Criminal conspiracy u/s 120-A means when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done.
61. An illegal act
62. Or an act, which is not illegal but done by illegal means
63. An act, which is illegal by law but not by tradition
64. A and B both

Ans: D. A and B both

 

61. Whoever by force compels or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place.
62. Is said to abduct that person
63. Is said to kidnap that person
64. Is said to confine that person
65. Is said to abduct and kidnap that person

Ans: A. Is said to abduct that person

 

62. Without exposing bone of the victim, the accused is said to cause: 
63. Shajjah-i-Khafifah
64. Shajjah-i-Damighah
65. Shajjjah-i-Mudihah
66. Shajjah-i-Hashimah 

Ans: A. Shajjah-i-Khafifah

 

63. Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
64. Ten years or with fine or with both
65. Seven years
66. Seven years or with fine or with both
67. Life imprisonment

Ans: C. Seven years or with fine or with both

 

64. Whoever kidnaps any person with intent to cause that person to be secretly and wrongfully confined shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to: 
65. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine
66. 10 years and shall also be liable to fine 
67. Life imprisonment and shall also be liable to fine
68. None of above

Ans: A. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine

 

65. Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit:
66. Robbery B. Extortion 
67. Theft D. All of above

Ans: C. Theft

 

66. The term “Court of Justice” denotes:
67. The chamber of the court
68. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially
69. A Bench of judge, which is empowered by law to act judicially
70. None of these

Ans: B. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially

 

67. Special law denotes:
68. A law which is made by traditions
69. A law applicable to a particular subject 
70. A law applicable to a particular place
71. A law applicable to a special class of people

Ans: B. A law applicable to a particular subject

 

68. Local law denotes:
69. A law applicable only to particular class of persons in Pakistan
70. A law applicable to the entire country
71. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan
72. None of these

Ans: C. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan

 

69. When two or more person by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to:
70. Commit an affray
71. Create a public nuisance
72. Guilty of offence of being members of the unlawful assembly
73. None of these

Ans: A. Commit an affray

 

70. When one act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable for the act done.
71. False B. True
72. A and B Both D. None 

Ans: B. True

 

71. Whoever uses any false trade mark or any false property mark shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
72. One year or with fine or with both
73. Three years or with fine or with both
74. Four years or with fine or with both
75. None of these

Ans: A. One year or with fine or with both

 

72. Punishment for jaifah is given u/s:
73. 337B B. 337C
74. 337D D. 337E

Ans: C. 337D

 

73. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab is:
74. Diyat
75. Diyat and five year imprisonment
76. Diyat and 10 year imprisonment
77. None of the above

Ans: A. diyat

 

74. “Mischief” is narrated u/s:
75. 425 B. 426
76. 428 D. 428

Ans: A. 425

 

75. Punishment for criminal intimidation is provided u/s:
76. 503 B. 505
77. 506 D. 507

Ans: C. 506

 

76. Whoever attempts to commit robbery shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
77. 3 years and shall be liable to fine
78. 5 years and shall be liable to fine
79. 7 years and shall be liable to fine
80. None of the above

Ans: C. 7 years and shall be liable to fine

 

77. What is the relevant provision for isqat-i-janin?
78. 338 A B. 338 B
79. 338 C D. 338 D

Ans: B. 338 B

 

78. Qatlshibh-i-amd is defined section/s:
79. 310 B. 311
80. 315 D. 318

Ans: C. 315

 

79. Wrongful gain is discussed u/s:
80. 21 B. 22
81. 23 D. 24

Ans: C. 23

 

80. Sec 53 deals with:
81. Punishments B. Fines
82. Vessels
83. All of the above

Ans: A. Punishments

 

81. What are the requisites of defamation?
82. Be defamatory
83. Be false
84. Be published
85. All of the above

Ans: D. all of the above

 

82. Imprisonment in default of payment of fine worth exceeding Rs. 100 is:
83. 4 months B. 6 months
84. 1 year D. None of the above

Ans: B. 6 months

 

83. Whoever commits criminal trespass shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
84. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both
85. 6 months or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees or with both
86. 1 year or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees
87. None of the above

Ans: A. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both

 

84. Fornication is defined u/s:
85. 496 B. 496 A
86. 496 B D. 496 C

Ans: C. 496 B

 

85. Sedition is discussed u/s:
86. 121 B. 122 A
87. 124 A D. 126 A

Ans: C. 124 A

 

86. When violence is used by any member of an unlawful assembly it is called:
87. Affray B. Rioting
88. Intimidation
89. All of the above

Ans: A. Affray

 

87. Issuing or signing false certificate is a crime u/s:
88. 195 B. 196
89. 197 D. 198

Ans: C. 197

 

88. Counterfeiting Pakistani coins is an offence u/s:
89. 232 B. 233
90. 234 D. 235

Ans: A. 232

THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1898 (CR.PC)

1. A private complaint can be filed u/s:
2. 200 B. 202
3. 203 D. 204

Ans: A. 200

 

2. The Magistrate can acquit an accused u/s 249A. at any stage of trial:
3. Yes B. No

Ans: A. Yes

 

3. A person arrested by Police can be discharged by a Magistrate u/s:
4. 63 B. 163
5. 263 D. 265

Ans: A. 63

 

4. The Additional Sessions Judge can acquit an accused at any stage of trial u/s:
5. 249A. B. 265
6. 265(k) D. none of these

Ans: C. 265(k)

 

5. After completion of investigation by Police, Challan is submitted u/s:
6. 173 B. 169
7. 154 D. 167

Ans: A. 173

 

6. A Magistrate empowered under section 30 can award maximum sentence up to:
7. 5 years B. 7 years
8. 10 years
9. none of these

Ans: B. 7 years

 

7. Pre arrest Bail is granted u/s:
8. 103 B. 344 
9. 498 D. 497

Ans: C. 498 

 

8. Pre arrest bail can be availed from : 
9. Magistrate B. Court of Session
10. High Court D. B and C both

Ans: B. B and C both

 

9. Limitation to file Appeal against acquittal by aggrieved person before High Court:
10. 30 days B. 16 days
11. 60 days D. 90 days

Ans: A. 30 days

 

10. Limitation of appeal against acquittal by Govt through Public Prosecutor:
11. 6 month under Article 157 Limitation Act 
12. 8 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
13. 10 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
14. None of these

Ans: A. 6 months under Article 157 Limitation Act

 

11. Forum for appeal against acquittal:
12. High Court B. Magistrate
13. Court of session
14. None of these

Ans: A. High Court

 

12. Forum for cancellation of bail:
13. High Court B. Same Court 
14. Session Court
15. All of the above

Ans: B. All of the above

 

13. Every warrant of arrest shall be signed by:
14. The reader of the Court
15. Complainant 
16. Police Officer
17. Presiding Officer of the Court 

Ans: D. Presiding Officer of the Court

 

14. A report, which is made u/s 174 is called:
15. Inquest Report
16. Statement under Section 161
17. Challan
18. First Information Report

Ans: A. Inquest Report

 

15. Summons issued by a Court under this Code shall be served by:
16. Witnesses
17. Police Officer
18. The complainant
19. All above mentioned

Ans: B. Police Officer

 

16. Appeal against the order of Magistrate u/s 30 lies before:
17. High Court
18. Court of Session
19. Supreme Court
20. None of these

Ans: B. Court of Session

 

17. Remedy against the executive order of the Magistrate is:
18. Appeal only before the High Court
19. Revision only before the High Court
20. Writ only before the High Court
21. None of these

Ans: C. Writ only before the High Court

 

18. Forum for cancellation of bail:
19. High Court B. Same Court 
20. Session Court
21. All of the above

Ans: B. All of the above

 

19. The accused is _____ after recording confessional statement:
20. Released on Bail
21. Set free
22. Kept in judicial lock-up
23. Discharged from investigation 

Ans: C. Kept in judicial lock-up

 

20. Arrest how made:
21. By hand cuffing the accused
22. By actually touching or confining
23. By spoken words D. By showing the warrant.

Ans: B. By actually touching or confining

 

21. Court of Magistrate of the Third Class may pass the sentence of Imprisonment upto:
22. 1 month B. 6 months
23. 12 months
24. None of these

Ans: A. 1 month

 

22. Court of Magistrate of the Second Class may pass the sentence of imprisonment upto:
23. 10 years B. 01 year
24. 15 years
25. None of these

Ans: B. 01 year

 

23. After framing charge, it is read over to the:
24. Accused B. Complainant 
25. Public Prosecutor
26. Witness

Ans: A. Accused

 

24. An accused person may be declared absconder u/s:
25. 87 B. 61 
26. 167
27. None of these

Ans: A. 87 

 

25. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
26. 164 B. 337
27. 366 D. 364

Ans: C. 366

26. Post arrest bail is granted u/s:
27. 100 B. 491 
28. 497
29. None of these

Ans: C. 497 

27. Bail means:
28. To discharge the accused
29. To release the accused after executing Bond
30. To acquit the accused
31. None of these

Ans: B. To release the accused afterexecuting Bond

 

28. A revision shall lie to the High Court u/s:
29. 374 B. 417
30. 439
31. None of these

Ans: C. 439

 

29. When the Court of Sessions passes sentence of Death, the time period for the appeal is:
30. 07 days B. 30 days
31. 60 days D. 90 days

Ans: A. 07 days

 

30. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
31. 164 B. 337
32. 366 D. 364

Ans: C. 366

 

31. An accomplice means any person who is:
32. Complainant B. Public Officer 
33. Police Officer D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime 

Ans: D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime

 

32. Section 164 deals with the:
33. First Information Report
34. Confessions and statements 
35. All of the above D. Challan

Ans: B. Confessions and statements

 

33. Conditional order for the removal of nuisance is made by the Magistrate u/s:
34. 100 B. 103 
35. 133
36. None of these

Ans: C. 133 

34. Investigation is conducted by:
35. Magistrate
36. Session Judge
37. Police Officer
38. None of these

Ans: C. Police Officer

 

35. Inquiry includes one which is conducted by:
36. Magistrate or Court
37. Police Officer
38. Advocate
39. None of these

Ans: A. Magistrate or Court

 

36. The Code of Criminal Procedure extends to the:
37. Punjab
38. Sindh
39. Whole of Pakistan
40. None of these

Ans: C. Whole of Pakistan

 

37. Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been mentioned u/s:
38. 529 B. 530
39. 537
40. None of these

Ans: A. 529

 

38. A case in which a police officer may not arrest without warrant is called:
39. Cognizable offence
40. Non-cognizable offence
41. Non-cognizable case
42. B & Care correct

Ans: D. B &C are correct

 

39. Any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being in force is known as: 
40. Offence
41. Cognizable offence 
42. Non-cognizable offence 
43. None of the above

Ans: A. Offence

 

40. Place includes:
41. A House
42. A tent & a vessel
43. A building
44. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

41. Magistrate may dispense with the personal attendance of accused u/s:
42. 204 B. 205 
43. 206 D. 221 

Ans: B. 205 

 

42. Police inquiry on suicide etc. is conducted u/s:
43. 173 B. 174 
44. 175 D. 176 

Ans: B. 174 

 

43. Challan is a report of the police officer submitted before the court under section:
44. 170 B. 171 
45. 172 D. 173 

Ans: D. 173 

 

44. A police officer is empowered to conduct search u/s:
45. 162 B. 165 
46. 166 D. 164 

Ans: B. 165 

 

45. Supply of statements and documents to the accused is made u/s:
46. 240 B. 242
47. 241-A D. 341

Ans: C. 241-A

 

46. When a person is charged with one offence:
47. He may be convicted of another
48. He may not be convicted of another
49. Both of the above
50. None of the above

Ans: A. He may be convicted of another

 

47. Table of the compoundable offences mentioned in PPC is given u/s:
48. 344 B. 345
49. 346 D. 347

Ans: B. 345

 

48. Power to postpone or adjourn the procedure is vested in a Criminal Court u/s:
49. 344 B. 342
50. 345 D. 346

Ans: A. 344

 

49. F.I.R (First Information Report) of a cognizable offence is recorded u/s: 
50. 155 of Cr.P.C B. 156 of Cr.P.C
51. 154 of Cr.P.C D. 200 of Cr.P.C

Ans: C. 154 of Cr.P.C

 

50. Magistrate may acquit accused at any stage considering the charge groundless u/s:
51. 248 B. 249
52. 249-A D. 250

Ans: C. 249-A

 

51. Chapter XXIV lays down general provisions as to:
52. Inquiries B. Trials
53. Investigations
54. Inquiries and trials 

Ans: D. Inquiries and trials

 

52. Section 265-L empowers the:
53. Advocate General to stay prosecution
54. Court to stay prosecution
55. Inspector legal to stay prosecution
56. Defence Counsel to stay prosecution

Ans: A. Advocate General to stay prosecution

 

53. In a Court of Session, statement under section 164 is admissible u/s:
54. 265-K B. 265-E
55. 265-J D. 265-L

Ans: C. 265-J

 

54. Application for acquittal of an accused is moved before a Court of Session u/s:
55. 265-A B. 265-D
56. 265-J D. 265-K

Ans: D. 265-K

55. Procedure for trial before High Court and Court of Session is laid down in chapter:
56. XXII-A B. XXIII
57. XXII-B
58. None of the above 

Ans: A. XXII-A

 

56. No installments shall be allowed in the execution of sentence of:
57. Death
58. Stoning to death
59. Whipping
60. Imprisonment

Ans: C. Whipping

 

57. Direction of warrant for execution of sentence of imprisonment shall be to:
58. Inspector General of Jails
59. Inspector General of Police 
60. Officer of the Jail
61. All of the above

Ans: C. Officer of the Jail

 

58. In case of sentence of death on a pregnant woman, the High Court shall:
59. Forgive the woman
60. Postpone the sentence
61. Execute the woman
62. None of the above

Ans: B. Postpone the sentence

 

59. If the death sentence is passed by Sessions Court, it will be executed:
60. Right away
61. After submission and confirmation by High Court
62. After confirmation and submission to Supreme Court
63. By High Court 

Ans: B. After submission and confirmation by High Court

 

60. According to section 371 the copy of the judgment shall be given to the accused:
61. Free of cost
62. For one hundred rupees
63. For fifty rupees
64. For ten rupees

Ans: A. Free of cost

 

61. A High Court may alter its judgment only in case of :
62. Appeal B. Discretion
63. Clerical error
64. None of the above

Ans: C. Clerical error

 

62. Describe the number of sections in Cr.P.C:
63. 562 B. 563
64. 564 D. 565

Ans: D. 565

 

63. Offence of Defamation is :
64. Bailable and not compoundable
65. Bailable and compoundable 
66. A and B both
67. None of the above

Ans: B. Bailable and compoundable

 

64. The offence u/s 489-F (P.P.C) is triable by:
65. Court of Session
66. Magistrate 2nd class
67. Magistrate 3rd class
68. Magistrate 1st class

Ans: D. Magistrate 1st class

 

65. Unnatural offence is:
66. Bailable and compoundable 
67. Not bailable and not compoundable 
68. Both
69. None of these

Ans: B. Not bailable and not compoundable

 

66. Kidnaping is tried by:
67. Court of Session
68. Magistrate 1st class
69. Both of the above
70. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

67. Rape case is tried by:
68. Court of Session
69. High Court
70. Magistrate of 1st class
71. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: A. Court of Session

 

