Curriculum Teacher (CT) & Primary School Teacher (PST) Updates

Curriculum Teacher (CT) & Primary School Teacher (PST) Updates

English Class 4th (KPK)

Unit-1

Great Caliphs of Islam 

1. No.4 Read the given words with their meanings. 

Words	معنی	Meanings
Affection	محبت	A person’s feelings of love
Distinguish	فرق کرنا	To recognize the difference
Generous	سخی	Open-handed
Treaties	معاہدے	A formal agreement between two or more countries

MCQs

1: How many syllables in very? 

4

3

2

1

2: Choose the word with 2 syllables. 

feet 

bed 

arms 

freedom 

3: Choose the word with 1 syllable. 

reader 

freshly 

writing 

fail 

4: Divide ‘frail’ into syllables. 

fr-ail 

frail

frai-l

fra-il 

5: Divide ‘hour’ into syllables. 

hour

h-our

ho-ur

hou-r

6: How many syllables in bought? 

4

3

2

1

7: Choose the word with 3 syllables. 

reading 

freezer 

syllable 

none of these 

8: Choose the word with 2 syllables. 

skinned 

future 

sleep 

none of these 

9: How many syllables in every? 

1

3

2

4

10: Divide ‘eating’ into syllables.

eat-ing

ea-ting 

e-ating 

none of these 

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. They usually spend their holidays in …….. mountains.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
2. Islamabad has …….. ideal climate.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
3. This is …….. best Binoria restaurant in the country.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
4. I can’t live on …….. 5000 rupees a month.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
5. Someone call …….. police!
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
6. He is …….. real Pakistani hero.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
7. I don’t like …….. dogs, but I like my brother’s dog.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
8. Shahid Khan Afridi is …….. cricket player.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
9. I haven’t seen him in …….. five years.
   a) a
   b) an
   c) the
   d) no article
10. He is …….. clever boy.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
11. …….. old man gave me an apple.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
12. …….. color of her hair is black.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
13. She is …….. honorable lady.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
14. The Holy Quran is …….. book of Allah.
    a) a
    b) an
    c) the
    d) no article
15. Faisalabad is an example of …….. noun.
    a) Common
    b) Proper
    c) Abstract
    d) Concrete
16. November is …….. noun.
    a) Common
    b) Concrete
    c) Abstract
    d) Proper
17. Train is …….. noun.
    a) Common
    b) Proper
    c) Abstract
    d) Concrete
18. Car is …….. noun.
    a) Abstract
    b) Proper
    c) Common
    d) Concrete
19. Toyota is an example of …….. noun.
    a) Abstract
    b) Proper
    c) Common
    d) Concrete
20. Government is an example of a/an …….. noun.
    a) Abstract
    b) Proper
    c) Common
    d) Concrete
21. The man had a lot of pride in his work.
    a) Common
    b) Proper
    c) Abstract
    d) Concrete
22. I respect the honesty of my friend.
    a) Proper N
    b) Countable N
    c) Compound N
    d) Abstract N
23. Can you believe that girl’s intelligence?
    a) Abstract N
    b) Countable N
    c) Compound N
    d) Proper N
24. To my delight, everyone arrived on time.
    a) Collective N
    b) Concrete N
    c) Proper N
    d) Abstract N
25. The man had a lot of hope for the future.
    a) Common N
    b) Proper N
    c) Abstract N
    d) Concrete N
26. Tea and honey is an example of ……..
    a) Countable N
    b) Uncountable N
    c) Both a and b
    d) None of these
27. Banana and egg is an example of ……..
    a) Uncountable N
    b) Countable N
    c) Both a and b
    d) None of these
28. I checked all the primary classrooms, no one was there. (Which word is a compound noun?)