68. Trial of Qatl bis-sabab is conducted by:
69. High Court
70. Court of Session
71. Magistrate 1st class
72. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: B. Court of Session

 

69. Qatl-i-amd is tried by:
70. High Court
71. Magistrate 1st class
72. Magistrate 2nd class
73. Court of Session

Ans: D. Court of Session

 

70. Who may try the case u/S. 241 P.P.C:
71. Magistrate 1st class
72. Magistrate 2nd class
73. Magistrate 3rd class
74. A and B both

Ans: C. A and B both

 

71. Rioting is tried by:
72. Judicial Magistrate
73. Executive Magistrate 
74. Magistrate 1st calss
75. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: B. Executive Magistrate

 

72. Schedule II coulumn 6 of the Code deals with the offences whether:
73. Bailable or not
74. Compoundable or not
75. Triable or not
76. None of the above

Ans: B. Compoundable or not

 

73. Column 8 of 2nd Schedule deals with:
74. Offences B. Warrants
75. Name of trial Court
76. There is no 8th column is schedule II

Ans: C. Name of trial Court

 

74. The power to appoint Public Prosecutor rests with the:
75. High Court
76. Supreme Court
77. Provincial Govt
78. Federal Govt

Ans: C. Provincial Govt

 

75. 2nd Revision is competent before:
76. High Court
77. Supreme Court
78. Shariat Court D. Session Court

Ans: C. Shariat Court

 

76. Lunatic means:
77. Minor B. Insane
78. Insolvent
79. All of the above

Ans: B. Insane

 

77. Bail may not be granted to a person against whom security proceedings are taken u/s:
78. 1171 B. 1172
79. 1173 D. 1174

Ans: C. 1173

 

78. What is the form number of bail bond?
79. Form 42 of Schedule 5
80. Form 43 of Schedule 5
81. Form 44 of Schedule 5
82. Form 45 of Schedule 5

Ans: A. Form 42 of Schedule

 

79. Who may grant bail in bailable offences?
80. Court of law
81. An officer of Court
82. Officer Incharge of police station
83. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

80. Bail is a:
81. statutory concession
82. Inherent right
83. Natural right
84. All of the above

Ans: A. statutory concession

 

81. Confession shall be recorded in:
82. Points B. Full
83. Parts
84. All of the above

Ans: B. Full

 

82. What is the value of evidence of an accomplice:
83. Conviction is based
84. Corroboration is required 
85. Weak in status
86. All of the above 

Ans: A. Conviction is based

 

83. Who may grant pardon during trial?
84. High Court
85. Session Court
86. Officer Incharge of prosecution in district
87. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

84. What is the mode of amendment in charge:
85. Suo moto by Court
86. On application by prosecution
87. Both of the above
88. None of these

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

85. What is the mode of transfer of cases u/s 526:
86. Application by interested person
87. Application by lower Court
88. Suo moto
89. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

86. Section 439 and 439 A deal with:
87. Appeal B. Review
88. Revision
89. None of the above

Ans: C. Revision

87. When the judges of Court of Revision are equally divided u/s 439:
88. The case is dismissed 
89. The former sentence is confirmed
90. The case shall be laid before another Judge
91. None of the above

Ans: C. The case shall be laid before another Judge

 

88. An Assistant Sessions Judge may pass sentence authorized by law except:
89. A sentence of imprisonment 
90. A sentence of death
91. Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
92. None of the above

Ans: D. None of the above

 

89. Where the evidence is partly recorded by one Presiding Officer and partly by another, the procedure for conviction is given u/s:
90. 350 B. 3501
91. 3502, 3
92. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

90. Trial of persons previously convicted of offences against coinage, stamp law or property is conducted u/s:
91. 347 B. 348
92. 349 D. 350

Ans: B. 348

 

91. Police station means any post or place declared generally or specially to conduct investigation by the:
92. Federal Government
93. Local Government 
94. Provincial Government 
95. A & C both

Ans: C. Provincial Government

 

92. Copies of the statement u/s 161 and 164 and other necessary documents shall be supplied free of cost to the accused not less than:
93. 7 days before commencement of trial
94. 15 days before commencement of trial
95. 30 days before commencement of trial
96. None of these

Ans: A. 7 days before commencement of trial

 

93. At any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, the Court may summon any person as a witness or re-call and re-examine any person already examined u/s:
94. 539 B. 540 
95. 540A
96. None of these

Ans: B. 540 

 

94. The Sessions Judge may exercise the same powers of Revision u/s ______ of the Cr.P.C as are conferred on the High Court:
95. 374 B. 417
96. 423 D. 439A

Ans: D. 439A

 

95. Forum of protective bail:
96. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)
97. Court of session
98. Magistrate
99. None of these 

Ans: A. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)

 

96. Who is authorized under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to take down the statements of the witnesses or the accused?
97. A Civil Judge
98. A Session Judge
99. A Police Officer
100. A Magistrate

Ans: C. A Police Officer

 

97. Every information relating to the commission of an offence if given orally or in writing to the Officer Incharge of Police is called:
98. Complaint
99. A news
100. First Information Report
101. None of these

Ans: C. First Information Report

 

98. The Powers of a Magistrate u/s 145 constitute the integral part of the Preventive Jurisdiction of the Magistrate:
99. Correct
100. Incorrect
101. Partly correct, Partly incorrect
102. None of these

Ans: A. Correct

 

99. Power of a Magistrate to Sentence to imprisonment in default of fine is contained in Section ________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
100. 33 B. 60
101. 154 D. 221

Ans: A. 33

 

100. A person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again for same offence under Section ______ of the Code:
101. 337 B. 403
102. 503
103. None of these

Ans: B. 403

 

101. Which Section delegates powers to a private person to arrest any person who in his view commits a non-Bailable and cognizable offence or who is a proclaimed offender:
102. 190 B. 167 
103. 161 D. 59 

Ans: D. 59 

 

102. A Challan of the accused under Section 173 of shall be forwarded to a Magistrate through:
103. The Public Prosecutor
104. The complainant
105. The Police Officer
106. None of these

Ans: A. The Public Prosecutor

 

103. Whether a PoliceOfficer may release the accused under Section 169 when evidence is deficient against him?
104. Yes
105. No
106. With the Permission of the Court
107. None of these

Ans: A. Yes

 

104. An allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate for an action against a person who has committed an offence excluding the report of Police Officer is known as:
105. Complaint
106. FIR (First Information Report)
107. Statement of allegation
108. None of these

Ans: A. Complaint

 

105. Any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath is known as:
106. Enquiry
107. Investigation
108. Non-judicial proceedings
109. Judicial proceedings 

Ans: D. Judicial proceedings

 

106. The proceedings for the collection of evidence conducted by a Police Officer or by any person other than a Magistrate who is authorized by a Magistrate in this regard are known as:
107. Investigation B. Enquiry
108. Judicial Enquiry
109. None of the above

Ans: A. Investigation

 

107. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend, the amount of fine to which the offender is liable is unlimited but it shall not be:
108. Less than 20,000 Rupees.
109. More than 20,000 Rupees
110. Excessive D. Deficient 

Ans: C. Excessive

 

108. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment under Section 57 the imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for:
109. 12 – ½ years B. 15 years
110. 25 years D. Whole life

Ans: C. 25 years

 

109. A confessional statement is recorded by a Magistrate especially empowered by the Provincial Government u/s:
110. 163 B. 164 
111. 165 D. 166 

Ans: B. 164 

 

110. If a Magistrate upon taking evidence finds the accused not guilty:
111. He shall convict him
112. He shall record an order of acquittal
113. He shall only record an order
114. He shall transfer the case

Ans: B. He shall record an order of acquittal

 

111. Right of a person, against whom proceedings are instituted to be defended and his competency to a witness is given u/s:
112. 339 B. 340
113. 341 D. 343

Ans: B. 340

112. Where a person is guilty of one of several offences specified in the judgment, but that is doubtful that which of these offences he is guilty, the offender will be punished for the offence for which:
113. The lowest punishment is awarded if the same punishment is provided
114. The highest punishment is awarded if same punishment is provided for all
115. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all
116. None of the above

Ans: C. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all

 

113. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
114. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
115. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
116. Both of the above
117. There is no limitation on revision

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

114. Besides the High Court and the courts constituted under any law other than Cr. P.C, for the time being in force, there shall be two classes of criminal courts in Pakistan, namely:
115. Supreme Court and Tribunals
116. Anti-Corruption Courts and Special Courts
117. Magisterial Courts and Anti-Terrorist Court 
118. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

Ans: D. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

 

115. U/S 221 of the Cr.P.C, every charge shall state:
116. The history of the accused
117. Offence of the accused
118. Offence with which the accused is charged
119. Nature of the offence

Ans: C. Offence with which the accused is charged

 

116. Section 160 enshrines:
117. Police Officer’s power to examine witnesses 
118. Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses
119. Police Officer’s power tosuspect
120. Police Officer’s power to hold investigation 

Ans: B. Police officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses

 

117. At any time before a final order is passed in any case if a complainant satisfies the Magistrate for permission to withdraw his complaint:
118. The Magistrate shall permit him to with draw the case
119. Shall there upon acquit the accused
120. May permit him to withdraw the same
121. ‘B’ & ‘C’ are correct 

Ans: D. B’ & ‘C’ are correct

 

118. If the summon has been issued on a complaint and upon the day appointed for the appearance of the accused, the complainant does not appear:
119. The magistrate shall acquit the accused
120. Unless for some reason he thinks proper to adjourn the hearing of the case till some other day.
121. A & B are correct
122. None of these

Ans: C. A & B are correct

 

119. Where the Magistrate does not proceed in accordance with the provisions of section 349, he shall, if he finds the accused guilty:
120. Pass sentence upon him according to law
121. Acquit him
122. Refer the case to superior court
123. Shall proceed under section 349 of the Cr.P.C

Ans: A. Pass sentence upon him according to law

 

120. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the commencement of trial:
121. The prosecutor shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witnesses
122. The accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness
123. The court shall summon any witness who may have been examined
124. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

Ans: D. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

 

121. Section 343 says:
122. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge
123. Every influence is to be used to induce disclosure
124. A & B both are correct
125. All of the above

Ans: A. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge

 

122. A warrant for execution of any sentence shall be issued by:
123. High Court
124. Session Court 
125. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence
126. A & C both

Ans: C. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence

 

123. In case of sentence of death, according to section 368 , the sentence shall direct that:
124. A person be shot in the chest
125. A person be killed by knife
126. A person be slaughtered by neck for 5 minutes
127. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

Ans: D. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

 

124. Section 357 speaks as to:
125. Memorandum when evidence is not taken down
126. Language of record of evidence 
127. Manner of record of evidence
128. Option with Magistrate in cases under section 335 

Ans: B. Language of record of evidence

 

125. Section 364 lays down:
126. Procedure to record evidence in trial of certain cases
127. Procedure of recording inquiry
128. Manner of recording evidence
129. All of the above 

Ans: C. Manner of recording evidence

 

126. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
127. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
128. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
129. Both of the above
130. There is no limitation on revision

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

127. When incriminating questions may be asked u/s 342(2):
128. To prove offence with which the accused is charged 
129. Where the accused tries to establish his good character
130. Where the accused gives evidence for any other person
131. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

128. The duty of Court towards the acused u/s 340(2) :
129. To the accused may make a statement on oath
130. The accused may confess to any offence
131. Both of the above
132. The Court has no duty

Ans: A. to the accused may make a statement on oath

 

129. Requirement for accused to appear as a witness:
130. When proceedings are instituted against him
131. When he does not plead guilty
132. When he is accused of some offence before Criminal Court
133. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

QANOON-E-SHAHADAT ORDER 1984

1. A person shall not be competent to testify if he has been convicted by a court for:
2. Perjury
3. Giving false evidence 
4. Bad character
5. A & B

Ans: D. A & B

 

2. No Magistrate or Officer shall be competed to my whence he got any information as to the:
3. Planning of an offence
4. Preparation of an offence 
5. Omission of an offence
6. Commission of a offence

Ans: D. Commission of a offence

 

3. The subject of “refreshing memory” is dealt within article:
4. 153 B. 154
5. 155 D. 156

Ans: C. 155

 

4. Under article 148, the court shall forbid any question which appears to the court as intended to:
5. Annoy B. Offensive 
6. Insult
7. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

5. Leading question is defined in article:
6. 134 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
7. 135 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 137 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

Ans: C. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

6. Examination-in-chief has been defined in article:
7. 131 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 133 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
10. 143 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

Ans: B. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

7. If no evidence at all were given in a suit or proceedings the burden of proof would be on:
8. The one who would fall as a result
9. The one who would rise as a result
10. Both the parties
11. None of them.

Ans: A. The one who would fall as a result

 

8. Public document are defined in article:
9. 83 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
10. 94 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
11. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
12. 86 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

Ans: C. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

 

9. The contents of documents may be proved by:
10. Primary evidence
11. Secondary evidence 
12. Territory evidence D. a & b

Ans: D. a & b

 

10. All accused persons, including an accomplice shall be liable to:
11. Hadd
12. Criminal proceeding 
13. Cross-examination
14. Imprisonment 

Ans: C. Cross-examination

 

11. All facts may be proved by oral evidence except:
12. Contents of Re-written statements
13. Contents of an oral statement 
14. Contents of documents.
15. b & c

Ans: D. b & c

 

12. Admission is defined in article:
13. 28 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
14. 29 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
15. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
16. 31 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

Ans: C. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

13. In suits for damages facts intending to enable the court to determine amount are:
14. Partly relevant and partly irrelevant
15. Relevant
16. Irrelevant
17. None of the above 

Ans: B. Relevant

 

14. In civil cases, previous character taken into account for deciding damges,is:
15. Partly relevant partly irrelevant
16. Relevant
17. Irrelevant
18. All of the above

Ans: B. Relevant

 

15. In criminal cases, previous good character is:
16. Irrelevant
17. Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant
19. All of the above

Ans: B. Relevant

 

16. In civil ases, character to prove conduct imputed is:
17. IrrelevantB)Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant
19. All of the above

Ans: A. Irrelevant

 

17. Article 9 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984” shall also apply to:
18. Interpreters
19. Clerks of advocate in writing
20. Servants of advocates
21. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

18. According to Article 21, any fact is relevant which shows or constitutes:
19. Any preparation for any fact
20. Any motive for any fact
21. A relevant fact D. all of the above

Ans: D. all of the above

 

19. A competent witness against an accused person except in case of Hadd is _______
20. Party of Suit B. Defendant
21. Accomplice
22. None of them

Ans: C. Accomplice

20. Facts which though not in issue are so connected with fact in issue are _______
21. Admitted facts
22. Relevant facts
23. Related Facts
24. General Facts

Ans: B. Relevant facts

 

21. The basic scheme of any action is _______
22. Intention B. Plan
23. Motive D. Preparation

Ans: C. Motive

 

22.“ Inter alia” means ______

1. Previous judgment can be relevant
2. Judgment is relevant to fact
3. Facts are to be proved
4. Facts proved

Ans: A. Previous judgment can be relevant

 

23. Article 20 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with ________
24. Admission
25. Identification of Accused
26. Appreciation of evidence
27. Admissibility of facts

Ans: D. Admissibility of facts

24. A dealing which is carried on between two or more persons is _______
25. Transaction B. Business
26. Agreemen D. Contract

Ans: A. Transaction

 

25. Article 30 of Qanoon e Shahadat 1984 defines _________
26. Admission B. Confession
27. Intention
28. Common intention

Ans: A. Admission

 

26. In criminal cases, parties may be called as ____________
27. plaintiff and defendant
28. accused and complainant
29. accused and prosecution
30. A and C

Ans: B. accused and complainant

 

27. Any opinion which is held by a body of a man is ______.
28. Tenets
29. Aggrieved opinion
30. Dogma
31. Doctrine

Ans: A. Tenets

 

28. Document itself produced before the court is _________ 
29. Direct evidence
30. primary evidence
31. secondary evidence
32. None of them

Ans: B. primary evidence

 

29. Documents which are prepared by public officer are ________
30. official documents
31. Public documents
32. fair documents
33. legal documents

Ans: B. Public documents

 

30. In order to vitiate document must have been committed in the execution of document.
31. In case of fraud
32. in case of decified 
33. In case of ADR
34. None of them

Ans: A. In case of fraud

 

31. The lists of facts of which the court shall take notice, which shall be called as _____
32. Legislative notice
33. Public notice
34. Judicial Notice
35. official notice

Ans: C. Judicial Notice

 

32. In which deed endorsement to the receipt of consideration/ possession is refundable?
33. Gift dee B. Sale deed
34. Marital deed D. Both a and b

Ans: A. Gift dee

 

33. Mutual mistake in the working of an agreement is ________
34. Working mistake
35. Agreement mistake
36. mistake of law
37. Mistake of fact

Ans: D. Mistake of fact

 

34. Facts which need not to be proved are __________
35. noticeable
36. judicial noticeable facts
37. proved facts
38. facts not admitted

Ans: B. judicial noticeable facts

 

35. Grant of interest is prohibited directly under the injunctions of ________
36. Quran B. Sunnah
37. Constitution 1973
38. Qanoon e Shahadat Act

Ans: A. Quran

 

36. Estoppel shuts the mouth of party, res judicata ousts the __________
37. successive litiatious
38. offending act
39. violation of rights
40. jurisdiction of court

Ans: D. jurisdiction of court

 

37. In case of infringement of fundamental rights, one can enjoy _______
38. Right to sue
39. right of estopel
40. right of life
41. A and C

Ans: B. right of estopel

 

38. One can enjoy right of estopel uner what article of Qanoon e Shahadat Order.
39. 25 B. 103
40. 112 D. 114

Ans: D. 114

 

39. Secundum allegata at probate is _______.
40. Petition by bank for recovery of loan
41. execution of consent decree
42. Agreement to sell
43. Illegal contract

Ans: A. Petition by bank for recovery of loan

 

40. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact is said ________
41. Burden of proof lies on him
42. He is not liable to any act
43. He is judgment debtor
44. None of them

Ans: A. Burden of proof lies on him

 

41. Article 117 of Qanoon e Shahadat is about _______
42. Relevancy of fact
43. trade marks
44. burden of proof
45. Affirmative of issue.

Ans: C. burden of proof

 

42. A documentary evidence is proved to be true by _______
43. Cross examination
44. Confirmation of writer and witnesses
45. Verification
46. None of them

Ans: B. Confirmation of writer and witnesses

 

43. An oral evidence is proved to be true by ________.
44. Cross examination
45. confirmation of writer of witnesses
46. Verification
47. None of them

Ans: A. Cross examination

 

44. Documentary evidence relates to documents whereas oral evidence relates to _____
45. incident B. persons
46. offence D. defendant

Ans: B. persons

 

45. Hearsay evidence is an admissible evidence where it is about _______
46. civil matters B. custom
47. criminal matter
48. ADR

Ans: B. custom

 

46. It is mandatory to _________ accept or reject an admission.
47. discretionarily B. Partially
48. Completely
49. None of them

Ans: C. Completely

 

47. An admission is always made about ________
48. Facts B. Law
49. Parties D. Issues

Ans: A. Facts

 

48. Admission can be made in _________
49. Criminal matters
50. Civil matters
51. A & B
52. None of them

Ans: C. A & B

49. A confession is said to be void if it is ________.
50. extra judicial B. under threat
51. pressure D. All of them

Ans: D. All of them

 

50. Judicial confession is _________ evidence.
51. admissible
52. inadmissible
53. partially admissible
54. partially inadmissible

Ans: A. admissible

 

51. Extra judicial confession is ________ evidence.
52. Partially inadmissible
53. partially admissible
54. admissible
55. inadmissible

Ans: B. partially admissible

 

52. There are _______types of estopple theory.
53. two B. three
54. four D. five

Ans: B. three

 

53. If a person makes an admission through a document, this shall be called _______
54. estopple by conduct
55. estopple by deed
56. estopple by judgment
57. All of them

Ans: B. estopple by deed

 

54. Theory of estopple is applied matter is about ________________.
55. Question of fact
56. question of law
57. behaviour
58. A and B

Ans: A. Question of fact

 

55. _________ is such questions which are asked by party who calls him.
56. Leading question
57. Re-examination
58. Examination in chief
59. Cross examination

Ans: C. Examination in chief

 

56. _______ question are asked after cross examination, by the party who calls him.
57. Leading question
58. Re-examination
59. Cross examination
60. Re-examination

Ans: D. Re-examination

 

57. Answers of ___________ is always in form of “Yes” or “No” 
58. Cross examination
59. leading question
60. Re-examination
61. None of them

Ans: B. leading question

 

58. Cross examination question are asked by _________.
59. Defendant B. Court
60. Prosecution D. All of them

Ans: C. Prosecution

 

59. _______ is competent to declare whether any question is appropriate or not.
60. Court B. Prosecution
61. Complainant D. Defendant

Ans: A. Court

 

60. This is discretionary power of __________ to allow counsel to ask question.
61. Court B. Defendant
62. Counsel
63. None of them

Ans: A. Court

 

61. Facts of which courts shall take judicial notice are ________.
62. All Pakistan Laws
63. Proceedings of Legislature
64. Seal of the Court
65. All of them

Ans: D. All of them

 

62. Question of estopple is a question of ________
63. Law B. Fact
64. Ego D. Admissible

Ans: B. Fact

 

63. The estopple by representation is know as _________
64. Estopple
65. General Estopple
66. Promissory Estopple
67. Equitable Estopple

Ans: D. Equitable Estopple

 

64. The estopple cannot be allowed to defeat the provisions of ________
65. Statute B. Fact
66. Evidence D. All of them

Ans: A. Statute

 

65. An expert may refresh his memory by reference to _________
66. Professional activities
67. Professional Life
68. Professional treaties
69. None of them

Ans: C. Professional treaties

 

66. The court shall forbid any question which appears to it, to be intended to ______the witness.
67. insult or annoy
68. permit
69. necessary
70. ask

Ans: A. insult or annoy

 

67.______ stages are provided for the purposes of recording evidence.

1. Twp B. Three
2. five D. Four

Ans: B. Three

 

68. The estopple classified into _______ kinds.
69. one B. two
70. three D. four

Ans: C. three

 

69. Audi Atteram Partem means _____
70. Condemned unheard
71. Right of cross examination
72. Dismissal of appeal
73. All of them

Ans: A. Condemned unheard

 

70. Provisions of Qanoon-e-shahadat are not applied on proceedings before _______.
71. Sessions Judge
72. Service Tribunal
73. Mohtasib
74. High Court

Ans: C. Mohtasib

 

71. Competence of witnesses is specifically determined in light of _______.
72. Court’s discretion
73. relevant law
74. injunction of Islam
75. None of them

Ans: C. injunction of Islam

 

72. Court may allow a person to testify who is convicted for giving false evidence if he is ______
73. Minor B. Insane
74. Solvent D. Repented

Ans: D. Repented

 

73. Court cannot compel an counsel to disclose his communication with _____
74. Prosecutor B. Police
75. Client D. Witnesses

Ans: C. Client

 

74. _______ has relevancy with facts and is a conclusive proof.
75. Matrimonial
76. Expert opinion
77. hearsay evidence
78. Oral evidence

Ans: A. Matrimonial

 

75. When court requires opinion of an expert it is _____ fact in certain cases.
76. relevant B. irrelevant
77. admissible
78. None of them

Ans: A. relevant

 

76. Every accused shall be given right of _______ in non-cognizable offenses.
77. cross examination
78. bail
79. re-examination
80. None of them

Ans: A. cross examination

 

77. While testifying, if an answer of witness criminates him, the court shall order _____ him.
78. to Arrest B. Remand
79. FIR
80. None of them

Ans: D. None of them

 

78. Extra Judicial confession can be proved as evidence against accused in _______ court.
79. High Court
80. Sessions Court
81. Shairat Court
82. None of them

Ans: D. None of them

 

79. Admission is either ______ accepted or ______ rejected.
80. Completely B. partially
81. discretionarily
82. None of them

Ans: A. Completely

 

80. A valid admission can only be made before _________
81. Magistrate B. Police
82. Prosecutor D. Complainant

Ans: A. Magistrate

 

81. Confession made before a person other than authorized authority is called _______.
82. Judicial B. Extra Judicial
83. Secondary D. Mandatory

Ans: B. Extra Judicial

 

82. Court can compel _____ to disclose its source of information regarding commission of crime.
83. Police B. Magistrate
84. Prosecutor
85. None of them

Ans: D. None of them

 

83. It is decided by _______ whether evidence is admissible or inadmissible.
84. Police B. Prosecutor
85. Court D. Complainant

Ans: C. Court

 

84. Dying declaration is hearsay evidence and it is _______ under law.
85. admissible B. inadmissible
86. rejected
87. partially accepted

Ans: A. admissible

 

85. Witness of a non-Muslim against a Muslim is ________ evidence in Hudood cases.
86. Secondary B. Mandatory
87. Admissible D. inadmissible

Ans: D. inadmissible

 

86. Benefit of doubt goes in favour of _________.
87. Accused B. Complainant
88. Police
89. None of them

Ans: A. Accused

 

87. Qanoon-e-Shahadar Order, 1984 divides documents in _________ categories.
88. three B. one
89. two D. Four

Ans: C. two

 

89. ______ are not considered to be public documents.
90. official notes
91. certified copies
92. Dummy copies
93. None of them

Ans: A. official notes

 

90. Facts judicially noticeable need not to be _________
91. Solved B. declared
92. proved D. Reliance

Ans: C. proved

 

91. ________ facts need not to be proved.
92. denied B. admitted
93. admission D. admitted

Ans: B. admitted

 

92. Birth during marriage _________ proof of legitimacy.
93. conclusive B. conditional
94. uncertain D. doubtful

Ans: A. conclusive

93. _________ has to decide as to admission bluntly of evidence.
94. lawyer B. judge
95. witness
96. None of them

Ans: B. judge

 

94. The order in which witnesses are produced and examined shall be regulated ______
95. Prescribed Law
96. Judge
97. Lawyer D. Witness

Ans: A.  Prescribed Law

 

95. The examination of a witness by the party who calls him shall be called his _______
96. Examination in chief
97. Prosecutor
98. Investigator
99. None of them

Ans: A. Examination in chief

 

96. The examination of witness by the adverse party shall be called _______
97. Admission
98. re-examination
99. information
100. Cross examination

Ans: D.  Cross examination

 

97. _________ questions must not be asked.
98. confusing B. difficult
99. leaching D. easy

Ans: C. leaching

 

98. Question not to be asked without __________ grounds.
99. Normal B. Reasonable
100. Specific D. unreasonable

Ans: B. Reasonable

 

99. _________ may refresh his memory by reference to professional treaties.
100. Expert B. Judge
101. Lawyer D. Witness

Ans: A.  Expert

 

100. The complainant can support of his claim by __________.
101. Promise B. Statement
102. Oath D. All of them

Ans: C.  Oath

 

101. _______ power to discover or to obtain proper proof of relevant.
102. Judge B. Witness
103. Lawyer D. Prosecutor

Ans: A. Judge

 

102. Questions tendering to corroborate evidence of relevant fact _______
103. denial B. inadmissible
104. admissible D. Secondary

Ans: C. admissible

 

103. Statement not challenged in cross examination is considered as _________
104. admitted B. denied
105. false
106. Partially accepted

Ans: A. admitted

 

104. Agreement amongst two or more persons to do any illegal act that amount to any offence is ________
105. Conspiracy
106. Pre planning
107. Common intention
108. Malafide Intention 

Ans: A. Conspiracy

 

105. The matter as to when a question shall be asked and when witness compiled to answer shall be decided by:
106. The Supreme Court
107. The Provincial Government 
108. The Federal Government
109. The concerned court

Ans: D. The concerned court

 

106. Under Article 162, the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for:
107. Appeal
108. A new trial
109. Reversal of any decision
110. a & b

Ans: A. Appeal

 

107. Under Article 158 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat”, the validity of any objection over the production of a document shall be decided by:
108. The Supreme Court
109. The Federal Government
110. The Provincial Government
111. The concerned court 

Ans: A. The Supreme Court

 

108. Under article 46, the cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found etc, is:
109. Relevant B. Irrelevant
110. Partly
111. All of the above

Ans: A. Relevant

 

109. Under Article 48, entries in books of according in the normal course of business, are relevant whenever they refer to matter into which the court has to inquire, but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to:
110. Start proceedings against a person
111. Discharge any person form liability
112. Charge any person with liability 
113. End proceedings against a person

Ans: C. Charge any person with liability

 

110. The competence of a person to testify, and the number of witnesses required in any case of Hadd shall be determined in accordance with:
111. Tazir
112. Constitution
113. Quran & Sunnah
114. Cr.P.C

Ans: C. Quran & Sunnah

 

111. An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, except in the …. of offence punishable with:
112. Life imprisonment.
113. Hadd
114. Death penalty
115. Imprisonment of a term more than 10 years

Ans: B. Hadd

 

112. In Section 6 “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984”, official record relating to the affairs of state” includes documents concerning industrial or commercial activities carried on directly or indirectly by the:
113. Provincial government
114. Local government 
115. Federal government
116. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

113. The proceedings in which a jural relation is to be determined between one person to another is _______
114. Judicial B. Court 
115. Tribunal D. ADR

Ans: A. Judicial

 

114. Fact of presence elsewhere is essentially inconsistent with presence at the place and time alleged and therefore, with personal participation in the act.
115. Theory of presence in act
116. Theory of Alibi
117. Plea of Alibi
118. C and B

Ans: D. C and B

 

115. What is substantive piece of evidence that the deceased had substituted an innocent person in place of real culprit?
116. Document
117. Will
118. Dying Declaration D. A and B

Ans: C. Dying Declaration

 

116. Any instrument empowering a specified person to act for an in the name of the person executing, it is _________
117. Agent
118. Power of Attorney
119. Advocate
120. pleader

Ans: B. Power of Attorney

 

117. In which condition, no evidence of any oral agreement or instrument shall be admitted between parties __________
118. when one is real owner
119. Representation in interest
120. In case of preemptor
121. All are correct

Ans: B. Representation in interest

 

118. Personal disqualification laid down upon a person peculiary circumstanced from proving peculiar fact is _______
119. Estoppel B. Acquiescence
120. Res Judicata
121. Preemptive rights

Ans: A. Estoppel

 

119. A person who remained quiet unreasonably long time without any objection for having full knowledge of violation of his right is _______
120. Fraud
121. Fraudulent intention
122. Waiver
123. Void Agreement

Ans: C. Waiver

 

120. The abadon or to relinquish non-vested right by express declaration or conduct known as _______
121. Estopple by Conduct
122. Estopple by waiver
123. Estopple by Judgment
124. None of them

Ans: B. Estopple by waiver

 

121. A witness may give _______ of statement made by other persons about the content of the document.
122. Oral evidence
123. Written evidence
124. Evidence
125. Documentary evidence

Ans: A. Oral evidence

 

122. The court may allow to produce any evidence that may have become provided in the shape of ________
123. video film B. press clipping
124. email D. All of them

Ans: D. All of them

 

123. If it is not in public interest, the court may not compel _______ to disclose any information which has not been published?
124. Counsel of accused
125. Company
126. Trust D. Public Officer

Ans: D. Public Officer

 

124. Previous bad character of an accused is not _______, except where accused is proving him of good character
125. irrelevant B. relevant
126. inadmissible D. accepted

Ans: B. relevant

 

125. Where a person is able to be produces before court, his statement shall be relevant if it is about _______
126. Robbery B. Murder
127. Cause of his death D. Rape

Ans: C. Cause of his death

 

126. Under Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, burden of proof is on _______ to prove allegation against accused.
127. Prosecution B. Police
128. Complainant
129. None of them

Ans: A. Prosecution

 

127. Decision of authority for determination of evidence whether it is admissible or inadmissible is _______.
128. Question of fact
129. Question of law
130. framing of charge
131. Prosecution

Ans: B. Question of law

 

128. If an accused claims that his case falls in exception provided in PPC then burden of proof shall be transferred on _________
129. Prosecutor B. Complainant
130. Accused D. Police

Ans: C. Accused

 

129. __________ of public document shall not be admissible unless it has been certified to be the true copy, by the officer concerned, who has the custody of original document.
130. Dummy copy B. Photostat
131. certified copy D. uncertified

Ans: B. Photostat

 

130. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact it is said that ________ lies on that person.
131. legal rights
132. burden of proof
133. admitted facts D. none of them

Ans: B. burden of proof

 

131. The burden of proof in a proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no ______ at all were given on either side.
132. indication B. admission
133. denial D. evidence

Ans: D. evidence

 

132. The examination of witness subsequent to the cross examination by the party who called him, shall be called his ________
133. Admission B. Confession
134. Re-examination
135. Cross examination

Ans: C. Re-examination

 

133. The court may ________ any question or inquiries which it regards as indecent or scandalous.
134. Forbid B. Allow
135. discretion
136. None of them

Ans: A. Forbid

 

134. The court may allow to be produced any evidence that may have become available because of _______.
135. Tradition
136. Modern devices
137. Old techniques
138. None of them

Ans: B. Modern devices

 

135. The court shall, on the application of plaintiff call upon the ________ to deny the claim on oath.
136. Complainant B. Defendant
137. Judge D. Statement

Ans: B.  Defendant

 

136. Proof of former statement inconsistent with any past of his evidence which is liable to be contradicted is _______ of witness.
137. Impeaching credit
138. Support
139. against
140. None of them

Ans: A. Impeaching credit

 

137. The Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order 1984 extends to whole of Pakistan an applies to all judicial proceedings before any forum, except: 
138. Court, including a Court Martial
139. Tribunal
140. Authority exercising judicial or quasi-judcial proceeding
141. Arbitrator

Ans: D. Arbitrator

 

138. No judge or Magistrate shall be compelled to answer any question as to his own conduct in court as Judge or Magistrate except:
139. Upon the general order of his superior court
140. Upon the special order of this superior court 
141. Upon the orders provincial government.
142. All of the above 

Ans: B. Upon the special order of this superior court

 

139. Article 161, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
140. Judge’s power to put question or order production
141. Production of document.
142. Refreshing memory.
143. None of the above

Ans: A. Judge’s power to put question or order production

 

140. Article 133 deals with: 
141. Judge of decide as to admissibility of evidence 
142. The order of productions and examination of witnesses
143. Examination-in-chief
144. Order of examination

Ans: B. The order of productions and examination of witnesses

 

141. The burden of proof shall be on the one:
142. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which any other person asserts.
143. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which the public asserts.
144. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.
145. None of the above 

Ans: C. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.

 

142. The evidence of terms of contracts grants and other disposition of property, when reduced to a document, shall be:
143. The original terms of contracts, grants and other disposition of property
144. The document, itself
145. Secondary evidence of it’s contents
146. a & b

Ans: D. a & b

 

143. When more than one persons are being tried jointly for the same offence, and a confession made by one of such persons is proved, then:
144. The court may take into consideration such confession as circumstantial evidence against such other person.
145. Such confession shall be proof against the persons making it.
146. Such confession shall be taken as abetment or an attempt to commit an offence.
147. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

144. A confession is considered irrelevant by a court in criminal proceedings if it is made:
145. Due to threat
146. Due to inducement
147. Under any promise to the …… Interest
148. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

145. Article 31 of The Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
146. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc
147. Admission by persons whose position must be proved as against party to suit.
148. Admission by person expressly referred to by party
149. Proof of admissions against persons making them.

Ans: A. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc

 

146. According to Article 24, facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if:
147. By themselves, they make the existence or nonexistence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probably or improbable.
148. In connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable 
149. They are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact.
150. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

147. Article 22 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat deal with:
148. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts
149. Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct.
150. Relevancy of fact forming part of same transaction.
151. Things said or done by conspirator in reference to common design.

Ans: A. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts

 

148. A witness shall not be excused from answering a question on ground that the answer will criminate him, provided that no such answer, shall:
149. Subject him to any prosecution
150. Subject him to any arrest 
151. Be proved against him in any criminal proceedings
152. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

149. According to Article 14, no one shall be compelled to produce documents in his possession which any other person would be entitled any other person would be entitled to refuse to produce if they were in his possession, unless such last mentioned person. 
150. Is in a fear of getting sentenced for the non production of such documents
151. Is sentenced for the non-production of such documents
152. Has consented to their production 
153. None of the above 

Ans: C. Has consented to their production

 

150. Article 9 does not impose any restriction on an advocate from disclosing any communication before the court which:
151. Is any observed fact that the client has committed the offence
152. Is against the interest of the client.
153. Is in furtherance of any illegal purpose
154. a & c

Ans: D. a & c

POLICE ORDER 2002 

RESPONSIBILITIES AND DUTIES OF THE POLICE

1. According to the Police Order 2002, a police officer must behave with the public with:
2. A) Strict authority
3. B) Due decorum and courtesy
4. C) Distant formal behavior
5. D) Caution and suspicion

Answer: B
Explanation: The Police Order 2002 mandates that every police officer must treat members of the public with decorum and courtesy, ensuring respectful and professional conduct in interactions.

 

2. Which of the following is NOT a duty of a police officer towards members of the public, as per the Police Order 2002?
3. A) Aid individuals in physical danger
4. B) Behave with decorum and courtesy
5. C) Punish citizens violating minor rules
6. D) Guide the helpless, such as children and the disabled

Answer: C
Explanation: Police officers are instructed to help, guide, and protect citizens, not to directly punish minor rule violations. Such actions are handled through proper legal processes.

 

3. Under the Police Order 2002, police officers are responsible for protecting:
4. A) Only public property
5. B) Only private property
6. C) Life, property, and liberty of citizens
7. D) Government property only

Answer: C
Explanation: The duties of police officers include safeguarding the life, property, and liberty of all citizens, ensuring comprehensive protection and peace within the community.

4. Which of the following actions is a duty of the police to prevent public nuisance?
5. A) Apprehending suspected criminals
6. B) Maintaining order on public roads and thoroughfares
7. C) Imposing fines on minor infractions
8. D) Conducting warrantless arrests without reason

Answer: B
Explanation: Police are tasked with preserving order in public spaces to prevent nuisance and disruptions, which includes managing crowds and traffic in public areas and thoroughfares.

 

5. What is the police duty when encountering lost or helpless children according to the Police Order 2002?
6. A) Leave them to find assistance on their own
7. B) Provide guidance and assistance to them
8. C) Hand them over to child protection agencies immediately
9. D) Only offer assistance if requested

Answer: B
Explanation: Police officers are required to guide and assist lost or helpless individuals, especially children, as part of their duty to ensure public safety and welfare.

 

6. In case of emergency services, the Police Order 2002 empowers the government to:
7. A) Declare specified services as essential
8. B) Increase police jurisdiction without limits
9. C) Allow police to impose martial law
10. D) Enable police to make arrests without warrants

Answer: A
Explanation: In emergencies, the government may declare certain services essential, obligating police officers to follow orders related to those essential services to maintain order and support public needs.

 

7. Which of the following is a duty of police towards persons taken into custody?
8. A) Ensuring their rights and privileges under the law
9. B) Withholding information about their arrest from others
10. C) Denying them access to basic needs
11. D) Imposing fines on them

Answer: A
Explanation: The Police Order mandates that the rights and privileges of individuals in custody must be protected, reflecting the commitment to legal and humane treatment.

 

8. Police officers are required to communicate intelligence affecting:
9. A) Political matters only
10. B) National security exclusively
11. C) Public peace and crime in general
12. D) International crime networks

Answer: C
Explanation: Gathering and sharing intelligence on issues impacting public peace and general crime are essential for proactive law enforcement and public safety.

 

9. As per the Police Order 2002, which of the following situations requires a police officer to enter a public place without a warrant?
10. A) If it is a suspected location for illegal weapons storage
11. B) If the officer suspects general misbehavior
12. C) If the place has a large crowd
13. D) Only when there is no other authority available

Answer: A
Explanation: Police officers may enter public places without a warrant if they receive credible information that such locations harbor illegal activities, like the storage of illegal weapons, in order to prevent crime.

 

10. What is the duty of police in terms of assisting accident victims under the Police Order 2002?
11. A) To escort them to a hospital if convenient
12. B) To provide assistance and necessary documents for compensation claims
13. C) Only to report the accident to higher authorities
14. D) Not to interfere and allow medical services to handle the case

Answer: B
Explanation: Police officers must assist accident victims by providing necessary information and documents that could aid in compensation claims, highlighting their role in supporting victims’ rights

CONSTITUTION AND ORGANIZATION OF THE POLICE

1. Which Article in the Police Order 2002 mandates that a separate police establishment be maintained for each general police area?

1. Article 6 B. Article 7
2. Article 8 D. Article 9

Answer: A. Article 6

Explanation: Article 6 specifies that the government must maintain a separate police establishment for each general police area.

 

2. Under Article 7, which ranks are eligible for direct recruitment in the police?

1. Constable and Inspector
2. Assistant Sub-Inspector and Superintendent of Police
3. Constable, Assistant Sub-Inspector, and Assistant Superintendent of Police
4. Deputy Superintendent of Police and Inspector

Answer: C. Constable, Assistant Sub-Inspector, and Assistant Superintendent of Police

Explanation: Article 7(3) outlines that recruitment in the police (other than ministerial and specialist cadres) is in the ranks of Constable, Assistant Sub-Inspector, and Assistant Superintendent of Police.

 

3. According to Article 8, which of the following is NOT a branch within the functional organization of the police?

1. Investigation
2. Legal Affairs
3. Crime Management
4. Education and Training

Answer: C. Crime Management

Explanation: Crime Management is not listed as a branch; however, “Crime Prevention” is included as one of the functional branches under Article 8(2).

 

4. Who is responsible for the superintendence of police throughout a general police area?

1. Provincial Public Safety Commission
2. Federal Government
3. Appropriate Government
4. Inspector General of Police

Answer: C. Appropriate Government

Explanation: Article 9(1) states that the superintendence of the police throughout a general police area is vested in the appropriate government.

 

5. What is the tenure for the Provincial Police Officer according to Article 12?

1. 2 years B. 3 years
2. 4 years D. No fixed tenure

Answer: B. 3 years

Explanation: Article 12(1) defines the term of office for the Provincial Police Officer as three years from the date of posting.

 

6. Under Article 11, who recommends the panel of police officers for the position of Provincial Police Officer?

1. Federal Public Service Commission
2. Provincial Public Safety Commission
3. National Public Safety Commission
4. Local Government Commission

Answer: C. National Public Safety Commission

Explanation: Article 11(1) states that the National Public Safety Commission recommends a panel of three officers for the post of Provincial Police Officer.

7. What document must every member of the police subscribe to upon appointment?

1. Police Code of Conduct
2. Police Constitution
3. Oath or Affirmation
4. Employment Contract

Answer: C. Oath or Affirmation

Explanation: Article 24(1) mandates that every police member must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation upon appointment.

 

8. Which Article allows the appointment of special police officers for specific purposes?

1. Article 27
2. Article 29
3. Article 30
4. Article 28

Answer: B. Article 29

Explanation: Article 29 provides for the appointment of special police officers for special purposes or occasions.

 

9. What is the rank required for the head of investigation in a general police area outside Capital City Districts?

1. Inspector
2. Superintendent of Police
3. Additional Inspector General
4. Deputy Superintendent

Answer: C. Additional Inspector General

Explanation: Article 18(1) specifies that the head of investigation must be of the rank of Additional Inspector General in general police areas.

 

10. Which Article allows for the posting of additional police officers for specific duties?

1. Article 22
2. Article 28
3. Article 30
4. Article 31

Answer: C. Article 30

Explanation: Article 30 permits the appointment of additional police officers for specified purposes and duties.

 

11. Who has the authority to appoint experts to assist Provincial or City Police Officers?

1. Federal Public Safety Commission
2. Head of District Police
3. Government, based on Public Service Commission’s recommendation
4. Inspector General of Police

Answer: C. Government, based on Public Service Commission’s recommendation

Explanation: Article 14(1) authorizes the government to appoint experts on the Public Service Commission’s recommendation.

 

12. Which Article permits the Federal Government to recall a Provincial Police Officer?

1. Article 12
2. Article 15
3. Article 9
4. Article 11

Answer: A. Article 12

Explanation: Article 12(6) allows the Federal Government, with the agreement of the National Public Safety Commission, to recall a Provincial Police Officer.

 

13. Under which Article can a police officer be appointed as Director of Police Communications?

1. Article 19
2. Article 16
3. Article 25
4. Article 22

Answer: A. Article 19

Explanation: Article 19 enables the appointment of a Director of Police Communications, including roles for wireless and motor transport.

 

14. Which Article empowers the Provincial Police Officer to create police regions?

1. Article 20
2. Article 21
3. Article 22
4. Article 17

Answer: B. Article 21

Explanation: Article 21(1) grants the Provincial Police Officer authority to constitute police regions with government approval.

 

15. How are ministerial staff for the police appointed?

1. By the Inspector General of Police
2. By the Federal Government
3. By the Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer
4. Through the Provincial Public Safety Commission

Answer: C. By the Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer

Explanation: Article 31(1) provides that ministerial staff may be appointed by these officers as per the rules.

16. Which rank is needed to lead a police division?

1. Assistant Superintendent
2. Deputy Superintendent
3. Superintendent of Police
4. Inspector

Answer: C. Superintendent of Police

Explanation: Article 21(4) states that a police division is led by an officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police.

 

17. Who issues the certificate of appointment to junior officers?

1. Head of District Police
2. Inspector General of Police
3. Federal Government
4. Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer

Answer: D. Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer

Explanation: Article 25(1) provides for the issuance of a certificate of appointment under their seal.

 

18. In which Article is the role of Provincial Police Officer in policing accounts specified?

1. Article 26
2. Article 29
3. Article 28
4. Article 30

Answer: C. Article 28

Explanation: Article 28 assigns authority over police accounts to the Provincial Police Officer, among others.

 

19. Under which Article can the District Police Officer appoint special police officers?

1. Article 26
2. Article 30
3. Article 29
4. Article 31

Answer: C. Article 29

Explanation: Article 29(1) empowers the District Police Officer to appoint special police officers as needed.

 

20. According to Article 10, who prepares the annual policing plan for review?

1. National Public Safety Commission
2. Federal Government
3. Provincial Police Officer
4. Inspector General of Police

Answer: C. Provincial Police Officer

Explanation: Article 10(4) mandates that the Provincial Police Officer prepares the annual policing plan for review by the Provincial Public Safety Commission.

 

RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE HEAD OF DISTRICT POLICE AND DISTRICT PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

1: Who is responsible for preparing the annual Policing Plan for a district?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Head of District Police

(C) Provincial Public Safety Commission

(D) Federal Government

Answer: (B) Head of District Police

Explanation: The Head of District Police is required to prepare an annual Policing Plan in consultation with the Zila Nazim, consistent with the Provincial Policing Plan.

2: The Policing Plan must include all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) Objectives of policing

(B) Financial resources available during the year

(C) International assistance programs

(D) Mechanism for achieving targets

Answer: (C) International assistance programs

Explanation: The Policing Plan includes objectives, financial resources, targets, and mechanisms for achieving targets but does not involve international assistance programs.

3: To whom must the Head of District Police submit the annual report on district policing?

(A) Federal Government

(B) Provincial Police Officer

(C) District Public Safety Commission

(D) Zila Nazim only

Answer: (C) District Public Safety Commission

Explanation: The Head of District Police is required to submit an annual report on district policing to the District Public Safety Commission by the end of August.

 

4. If the Zila Nazim finds a person in unlawful detention at a police station, they may:

(A) Release the individual immediately

(B) Direct the police station to take appropriate action according to the law

(C) Order an internal investigation

(D) Transfer the case to the District Court

Answer: (B) Direct the police station to take appropriate action according to the law

Explanation: The Zila Nazim may visit police stations to check for unlawful detentions and, if necessary, direct actions as per the law.

 

5. Who has the final authority in case of a difference of opinion between the Zila Nazim and the Provincial Government regarding district police matters?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Provincial Government

(C) District Public Safety Commission

(D) Head of District Police

Answer: (B) Provincial Government

Explanation: The Provincial Government’s decision will prevail if there is a disagreement between the Zila Nazim and the Provincial Government on district police matters.

 

6. In the District Public Safety Commission, how are independent members selected?

(A) By the Zila Nazim

(B) Through a public election

(C) By the Governor from recommendations by the District Selection Panel

(D) By the Provincial Police Officer

Answer: (C) By the Governor from recommendations by the District Selection Panel

Explanation: Independent members are appointed by the Governor based on a list recommended by the District Selection Panel.

7: What is the term of office for a member of the District Public Safety Commission?

(A) One year

(B) Two years

(C) Three years

(D) Four years

Answer: (C) Three years

Explanation: The term of office for a District Public Safety Commission member is three years.

8: What proportion of the District Public Safety Commission members must be women?

(A) One fourth

(B) One third

(C) Half

(D) None

Answer: (B) One third

Explanation: One third of the members, both elected and independent, must be women.

9: The quorum for a meeting of the District Public Safety Commission is:

(A) Half of the total membership

(B) Two-thirds of the total membership

(C) Three-fourths of the total membership

(D) The full membership

Answer: (B) Two-thirds of the total membership

Explanation: For a District Public Safety Commission meeting, the quorum is two-thirds of its total membership.

10: If a District Public Safety Commission member is found guilty of misconduct, who can remove them from office?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) District Public Safety Commission itself

(C) Governor

(D) Provincial Government

Answer: (C) Governor

Explanation: The Governor can remove a member from office based on their own decision or a recommendation from the District Public Safety Commission if the member is guilty of misconduct.

 

11: Who is responsible for coordinating police support for the District Government during emergencies threatening law and order?

(A) Head of District Police

(B) District Coordination Officer

(C) Zila Nazim

(D) Provincial Government

Answer: (B) District Coordination Officer

Explanation: During emergencies, the District Coordination Officer is responsible for coordinating police support with the District Government and other local bodies.

 

1. What action must the Head of District Police take if a complaint is received about a police officer’s neglect or excess?

(A) Refer it to the Federal Police Complaints Authority

(B) Take remedial measures, possibly including suspension

(C) Report it directly to the Provincial Public Safety Commission

(D) Issue a warning only

Answer: (B) Take remedial measures, possibly including suspension

Explanation: The Head of District Police is required to take immediate remedial action, which may include suspending the concerned officer and initiating an inquiry.

 

1. What authority has the final decision if the Head of District Police and an officer disagree on whether a request for police support is unnecessary or unlawful?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Provincial Government

(C) District Public Safety Commission

(D) Federal Government

Answer: (C) District Public Safety Commission

Explanation: If there is a disagreement on a police support request’s legitimacy, the District Public Safety Commission’s decision prevails.

 

1. How are the elected members of the District Public Safety Commission chosen?

(A) By the Zila Nazim

(B) Through secret ballot by the Zila Council members

(C) By the District Selection Panel directly

(D) Appointed by the Provincial Government

Answer: (B) Through secret ballot by the Zila Council members

Explanation: The elected members of the District Public Safety Commission are chosen by the Zila Council through a secret ballot.

 

1. What is the minimum number of meetings the District Public Safety Commission must hold each month?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

Answer: (A) One

Explanation: The District Public Safety Commission is required to hold a minimum of one meeting each month, though emergency meetings may be called on short notice.

CAPITAL CITY DISTRICT PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

• Who is responsible for establishing the Capital City District Public Safety Commission in each district?

(A) Federal Government

(B) Provincial Government

(C) District Government

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (B) Provincial Government

Explanation: According to Article 49, the Provincial Government is tasked with establishing a Capital City District Public Safety Commission in each district based on its area and population.

• How are independent members of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission selected?

(A) By the Zila Council through secret ballot

(B) By the Governor based on the list recommended by the Capital City District Selection Panel

(C) By the Provincial Assembly

(D) Through public elections

Answer: (B) By the Governor based on the list recommended by the Capital City District Selection Panel

Explanation: Article 50(3) specifies that the six independent members are appointed by the Governor from a list of recommended names provided by the Capital City District Selection Panel.

• Who serves as the Chairperson of the Selection Panel for independent members of the Commission?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Provincial Government’s nominee

(C) Chief Justice of the High Court

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (C) Chief Justice of the High Court

Explanation: Article 53(1) states that the Chief Justice of the High Court serves as the Chairperson of the Selection Panel, which also includes a nominee from both the Provincial Government and the District Government.

• How long is the term of office for members of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Two years

(B) Three years

(C) Four years

(D) Five years

Answer: (B) Three years

Explanation: Article 57(1) clarifies that members serve a term of three years unless they resign or lose eligibility.

• What is the minimum quorum required for a meeting of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) One-third of its members

(B) Half of its members

(C) Two-thirds of its members

(D) All members present

Answer: (C) Two-thirds of its members

Explanation: Article 59(3) specifies that the quorum for a Commission meeting is two-thirds of its total membership.

• Who has the authority to remove a member of the Commission for reasons such as misconduct or conflict of interest?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Governor

(C) Chief Justice of the High Court

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Article 58 states that the Governor can remove a member based on specific grounds, including misconduct or conflict of interest, either on his own initiative or on the Commission’s recommendation.

• What is the role of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission regarding the Local Policing Plan?

(A) To prepare the Local Policing Plan

(B) To approve the Local Policing Plan and evaluate its performance targets

(C) To execute the Local Policing Plan directly

(D) To finance the Local Policing Plan

Answer: (B) To approve the Local Policing Plan and evaluate its performance targets

Explanation: Article 56(a) states that the Commission approves the Local Policing Plan prepared by the Capital City Police Officer and evaluates its performance targets.

• Which of the following is a disqualification for becoming an independent member of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Serving in the education sector

(B) Holding a representative office within six months prior to appointment

(C) Being a retired public servant

(D) Having experience in social work

Answer: (B) Holding a representative office within six months prior to appointment

Explanation: Article 55(a) disqualifies individuals who have held a representative office or been public servants within six months of appointment.

• What action can the Commission take if it believes the Capital City Police Officer has unjustifiably refused to register a First Information Report (FIR)?

(A) File the FIR directly

(B) Conduct an inquiry and direct the officer to register the FIR if warranted

(C) Refer the matter to the Federal Government

(D) Penalize the officer directly

Answer: (B) Conduct an inquiry and direct the officer to register the FIR if warranted

Explanation: Article 56(g) empowers the Commission to direct an inquiry if a refusal to register an FIR is deemed unjustified and to order the registration of the FIR if a cognizable case is made.

• What is the maximum number of meetings the Capital City District Public Safety Commission must hold each month?

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four

Answer: (A) One

Explanation: Article 59(4) specifies that the Commission is required to hold at least one meeting each month, though additional emergency meetings can be called with 24-hour notice.

 

11. How many members of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission are elected by the Zila Council?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Six

Answer: (B) Three

Explanation: Article 50(1) specifies that three members are elected by the Zila Council from among its councillors through a secret ballot.

 

12. Who is eligible to preside over a meeting of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission in the absence of the Chairperson?

(A) The Capital City Police Officer

(B) The most senior independent member

(C) Any member chosen by the Commission

(D) The Naib Zila Nazim

Answer: (C) Any member chosen by the Commission

Explanation: Article 52 allows the Commission to elect any one of its members to preside over a meeting if the Chairperson is absent.

 

13. Who can initiate the process to remove a member from the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) The Chairperson of the Commission

(B) The Governor

(C) The Provincial Public Safety Commission

(D) The Zila Nazim

Answer: (B) The Governor

Explanation: Article 58 states that the Governor can initiate the removal of a member either independently or based on the Commission’s recommendation if certain conditions are met.

 

14. What is the primary role of the permanent secretariat established for the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) To handle administrative tasks and support the Commission’s functions

(B) To oversee the local policing plan

(C) To conduct fact-finding investigations

(D) To manage the finances of the Commission

Answer: (A) To handle administrative tasks and support the Commission’s functions

Explanation: Article 60(1) states that a permanent secretariat is established by the Provincial Government to manage the administrative responsibilities of the Commission.

 

15. Who is responsible for nominating members to the Capital City District Public Safety Commission from the Provincial Assembly?

(A) The Chief Minister

(B) The Speaker of the Provincial Assembly

(C) The Zila Nazim

(D) The Governor

Answer: (B) The Speaker of the Provincial Assembly

Explanation: Article 50(2) indicates that the Speaker of the Provincial Assembly nominates three members from among the Assembly’s members, with two from the treasury and one from the opposition.

ISLAMABAD DISTRICT PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

1. What is the total number of members in the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) 10 (B) 12

(C) 14 (D) 15

Answer: (B) 12

Explanation: Article 61 specifies that the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission shall consist of 12 members.

 

2. How many members of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission are elected by the District Council?

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) Four (D) Six

Answer: (B) Three

Explanation: Article 62(1) states that three members are elected by the District Council from among its councillors.

 

3. Who nominates members of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission from the National Assembly?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President

(C) Speaker of National Assembly

(D) Federal Government

Answer: (C) Speaker of National Assembly

Explanation: According to Article 62(2), the Speaker nominates three members from the National Assembly in consultation with the Leader of the House and Leader of the Opposition.

• Who appoints the six independent members of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) President (B) Prime Minister

(C) Zila Nazim

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (A) President

Explanation: Article 62(3) clarifies that the six independent members are appointed by the President from a list recommended by the Islamabad District Selection Panel.

 

5. How often must the Chairperson of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission be elected?

(A) Monthly (B) Annually

(C) Every two years

(D) Every five years

Answer: (B) Annually

Explanation: Article 63(1) states that the Chairperson is elected annually, alternating between independent and elected members.

 

6. What is the minimum percentage of women required among both elected and independent members of the Commission?

(A) 10% (B) 25%

(C) 33% (D) 50%

Answer: (C) 33% (One third)

Explanation: Article 62(4) mandates that one-third of both elected and independent members shall be women.

 

7. What authority does the selection panel for independent members NOT include?

(A) Chief Justice of the High Court

(B) Federal Government nominee

(C) District Government nominee

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (D) Capital City Police Officer

Explanation: Article 65(1) states that the selection panel includes the Chief Justice of the High Court and nominees from the Federal and District Governments.

 

8. Which of the following disqualifies a person from becoming an independent member of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Being a recent public servant

(B) Having a minor illness

(C) Possessing dual nationality

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Answer: (D) Both (A) and (C)

Explanation: Article 67 lists disqualifications, including recent public service and lack of Pakistani citizenship.

 

9. Which body must approve the annual Local Policing Plan?

(A) Islamabad District Public Safety Commission

(B) Federal Government

(C) District Government

(D) National Assembly

Answer: (A) Islamabad District Public Safety Commission

Explanation: Article 68(a) specifies that the Commission approves the annual Local Policing Plan prepared by the Capital City Police Officer.

 

10. What action can the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission take if the Capital City Police Officer receives an unlawful order?

(A) Submit a formal complaint to the Zila Nazim

(B) File a report with the Federal Government

(C) Provide recourse and give a decision on the matter

(D) Request a meeting with the District Council

Answer: (C) Provide recourse and give a decision on the matter

Explanation: Article 68(d) allows the Commission to provide recourse for the Capital City Police Officer against any unlawful or mala fide order.

 

11. Who has the authority to remove a member of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Federal Government

(B) Zila Nazim

(C) President

(D) Speaker of the National Assembly

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: Article 70 allows the President to remove a member for specific reasons listed in the article.

 

12. What is the quorum required for meetings of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) One-third of the members

(B) Half of the members

(C) Two-thirds of the members

(D) Three-fourths of the members

Answer: (C) Two-thirds of the members

Explanation: Article 71(3) states that two-thirds of the members are required for a quorum.

 

13. How often must the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission hold meetings?

(A) Weekly

(B) Bi-weekly

(C) Monthly

(D) Quarterly

Answer: (C) Monthly

Explanation: Article 71(4) specifies that there shall be a minimum of one meeting each month, with emergency meetings allowed with shorter notice.

 

14. What is the maximum duration within which the selection of independent members must be completed once the process begins?

(A) 10 days (B) 15 days

(C) 30 days (D) 45 days

Answer: (C) 30 days

Explanation: Article 65(3) mandates that the selection process must be completed within 30 days.

 

15. Who heads the permanent secretariat of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) A Federal Government officer

(B) The Chairperson of the Commission

(C) An officer of BPS 17

(D) The Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (C) An officer of BPS 17

Explanation: Article 72(2) specifies that the secretariat is headed by an officer of BPS 17 appointed in consultation with the Commission by the Government

THE PROVINCIAL PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

1. Who serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
2. A) Provincial Police Officer
3. B) Chief Minister
4. C) Provincial Home Minister
5. D) Speaker of the Provincial Assembly

Answer: C) Provincial Home Minister

Explanation: As per the Police Order 2002, the Provincial Home Minister is designated as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Provincial Public Safety Commission.

 

2. How many members, excluding the Chairperson, does the Provincial Public Safety Commission have?
3. A) 10 B) 12
4. C) 14 D) 15

Answer: B) 12

Explanation: The Police Order specifies that the Provincial Public Safety Commission consists of twelve members in addition to the ex-officio Chairperson.

 

3. How are the independent members of the Provincial Public Safety Commission selected?
4. A) By the Provincial Assembly
5. B) By the Provincial Home Minister
6. C) By the Governor from a list recommended by the Provincial Selection Panel
7. D) By the National Assembly

Answer: C) By the Governor from a list recommended by the Provincial Selection Panel

Explanation: Independent members are appointed by the Governor based on recommendations from the Provincial Selection Panel, ensuring they meet specific integrity and competence criteria.

 

4. What is the quorum requirement for meetings of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
5. A) One-third of the membership
6. B) Simple majority
7. C) Two-thirds of the membership
8. D) Half of the members

Answer: C) Two-thirds of the membership

Explanation: The Police Order mandates that a quorum of two-thirds of the Commission’s membership is required to conduct official meetings.

 

5. Which entity is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Provincial Policing Plan?
6. A) National Public Safety Commission
7. B) Provincial Assembly
8. C) Provincial Public Safety Commission
9. D) Zila Council

Answer: C) Provincial Public Safety Commission

Explanation: The Provincial Public Safety Commission monitors and oversees the implementation of the Provincial Policing Plan, as outlined in the Police Order 2002.

 

6. How is the selection panel for independent members of the Provincial Public Safety Commission composed?
7. A) Members of the Provincial Assembly
8. B) Chief Justice of the High Court, a nominee of the Governor, and a nominee of the Chief Minister
9. C) District Council Members
10. D) Provincial Police Officers

Answer: B) Chief Justice of the High Court, a nominee of the Governor, and a nominee of the Chief Minister

Explanation: The selection panel comprises the Chief Justice of the High Court as the Chairperson and nominees from both the Governor and Chief Minister, ensuring independence and impartiality in the selection of members.

 

7. Which of the following is a function of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
8. A) Appointing police officers
9. B) Directing the operations of the police force
10. C) Recommending reforms for modernization of police-related laws and procedures
11. D) Providing security to government officials

Answer: C) Recommending reforms for modernization of police-related laws and procedures

Explanation: One of the Provincial Public Safety Commission’s functions is to recommend reforms in police, prosecution, and related areas, aiming to modernize and improve law enforcement services.

 

8. What is the maximum allowable term for members of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
9. A) Two years
10. B) Three years
11. C) Same as the term of the Provincial Assembly
12. D) Four years

Answer: C) Same as the term of the Provincial Assembly

Explanation: Members serve for a term equivalent to the Provincial Assembly’s duration, ensuring alignment with the province’s legislative cycle.

9. Under what condition can a member of the Provincial Public Safety Commission be removed?
10. A) If they change their political affiliation
11. B) If they miss three consecutive meetings without reasonable cause
12. C) If they are older than 65 years
13. D) If they serve in a public office

Answer: B) If they miss three consecutive meetings without reasonable cause

Explanation: Absence from three consecutive meetings without a valid reason can lead to a member’s removal from the Provincial Public Safety Commission, ensuring active participation.

 

10. Who is responsible for establishing the Secretariat for the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
11. A) Federal Government
12. B) National Public Safety Commission
13. C) Provincial Government
14. D) District Council

Answer: C) Provincial Government

Explanation: The Police Order 2002 mandates that the Provincial Government establish a permanent Secretariat for the Provincial Public Safety Commission to handle its administrative needs.

THE NATIONAL PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

1. What is the total number of members in the National Public Safety Commission, excluding the ex officio Chairperson?
2. A) 10 B) 12
3. C) 15 D) 18

Answer: B) 12

Explanation: The National Public Safety Commission consists of 12 members along with an ex officio Chairperson, as specified in Article 85 of the Police Order 2002.

 

2. Who nominates half of the members of the National Public Safety Commission?
3. A) The Prime Minister
4. B) The President
5. C) The Speaker of the National Assembly
6. D) The Chief Justice of Pakistan

Answer: C) The Speaker of the National Assembly

Explanation: Article 86(1) states that half of the members of the National Public Safety Commission are nominated by the Speaker of the National Assembly.

 

3. How many independent members of the National Public Safety Commission must be women?
4. A) One B) Two
5. C) Three D) Four

Answer: B) Two

Explanation: According to Article 86(2), at least two independent members of the National Public Safety Commission must be women.

 

4. Who serves as the ex officio Chairperson of the National Public Safety Commission?
5. A) The Chief Justice of Pakistan
6. B) The Speaker of the National Assembly
7. C) The President
8. D) The Federal Interior Minister

Answer: D) The Federal Interior Minister

Explanation: Article 87(1) specifies that the Federal Interior Minister is the ex officio Chairperson of the National Public Safety Commission.

 

5. What is the main criterion for disqualifying a candidate from becoming an independent member of the National Public Safety Commission?
6. A) Being an activist of a political party
7. B) Having a family member in law enforcement
8. C) Being an advocate of police reforms
9. D) Serving in a public office over 10 years ago

Answer: A) Being an activist of a political party

Explanation: Article 91(a) states that individuals who are activists of any political party or have held a representative office within the past six months are disqualified from becoming independent members of the Commission.

 

6. Which federal law enforcement agencies are overseen by the National Public Safety Commission?
7. A) Only the Federal Investigation Agency
8. B) Only the Pakistan Motorway and Highway Police
9. C) The Federal Investigation Agency, Pakistan Railways Police, and Pakistan Motorway and Highway Police
10. D) All law enforcement agencies in Pakistan

Answer: C) The Federal Investigation Agency, Pakistan Railways Police, and Pakistan Motorway and Highway Police

Explanation: Article 92(1) lists these agencies as part of the law enforcement agencies overseen by the National Public Safety Commission.

 

7. What is the National Public Safety Commission’s role in regard to the Capital City Police Officer for Islamabad?
8. A) Approve appointment and promotion
9. B) Oversee all duties of the officer
10. C) Recommend a panel of three officers for appointment
11. D) Approve the officer’s annual budget

Answer: C) Recommend a panel of three officers for appointment

Explanation: Article 92(3)(a) states that the Commission recommends a panel of three officers for the appointment of the Capital City Police Officer for Islamabad.

 

8. What is the minimum quorum for a meeting of the National Public Safety Commission?
9. A) Simple majority of members
10. B) Half of the membership
11. C) Two-thirds of its membership
12. D) Three-fourths of the membership

Answer: C) Two-thirds of its membership

Explanation: Article 95(3) specifies that the quorum for the meeting of the Commission shall be two-thirds of its membership.

 

9. Which of the following is a function of the National Public Safety Commission?
10. A) Establish Citizen Police Liaison Committees nationwide
11. B) Conduct federal police training programs
12. C) Provide funding to all provincial police
13. D) Dissolve the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission if needed

Answer: D) Dissolve the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission if needed

Explanation: Article 92(3)(j) gives the Commission authority to recommend the dissolution of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission based on performance.

 

10. Which body acts as the Secretariat of the National Public Safety Commission?
11. A) The National Police Management Board
12. B) The Ministry of Law and Justice
13. C) The National Police Bureau
14. D) The Federal Investigation Agency

Answer: C) The National Police Bureau

Explanation: Article 96 states that the National Police Bureau serves as the Secretariat for the National Public Safety Commission.

 

POLICE COMPLAINTS AUTHORITIES

1. What is the primary function of the Federal Police Complaints Authority as per the Police Order 2002?

1. A) Oversee all police training activities
2. B) Enquire into complaints against Federal Law Enforcement Agency members
3. C) Manage funding for law enforcement agencies
4. D) Direct the day-to-day activities of Federal Law Enforcement Agencies

Answer: B) Enquire into complaints against Federal Law Enforcement Agency members
Explanation: The Federal Police Complaints Authority is responsible for investigating serious complaints against members of Federal Law Enforcement Agencies.

 

2. Who appoints the Chairperson of the Federal Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Prime Minister 
2. B) Chief Justice
3. C) President
4. D) Federal Public Service Commission

Answer: C) President
Explanation: According to the Police Order 2002, the Chairperson of the Federal Police Complaints Authority is appointed by the President.

 

3. How long is the term for members of the Federal Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Two years B) Four years
2. C) Three years D) Five years

Answer: C) Three years
Explanation: Members of the Federal Police Complaints Authority are appointed for a term not exceeding three years, and they are not eligible for a second term.

 

4. What type of complaints does the Federal Police Complaints Authority handle?
5. A) Financial misconduct by police officers
6. B) Minor disciplinary issues
7. C) Complaints of neglect, excess, or misconduct by Federal Law Enforcement members
8. D) Complaints related to promotions and transfers

Answer: C) Complaints of neglect, excess, or misconduct by Federal Law Enforcement members
Explanation: The authority deals specifically with complaints of neglect, excess, or misconduct by officers within Federal Law Enforcement Agencies.

 

5. What action can the Federal Police Complaints Authority take in the case of a frivolous complaint?

1. A) Issue a warning to the complainant
2. B) Refer the complaint to another department
3. C) Initiate legal action against the complainant
4. D) Ignore the complaint

Answer: C) Initiate legal action against the complainant
Explanation: The authority is empowered to take legal action if a complaint is found to be frivolous, false, or vexatious.

 

6. Who has the authority to appoint the members of the Provincial Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Governor
2. B) Chief Justice of the High Court
3. C) Provincial Public Service Commission
4. D) President

Answer: A) Governor
Explanation: The Governor appoints the Chairperson of the Provincial Police Complaints Authority, while other members are appointed by the government on the recommendation of the Provincial Public Service Commission.

 

7. What report must the Federal Police Complaints Authority submit annually to the government?

1. A) Crime statistics for the year
2. B) A report on serious complaints against Federal Law Enforcement officers
3. C) Annual law enforcement budget report
4. D) Annual personnel performance review

Answer: B) A report on serious complaints against Federal Law Enforcement officers
Explanation: The Federal Police Complaints Authority is required to send an annual report to the government covering matters related to its functions and any notable complaints.

 

8. Under which condition may the Provincial Police Complaints Authority request a judicial inquiry?

1. A) In cases of police promotions
2. B) For minor misconduct cases
3. C) In cases of death, rape, or serious injury in police custody
4. D) For reviewing departmental policy

Answer: C) In cases of death, rape, or serious injury in police custody
Explanation: The Provincial Police Complaints Authority can request a judicial inquiry if there is a report of death, rape, or serious injury in police custody.

 

9. How are the Secretariat’s staff and officers’ roles in the Federal Police Complaints Authority determined?

1. A) By the Federal Government in consultation with the Authority
2. B) By the Chairperson alone
3. C) By the President
4. D) By the Federal Public Service Commission

Answer: A) By the Federal Government in consultation with the Authority
Explanation: The roles of the Secretariat’s staff and officers are determined through consultation between the Federal Government and the Federal Police Complaints Authority.

 

10. What is the quorum requirement for a meeting of the Federal Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Simple majority
2. B) Half of the members
3. C) One-third of the members
4. D) Two-thirds of the members

Answer: D) Two-thirds of the members
Explanation: To conduct a meeting, the quorum for the Federal Police Complaints Authority must be two-thirds of its total membership, as per the Police Order 2002.

CRIMINAL JUSTICE COORDINATION COMMITTEE

1. Who serves as the Chairperson of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee at the district level?

1. A) District Public Prosecutor
2. B) Head of District Police
3. C) District and Sessions Judge
4. D) District Superintendent Jail

Answer: C) District and Sessions Judge
Explanation: The Criminal Justice Coordination Committee is chaired by the District and Sessions Judge, who leads the coordination and review of the criminal justice system at the district level.

 

2. What is one of the main functions of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee?

1. A) To handle individual criminal cases directly
2. B) To supervise police investigations across all districts
3. C) To promote understanding, cooperation, and coordination in the administration of the criminal justice system
4. D) To investigate corruption within the police department

Answer: C) To promote understanding, cooperation, and coordination in the administration of the criminal justice system
Explanation: The Criminal Justice Coordination Committee works to promote coordination and cooperation between various criminal justice entities to improve the system’s overall functioning.

 

3. How often must the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee meet, according to the Police Order 2002?

1. A) Once a year
2. B) Once every six months
3. C) Once a month
4. D) Once every two months

Answer: C) Once a month
Explanation: The Criminal Justice Coordination Committee is required to meet at least once a month to review the operations and improvements in the criminal justice system.

 

4. Which of the following members does NOT belong to the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee?

1. A) District Superintendent Jail
2. B) District Parole Officer
3. C) District Police Officer (Head of District Police)
4. D) District Magistrate

Answer: D) District Magistrate
Explanation: The District Magistrate is not part of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee. The committee includes the District and Sessions Judge, Head of District Police, District Public Prosecutor, District Superintendent Jail, District Probation Officer, and others as specified.

 

5. What is the role of the Secretary in the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee?

1. A) To represent the committee in court
2. B) To manage the district’s police department
3. C) To record the minutes of the meetings
4. D) To oversee the probation and parole systems

Answer: C) To record the minutes of the meetings
Explanation: The Secretary of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee is responsible for recording the minutes of the meetings, ensuring accurate documentation of decisions and discussions.

 

REGULATION, CONTROL AND DISCIPLINE OF THE POLICE

1. Who is authorized to make rules for the implementation of provisions in the Police Order 2002?

1. A) District Police Officer
2. B) Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer
3. C) Head of District Police
4. D) The Chief Justice

Answer: B) Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer
Explanation: The Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer, with prior approval from the government, can make rules to implement the provisions of the Police Order 2002.

2. What kind of punishments can be imposed on a police officer according to Article 113 of the Police Order 2002?

1. A) Reprimanding and transferring to another department
2. B) Suspension, dismissal, reduction in rank or pay, fines, censure, or other prescribed punishments
3. C) Jail time and fines
4. D) Removal from office and permanent disqualification

Answer: B) Suspension, dismissal, reduction in rank or pay, fines, censure, or other prescribed punishments
Explanation: A police officer can face a range of disciplinary actions including suspension, dismissal, reduction in rank or pay, fines, censure, or any other punishment outlined in the rules.

 

3. What is one of the key areas covered by the Code of Conduct issued by the Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer?

1. A) The recruitment process of police officers
2. B) The identification of persons by police officers
3. C) The number of police officers in each district
4. D) The funding of police departments

Answer: B) The identification of persons by police officers
Explanation: The Code of Conduct specifically covers police practices related to the identification of persons by officers, along with other areas such as search and seizure, detention, and questioning of individuals.

 

4. Under the Police Order 2002, what is required for a police officer to resign from their position?

1. A) Verbal permission from the District Police Officer
2. B) Submission of a resignation letter with immediate effect
3. C) Written notice of at least two months to a superior officer
4. D) No notice is required

Answer: C) Written notice of at least two months to a superior officer
Explanation: A police officer must submit a written notice of at least two months before resigning from their office, according to the rules set out in the Police Order 2002.

 

5. Can a police officer engage in private employment while serving in the police force?

1. A) Yes, with prior approval from the government
2. B) Yes, if they are off-duty
3. C) No, a police officer cannot engage in private employment at any time
4. D) Yes, but only in a different field unrelated to law enforcement

Answer: C) No, a police officer cannot engage in private employment at any time
Explanation: A police officer is prohibited from engaging in any private employment while they are a member of the police establishment, ensuring their full commitment to their police duties.

POWERS TO ISSUE ORDERS

1. What is the primary purpose of the Head of District Police issuing orders under Section 118?
2. a) To grant licenses for public assemblies
3. b) To maintain public order or prevent public nuisance in an emergency
4. c) To conduct searches of vehicles
5. d) To regulate the distribution of public resources

Answer: b) To maintain public order or prevent public nuisance in an emergency

Explanation: Section 118 grants the Head of District Police the power to issue orders in emergencies to maintain public order or prevent public nuisance by enforcing municipal laws, rules, or bye-laws.

 

2. Which police officer is authorized to give directions for maintaining order during public assemblies, according to Section 119?
3. a) A police officer of any rank
   b) A police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
   c) A constable
   d) Any officer appointed by the Head of District Police

Answer: b) A police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector

Explanation: Section 119 empowers police officers of at least Sub-Inspector rank to give directions regarding the conduct of persons in processions, assemblies, and on public streets to prevent obstructions and maintain order.

 

3. According to Section 120, who has the authority to prescribe routes and times for processions or assemblies?
4. a) The Assistant Superintendent of Police
5. b) The Head of District Police, Assistant or Deputy Superintendent of Police
6. c) The Sub-Inspector in charge
7. d) The police station officer

Answer: b) The Head of District Police, Assistant or Deputy Superintendent of Police

Explanation: Section 120 gives the Head of District Police or Assistant or Deputy Superintendent of Police the authority to regulate the conduct of assemblies and processions by specifying routes and timings.

 

4. What does Section 121 empower the Head of District Police or other officers to do regarding processions or assemblies violating the conditions of a license?
5. a) Arrest the leaders of the assembly
6. b) Disperse the assembly or stop the procession
7. c) Fine the organizers
8. d) Allow the assembly to continue under supervision

Answer: b) Disperse the assembly or stop the procession

Explanation: Section 121 grants powers to police officers to stop any procession violating the terms of a license and to disperse any assembly that does not comply with the license conditions.

 

5. Under Section 122, what items may the Head of District Police prohibit the carrying of in an urban or rural area to prevent disorder?
6. a) Only firearms
7. b) Firearms, sharp objects, and corrosive substances
8. c) Only explosives and bludgeons
9. d) All items including flags and banners

Answer: b) Firearms, sharp objects, and corrosive substances

Explanation: Section 122 allows the Head of District Police to prohibit the carrying of weapons, sharp objects, corrosive substances, and missiles, when deemed necessary to prevent disorder.

 

6. What is the purpose of the directions given by a police officer under Section 123 at places of public amusement or assemblies?
7. a) To control ticket sales
8. b) To maintain public safety and lawful conduct during the event
9. c) To enforce traffic laws
10. d) To monitor the financial transactions of the event

Answer: b) To maintain public safety and lawful conduct during the event

Explanation: Section 123 allows police officers to give directions for maintaining public safety and lawful conduct during assemblies or events open to the public, preventing disorder.

 

7. What power does Section 124 grant to a police officer in an emergency situation involving streets or public places?
8. a) To issue a fine for parking violations
   b) To arrest individuals causing public disturbances
   c) To temporarily close streets or public places by erecting barriers
   d) To search and seize vehicles entering the area

Answer: c) To temporarily close streets or public places by erecting barriers

Explanation: Section 124 allows a police officer to temporarily close streets or public places in an emergency by erecting barriers to prevent unauthorized entry.

 

8. According to Section 125, when may a police officer search a person or vehicle in a street or public place?
9. a) If the person or vehicle is blocking the road
10. b) On reasonable grounds of suspicion that an unlawful article is being carried
11. c) During routine patrols
12. d) When the person is acting suspiciously but not carrying any item

Answer: b) On reasonable grounds of suspicion that an unlawful article is being carried

Explanation: Section 125 authorizes police officers to search individuals or vehicles on reasonable grounds of suspicion that they are carrying unlawful or dangerous articles. If the account given by the person is suspicious, the officer may detain the article and report it for legal action.

SPECIAL MEASURES FOR MAINTENANCE OF PUBLIC ORDER AND SECURITY

1. Under Section 126, who can request the deployment of additional police to maintain public order?
2. a) Only government officials
   b) Any person, with approval from the Provincial Police Officer
   c) The general public
   d) Only the Provincial Police Officer

Answer: b) Any person, with approval from the Provincial Police Officer

Explanation: Section 126 allows any person to apply for additional police deployment to maintain order, subject to the approval of the Provincial Police Officer.

 

2. Who bears the cost for the additional police deployed under Section 126?
3. a) The government
4. b) The police department
5. c) The person making the application
6. d) The person causing the public disturbance

Answer: c) The person making the application

Explanation: Under Section 126(2), the cost of employing additional police is borne by the person who applies for the police deployment.

 

3. How can the person who requested additional police withdraw them according to Section 126?
4. a) By giving two weeks’ notice
   b) By giving one week’s notice
   c) By requesting verbally
   d) By notifying the local police station

Answer: b) By giving one week’s notice

Explanation: Section 126(3) states that the person who requested the additional police can withdraw them by providing one week’s notice.

 

4. If there is a payment dispute regarding the cost of additional police, to whom can the matter be referred?
5. a) The Chief Minister
   b) The Provincial Police Officer
   c) The Head of District Police or the Government
   d) The local magistrate

Answer: c) The Head of District Police or the Government

Explanation: Section 126(4) allows the Head of District Police to refer the payment dispute to the Government for a final decision.

 

5. Under Section 127, when may the Head of District Police deploy additional police?
6. a) Only for public safety events
7. b) When large public events or works might impede traffic or attract large crowds
8. c) Only during national emergencies
9. d) For all public events regardless of size

Answer: b) When large public events or works might impede traffic or attract large crowds

Explanation: Section 127(1) allows the Head of District Police to deploy additional police when large works or public events might create disturbances or attract large crowds.

 

6. Who is responsible for the cost of additional police deployed for public events under Section 127?
7. a) The police department
8. b) The organizers of the event or employers
9. c) The provincial government
10. d) The general public

Answer: b) The organizers of the event or employers

Explanation: Section 127(2) states that the cost of additional police is borne by the organizers of the events or employers of works or concerns that require police deployment.

 

7. How are amounts payable under Sections 126 and 127 recovered?
8. a) By issuing fines
   b) As arrears of land revenue
   c) Through public donations
   d) Through tax deductions

Answer: b) As arrears of land revenue

Explanation: Section 129 outlines that amounts payable under Sections 126 and 127 are recovered in the same manner as arrears of land revenue.

 

8. What happens to the recovered amount under Sections 126 and 127?
9. a) It is returned to the person who paid
   b) It is credited to the treasury
   c) It is used to fund police activities
   d) It is distributed among the police officers involved

Answer: b) It is credited to the treasury

Explanation: According to Section 130, the amounts recovered under Sections 126 and 127 are credited to the treasury.

 

9. Under Section 131, who can prohibit the use of dress resembling police or armed forces uniforms?
10. a) Any police officer
    b) The Provincial Police Officer or the Capital City Police Officer
    c) The Head of District Police
    d) The President of the country

Answer: b) The Provincial Police Officer or the Capital City Police Officer

Explanation: Section 131 empowers the Provincial Police Officer or the Capital City Police Officer to prohibit the wearing of clothing resembling police or armed forces uniforms if it threatens public order or security.

 

10. What can the Head of District Police do under Section 132 in relation to camps or parades?
11. a) Prohibit the training of arms in the district
    b) Allow all meetings and assemblies for training in the use of arms
    c) Restrict meetings for training with arms only during emergencies
    d) Restrict or prohibit assemblies for training with arms to maintain public order

Answer: d) Restrict or prohibit assemblies for training with arms to maintain public order

Explanation: Section 132 allows the Head of District Police to prohibit or restrict meetings or assemblies for training in the use of arms to maintain public order

 

RESPONSIBILITIES OF POLICE IN RELATION TO UNCLAIMED

PROPERTY

1. What is the first responsibility of a police officer regarding unclaimed property according to Section 134?
2. a) Sell the property to recover costs
   b) Report the property to the local magistrate
   c) Take charge and make an inventory of the property
   d) Wait for the owner to claim the property

Answer: c) Take charge and make an inventory of the property

Explanation: Under Section 134, it is the duty of every police officer to take charge of unclaimed property, make an inventory of it, and send a copy of the inventory to the Head of District Police without delay.

 

2. According to Section 135, within what time frame must a proclamation be issued after police take charge of unclaimed property?
3. a) One week
   b) Fifteen days
   c) One month
   d) Three months

Answer: b) Fifteen days

Explanation: Section 135(1) states that the Head of District Police must issue a proclamation within fifteen days of taking charge of the unclaimed property, specifying the items and requiring anyone with a claim to appear and establish their ownership.

 

3. What happens if a claimant does not appear within the specified period to claim the property under Section 137?
4. a) The property is returned to the original owner
   b) The property is kept in storage indefinitely
   c) The property is disposed of with the approval of the appropriate Public Safety Commission
   d) The property is handed over to the police officer in charge

Answer: c) The property is disposed of with the approval of the appropriate Public Safety Commission

Explanation: Section 137 specifies that if no claimant appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property will be disposed of with the approval of the appropriate Public Safety Commission, and the proceeds will be deposited in the treasury.

 

4. In case of multiple claimants to the same unclaimed property, what is the procedure according to Section 136?
5. a) The property is sold and proceeds are divided among the claimants
   b) The Head of District Police delivers the property to the first claimant
   c) The matter is referred to a competent court for resolution
   d) The property is retained by the police department

Answer: c) The matter is referred to a competent court for resolution

Explanation: Section 136(2) states that if there are multiple claimants to the same property, the Head of District Police will refer the matter to a competent court to resolve the issue.

 

5. According to Section 135, how should property that is subject to speedy decay or is of low value be handled?
6. a) It should be kept for a year to allow claims
   b) It can be disposed of immediately under the orders of the Head of District Police
   c) It should be returned to the original owner
   d) It should be transferred to the government

Answer: b) It can be disposed of immediately under the orders of the Head of District Police

Explanation: Section 135(2) provides that if the property is subject to speedy decay or is valued at less than one thousand rupees, it may be disposed of immediately by the Head of District Police, and the net proceeds will be dealt with as specified in Articles 136 and 137.

OFFENCES AND PUNISHMENTS

 

1. What is the penalty for causing mischief in the street or public place by reckless or negligent driving under Article 138?
2. a) Imprisonment for up to six months
3. b) A fine of up to ten thousand rupees
4. c) Imprisonment for up to three months
5. d) A fine of up to fifty thousand rupees

Answer: b) A fine of up to ten thousand rupees

Explanation: According to Article 141, anyone causing mischief in a street or public place through reckless or negligent driving is liable for a fine that may extend to ten thousand rupees, or imprisonment for up to thirty days.

 

2. Under Article 139, which of the following actions would lead to an obstruction in a street or public place?
3. a) Parking a vehicle for more than the necessary time
   b) Stopping a vehicle to check for vehicle damage
   c) Allowing vehicles to park in a designated parking lot
   d) Using a private driveway for parking

Answer: a) Parking a vehicle for more than the necessary time

Explanation: Article 139 prohibits causing an obstruction by allowing a vehicle to remain or stand longer than necessary for loading, unloading, or taking up or setting down passengers.

 

3. What is the punishment for a person who negligently lets loose a dog causing danger or injury under Article 140?
4. a) Fine of up to ten thousand rupees
   b) Imprisonment for up to one year
   c) Fine of up to fifty thousand rupees
   d) Imprisonment for up to six months

Answer: a) Fine of up to ten thousand rupees

Explanation: Article 141 specifies that anyone who negligently lets loose a dog that causes danger, injury, or alarm can be punished with a fine of up to ten thousand rupees or imprisonment for up to thirty days.

 

4. What penalty is prescribed for the first offender under Articles 138 to 140, as per Article 147?
5. a) Warning in writing
   b) Imprisonment for up to six months
   c) A fine of up to ten thousand rupees
   d) Imprisonment for up to one year

Answer: a) Warning in writing

Explanation: Under Article 147, for the first commission of offences under Articles 138 to 140, the Head of District Police may request the court to issue a written warning in lieu of prosecution.

 

5. What is the punishment for defiling water in a public well, tank, or other water source under Article 148?
6. a) Imprisonment for up to three months
   b) A fine of up to thirty thousand rupees
   c) Imprisonment for up to six months or fine up to thirty thousand rupees
   d) Imprisonment for up to one year and fine

Answer: c) Imprisonment for up to six months or fine up to thirty thousand rupees

Explanation: Article 148 prescribes a punishment of imprisonment for up to six months, a fine of up to thirty thousand rupees, or both, for defiling a public water source.

 

6. What is the penalty for causing a false alarm of fire, as per Article 149?
7. a) A fine of up to fifteen thousand rupees
   b) Imprisonment for up to three months or a fine
   c) Imprisonment for up to one year
   d) A fine of up to twenty thousand rupees

Answer: b) Imprisonment for up to three months or a fine

Explanation: Article 149 punishes anyone who knowingly gives a false alarm of fire with imprisonment for up to three months or a fine up to fifteen thousand rupees, or both.

 

7. What is the punishment for obtaining employment as a police officer through fraudulent means under Article 146?
8. a) Imprisonment for up to six months
   b) Fine up to fifty thousand rupees or imprisonment for one year
   c) Imprisonment for three years
   d) Imprisonment for five years or fine

Answer: b) Fine up to fifty thousand rupees or imprisonment for one year

Explanation: Article 146 states that anyone who fraudulently obtains police employment by making false statements or using false documents is subject to imprisonment for up to one year, a fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both.

 

8. According to Article 153, which offences under this chapter are considered cognizable?
9. a) Offences under Articles 138-140
   b) Offences under Articles 151-152
   c) Offences under Articles 148-152
   d) All offences under this chapter

Answer: c) Offences under Articles 148-152

Explanation: Article 153 states that offences under Articles 148 to 152 are cognizable, meaning the police can arrest the accused without a warrant.

 

9. What is the punishment for unauthorized use of a police uniform under Article 151?
10. a) Imprisonment for up to three years, fine, or both
    b) Fine of up to twenty thousand rupees
    c) Imprisonment for up to one year
    d) Fine of up to one hundred thousand rupees

Answer: a) Imprisonment for up to three years, fine, or both

Explanation: Article 151 punishes the unauthorized use of a police uniform with imprisonment for up to three years, a fine up to one hundred thousand rupees, or both.

 

10. How does the court handle offences under this chapter according to Article 154?
11. a) They are tried by a District Court
    b) They are triable summarily according to the procedure in the Code
    c) They are handled by the police directly
    d) They are referred to the High Court

Answer: b) They are triable summarily according to the procedure in the Code

Explanation: Article 154 grants the court the power to try offences under this chapter summarily, following the procedure laid down for summary trials in the Criminal Procedure Code (Code).

 

OFFENCES BY AND PUNISHMENTS FOR POLICE OFFICERS

1. Which of the following actions by a police officer would result in punishment under Section 155 of the Police Rules?
2. a) Submitting a false document to obtain a transfer
3. b) Resigning from his post without permission due to personal reasons
4. c) Failing to report to duty due to illness without providing a medical certificate
5. d) Reporting a crime in a misleading manner

Answer: b) Resigning from his post without permission due to personal reasons

Explanation:
Under Section 155(a), a police officer who resigns without permission or withdraws from his duties is guilty of misconduct and may face punishment. This section specifically addresses resignation or withdrawal without authorization, constituting an offense for which a police officer may be punished.

2. Which of the following offenses is punishable under Section 156 of the Police Order 2002?
3. a) Vexatiously and unnecessarily seizing property
4. b) Engaging in unauthorized demonstrations or strikes
5. c) Failure to follow superior officers’ orders
6. d) Taking an unauthorized leave of absence

Answer:
a) Vexatiously and unnecessarily seizing property

Explanation:
Section 156 specifically penalizes police officers who, without lawful authority, unnecessarily seize property from a person. This includes actions such as entering or searching properties or detaining individuals without reasonable cause.

 

3. What is the maximum penalty for a police officer found guilty under Section 155 for gross insubordination or use of criminal force against a superior officer?
4. a) Three years imprisonment and a fine
5. b) One year imprisonment and a fine
6. c) Five years imprisonment and a fine
7. d) Dismissal from service with no penalty

Answer:
a) Three years imprisonment and a fine

Explanation:
According to Section 155(g), a police officer found guilty of gross insubordination or using criminal force against a superior officer can face imprisonment for up to three years, along with a fine.

 

4. Which of the following actions could lead to a police officer being punished under Section 157 of the Police Order 2002?
5. a) Delaying a criminal investigation
   b) Unnecessarily delaying the forwarding of an arrested person to court
   c) Taking a bribe from a suspect
   d) Refusing to provide information to a superior officer

Answer:
b) Unnecessarily delaying the forwarding of an arrested person to court

Explanation:
Section 157 deals with the unnecessary delay in forwarding arrested persons to the court or any other authority. A police officer who causes such a delay may be punished with imprisonment for up to one year and a fine.

 

5. A police officer is found intoxicated while on duty. What penalty can he face under Section 155 of the Police Order 2002?
6. a) Dismissal from service
   b) Imprisonment for up to three years and a fine
   c) Suspension for a specified period
   d) Warning from superior officers

Answer:
b) Imprisonment for up to three years and a fine

Explanation:
Section 155(e) specifically penalizes a police officer found in a state of intoxication while on duty. The officer can face up to three years of imprisonment along with a fine. This punishment aims to maintain discipline and professionalism within the police force.

NATIONAL POLICE MANAGEMENT BOARD

1. Who is responsible for establishing the National Police Management Board according to Section 158?
2. a) Provincial Governments
   b) Federal Government
   c) Local Police Authorities
   d) National Police Bureau

Answer:
b) Federal Government

Explanation:
As per Section 158, the Federal Government is tasked with establishing the National Police Management Board, which is responsible for overseeing various police-related matters at the national level.

 

2. Which of the following individuals is part of the composition of the National Police Management Board as per Section 159?
3. a) Chief Minister
   b) Director General of the Anti Narcotics Force
   c) President of Pakistan
   d) Head of the National Police Bureau

Answer:
b) Director General of the Anti Narcotics Force

Explanation:
Section 159 outlines the composition of the National Police Management Board, which includes individuals such as the Director General of the Anti Narcotics Force and other heads of police establishments and federal law enforcement agencies.

 

3. What is one of the key functions of the National Police Management Board under Section 160?
4. a) To provide promotions for police officers
   b) To recommend steps for inter-agency cooperation for crime control
   c) To draft laws for the judicial system
   d) To conduct criminal trials

Answer:
b) To recommend steps for inter-agency cooperation for crime control

Explanation:
Section 160(e) describes that the National Police Management Board is responsible for recommending steps to secure inter-governmental and inter-agency assistance, ensuring a coordinated approach to crime control and internal security.

 

4. How often are meetings of the National Police Management Board held as per Section 161?
5. a) Once every month
   b) Twice a year
   c) Once every quarter
   d) Annually

Answer:
b) Twice a year

Explanation:
According to Section 161(1), the National Police Management Board generally holds two meetings a year, though additional meetings may be convened if requested by a majority of the members.

 

5. What is the quorum required for a meeting of the National Police Management Board under Section 161?
6. a) One-half of the total membership
   b) Two-thirds of the total membership
   c) Three-quarters of the total membership
   d) Full membership

Answer:
c) Three-quarters of the total membership

Explanation:
Section 161(2) specifies that three-quarters of the total membership of the National Police Management Board is required for a meeting to have a quorum. No proxy participation is allowed.

 

6. Who presides over the meetings of the National Police Management Board as per Section 161(4)?
7. a) The Director General of the National Police Bureau
   b) The Secretary of the Board
   c) The Senior-most Member Present
   d) The Federal Minister for Law

Answer:
c) The Senior-most Member Present

Explanation:
Section 161(4) specifies that the senior-most member present at the meeting of the National Police Management Board will preside over the meeting.

 

7. Which organization is tasked with functioning as the permanent secretariat for the National Police Management Board?
8. a) Federal Investigation Agency
   b) National Police Bureau
   c) Anti Narcotics Force
   d) Provincial Police Department

Answer:
b) National Police Bureau

Explanation:
Section 162(2) states that the National Police Bureau will serve as the permanent secretariat for both the National Police Management Board and the National Public Safety Commission.

 

8. Who is the head of the National Police Bureau according to Section 162?
9. a) The President of Pakistan
   b) The Director General, not below the rank of Additional Inspector General of Police
   c) The Secretary of the Board
   d) The Chief Justice

Answer:
b) The Director General, not below the rank of Additional Inspector General of Police

Explanation:
Section 162(1) states that the National Police Bureau shall be headed by a Director General who holds at least the rank of Additional Inspector General of Police.

MISCELLANEOUS

1. Under which circumstances may the police provide advice and assistance to international organizations as per Section 163?
2. a) Without government permission
   b) Only with the permission of the Provincial Government
   c) With the permission of the Federal Government
   d) Upon court order

Answer:
c) With the permission of the Federal Government

Explanation:
Section 163 specifies that the police can provide advice and assistance to international organizations or other bodies involved in investigating criminal cases outside Pakistan, but this must be done with the permission of the Federal Government.

 

2. Who is responsible for coordinating police administration efficiency between federal and provincial areas according to Section 164?
3. a) Provincial Police Officers
   b) Federal Government
   c) National Police Bureau
   d) Local Police Authorities

Answer:
b) Federal Government

Explanation:
Section 164 mandates that the Federal Government is responsible for coordinating police administration across both federal and provincial police areas to ensure efficiency.

 

3. Who should head the departmental promotion committees for police promotions to the rank of Head Constable, as per Section 165?
4. a) Deputy Inspector General of Police
   b) Assistant Superintendent of Police or Deputy Superintendent of Police
   c) Superintendent of Police
   d) Inspector General of Police

Answer:
b) Assistant Superintendent of Police or Deputy Superintendent of Police

Explanation:
According to Section 165, departmental promotion committees for promotions to the rank of Head Constable must be headed by an officer not below the rank of Assistant Superintendent of Police or Deputy Superintendent of Police.

 

4. Which of the following reports is required by the Federal Government as per Section 166?
5. a) Annual reports on police funding
   b) Reports on criminal proceedings and law and order
   c) Reports on police officer promotions
   d) Reports on police training programs

Answer:
b) Reports on criminal proceedings and law and order

Explanation:
Section 166(1) outlines that the Provincial Governments must transmit statistics and reports to the Federal Government concerning officers, offenders, criminal proceedings, and the state of law and order.

 

5. Who may inspect the Daily Diary maintained at a police station under Section 167?
6. a) The District Magistrate
   b) The District and Sessions Judge
   c) The Chief of Police
   d) The Federal Government

Answer:
b) The District and Sessions Judge

Explanation:
Section 167(2) allows the District and Sessions Judge to call for and inspect the Daily Diary maintained at every police station, which records details of complaints, arrests, offences, and witnesses.

 

6. What is the purpose of Citizen Police Liaison Committees as stated in Section 168?
7. a) To assist in police recruitment
   b) To promote liaison between citizens and police for relief and assistance
   c) To establish new police stations
   d) To handle police officer complaints only

Answer:
b) To promote liaison between citizens and police for relief and assistance

Explanation:
Section 168 describes Citizen Police Liaison Committees as voluntary bodies aimed at building capacity, improving communication between citizens and police, and assisting in the work of Public Safety Commissions.

 

7. Where are grants for the Public Safety Fund credited as per Section 169?
8. a) To the National Police Bureau
   b) To the Provincial and District Public Safety Fund
   c) To the police pension fund
   d) To the national treasury

Answer:
b) To the Provincial and District Public Safety Fund

Explanation:
Section 169 outlines that grants from the Federal, Provincial, and District Governments, as well as contributions from the public, are credited to the Provincial and District Public Safety Funds.

 

8. What is the purpose of the Public Safety Fund according to Section 169(7)?
9. a) To increase the police force
   b) To fund police stations, improve traffic police, and reward good performance
   c) To build new police infrastructure
   d) To provide salaries for police officers

Answer:
b) To fund police stations, improve traffic police, and reward good performance

Explanation:
Section 169(7) specifies that the Public Safety Fund is applied to improve facilities at police stations, enhance traffic police services, and reward officers for exemplary performance.

 

9. What powers do officers holding charge of a vacant District Police Head post have as per Section 170?
10. a) Limited powers based on temporary appointment
    b) Full powers to exercise all functions of the District Police Head
    c) Only administrative powers
    d) Only the power to oversee investigations

Answer:
b) Full powers to exercise all functions of the District Police Head

Explanation:
Section 170 grants officers who hold charge of or succeed to a vacant District Police Head post the full powers and duties of the District Police Head, whether temporary or permanent.

 

10. According to Section 171, when is a police officer not liable to any penalty or damages?
11. a) When acting in good faith within the scope of duty
    b) When a mistake is made during investigation
    c) When acting under superior orders
    d) When performing illegal acts in service

Answer:
a) When acting in good faith within the scope of duty

Explanation:
Section 171 states that no police officer shall be liable for penalties or damages for acts done in good faith in the performance of duty.

 

11. Under Section 172, how long does one have to file a suit or prosecution in respect of acts done by a police officer under color of duty?
12. a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 1 year
    d) 2 years

Answer:
b) 6 months

Explanation:
Section 172 specifies that suits or prosecutions against police officers for acts done under the color of duty must be filed within 6 months from the date of the action complained of.

 

12. What must be included in a notice of an intended suit against a police officer under Section 173?
13. a) Detailed personal information of the officer
    b) A two-month notice and sufficient description of the wrong complained of
    c) Details of the police officer’s duties
    d) Witness statements

Answer:
b) A two-month notice and sufficient description of the wrong complained of

Explanation:
Section 173(1) requires a person intending to sue a police officer to give a two-month notice with a sufficient description of the wrong being complained of.

 

13. What is specified in any license or written permission granted under this Order according to Section 174?
14. a) Only the signature of the police officer
    b) Period, locality, conditions, and restrictions
    c) Only the name of the licensee
    d) Duration of the investigation

Answer:
b) Period, locality, conditions, and restrictions

Explanation:
Section 174 requires that any license or written permission issued under this Order specifies the period, locality, conditions, and restrictions associated with it.

 

14. When can a license or permission be revoked under Section 175?
15. a) Only after a court order
    b) When any of its conditions or restrictions are violated
    c) When the licensee applies for revocation
    d) When the license expires

Answer:
b) When any of its conditions or restrictions are violated

Explanation:
Section 175 allows the competent authority to revoke or suspend a license or written permission if its conditions or restrictions are violated or if the holder is convicted of an offence related to the license or permission.

 

15. What is required for a public notice to be valid under Section 178?
16. a) The signature of the Police Officer
    b) Publication in the local newspapers
    c) The signature of a competent authority and publication in conspicuous places or by other means
    d) A court order

Answer:
c) The signature of a competent authority and publication in conspicuous places or by other means

Explanation:
Section 178 specifies that public notices must be signed by a competent authority and published in a manner deemed appropriate, such as posting in public places or through other media. 

Police Ranks

1. Which of the following ranks is the highest in the Police?
   A) Deputy Inspector General
   B) Additional Inspector General
   C) Inspector-General
   D) Superintendent

Answer: C) Inspector-General
Explanation: The highest rank in the Police hierarchy is the Inspector-General. This officer heads the entire provincial police force.

 

2. What is the rank immediately below the Inspector-General in the Police?
   A) Superintendent
   B) Additional Inspector General
   C) Deputy Inspector General
   D) Assistant Superintendent

Answer: B) Additional Inspector General
Explanation: The Additional Inspector General is the rank just below the Inspector-General and is a senior officer in the police force.

 

3. Which rank is directly above the Head Constable in the Police?
   A) Sub-Inspector
   B) Assistant Sub-Inspector
   C) Constable
   D) Inspector

Answer: B) Assistant Sub-Inspector
Explanation: The Assistant Sub-Inspector is the rank immediately above the Head Constable.

 

4. Who holds the responsibility of leading a police district at the highest rank?
   A) Deputy Superintendent
   B) Assistant Superintendent
   C) Superintendent
   D) Assistant Inspector General

Answer: C) Superintendent
Explanation: The Superintendent is responsible for leading a district-level police force, overseeing its functioning and operations.

 

5. In the Police, which rank is responsible for managing a police station or area?
   A) Deputy Inspector General
   B) Head Constable
   C) Inspector
   D) Assistant Superintendent

Answer: C) Inspector
Explanation: An Inspector is responsible for managing the police station or a specific area, including overseeing operations and investigations.

 

6. What is the rank immediately below the Deputy Inspector General in the Police?
   A) Assistant Superintendent
   B) Deputy Superintendent
   C) Inspector
   D) Senior Superintendent

Answer: B) Deputy Superintendent
Explanation: The Deputy Superintendent is a lower rank compared to the Deputy Inspector General and oversees police officers at a sub-district level.

 

7. Which rank in the Police is responsible for the highest-level supervision of a police force at the district level?
   A) Assistant Superintendent
   B) Senior Superintendent
   C) Assistant Inspector General
   D) Deputy Superintendent

Answer: B) Senior Superintendent
Explanation: The Senior Superintendent holds the highest supervisory rank within the district-level police force, providing leadership and management.

 

8. Which rank is directly above the Constable in the Police hierarchy?
   A) Assistant Sub-Inspector
   B) Head Constable
   C) Sub-Inspector
   D) Inspector

Answer: B) Head Constable
Explanation: A Head Constable is the rank immediately above a Constable, and typically has more responsibilities and authority.

 

9. Which of the following ranks is directly responsible for the management of a police station’s operation and administration in a specific area?
   A) Sub-Inspector
   B) Assistant Superintendent
   C) Deputy Superintendent
   D) Superintendent

Answer: A) Sub-Inspector
Explanation: The Sub-Inspector is the officer in charge of day-to-day operations at a police station or area, below the rank of Inspector.

 

10. What is the rank immediately above the Assistant Sub-Inspector in the Police?
    A) Head Constable
    B) Sub-Inspector
    C) Constable
    D) Assistant Superintendent

Answer: B) Sub-Inspector
Explanation: The Sub-Inspector rank comes immediately after the Assistant Sub-Inspector, and it carries higher responsibilities, often involving leadership of teams and investigation units.