1. a) Checked
   b) Classrooms
   c) Primary
   d) was
2. Sugar and juice is an example of 
3. Common N
4. Proper
5. Uncountable N
6. Countable N

Question No.	Answer	Question No.	Answer
1	a	16	d
2	b	17	a
3	b	18	c
4	c	19	b
5	b	20	a
6	d	21	d
7	c	22	a
8	a	23	b
9	d	24	a
10	c	25	d
11	d	26	c
12	a	27	b
13	b	28	c
14	d	29	c
15	c	–	–

1. How many syllables in very?
   a) 2
   b) 3
2. Choose the word with 2 syllables
   a) feet
   b) arms
   c) reader
   d) freedom
3. Choose the word with 1 syllable.
   a) reader
   b) writing
   c) fresh
   d) fail
4. Divide frail into syllables.
   a) fra-il
   b) frail
5. Divide hour into syllables.
   a) hour
   b) ho-ur
6. How many syllables in tougher?
   a) 4
   b) 3
   c) 2
   d) 1
7. Choose the word with 3 syllables.
   a) candle
   b) freezer
   c) syllable
   d) none of these
8. Choose the word with 2 syllables.
   a) skinned
   b) future
   c) sleep
   d) none of these
9. How many syllables in even?
   a) 1
   b) 3
   c) 2
   d) 4
10. Divide eating into syllables.
    a) eating
    b) ea-ting
    c) e-ating
    d) none of these

Answer Keys
1 – e
2 – d
3 – c
4 – b
5 – a
6 – b
7 – c
8 – b
9 – c
10 – a

Unit-2

Beauty of Nature 

MCQs

Read the lesson again and fill in the blanks with the correct options 

1: ………………. Wrote the poem “Caterpillar” 

Mary Oliver 

Maya Angelou 

Christina Rossetti 

Sylvia Plath 

2: A caterpillar is an/a ……………. 

animal 

insect 

bird 

plant 

3: The caterpillar is walking to the ……………….

garden 

floor 

tree 

shady leaf 

4: At the end, the caterpillar becomes a ……………….

toad 

butterfly 

frog 

sparrow 

Q.2. Read the given words with their meanings. 

Words	معنی	Meanings
Furry	فررکھنے والا	Covered with fur
Stalk	تنا	The main stem of a plant
Hover	ہوا میں کھڑا ہونا	To stay in the air in one place
Toad	مینڈک	A small animal like a frog but with drier and less smooth skin
Spy	جاسوسی کرنا	To observe silently

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. A group of flowers is called
   a) bouquet
   b) bunch
   c) none of these

1. d) a and b

1. We have a new ___ of books.
   a) heard
   b) collection

1. c) pair
2. d) none of these

1. Do you have a deck of ___?
   a) cards
   b) toys

1. c) string
   d) all of these

1. I want to hear the new music ___.
   a) string
   b) sound

1. c) group
   d) none of these

1. A ___ of birds.
   a) group
   b) army
   c) all of these
   d) none of these
2. I have a collection of ___.
   a) coins
   b) shoes
   c) rupees
   d) books
3. A herd of ___.
   a) buffaloes
   b) heard
4. A ___ of locusts ate all of the crops.
   a) troop
   b) bunch
   c) bevy
   d) none of these
5. All night we could hear the ___ of wolves howling.
   a) troop
   b) pack
   c) pride
   d) pod
6. The ___ of whales swimming.
   a) pod
   b) class
   c) fleet
   d) drove
7. The ___ of lions slept all day on the African plains.
   a) class

1. b) fleet
2. c) drove
3. d) pride

Answer Keys

1 – a
2 – b
3 – a
4 – c
5 – a
6 – d
7 – a
8 – c

9 – b

10 – c

11 – d

Unit-3

The Journey of Chocolate 

MCQs

Q.1. Fill in the blanks with the c

1. Historian say chocolate has been famous for almost
2. a) 100 b) 1000
3. c) 50 d) 2000

2. Chocolate comes from ……………… trees in its raw form.
3. a) grapes b) banana
4. c) mango d) cocoa

3. Chocolate came to Spain in the …………..
4. a) 1300s b) 1200s
5. c) 1500s d) 1400s

4. Chocolates are a good source of
5. a) vitamins b) carbohydrates
6. c) calcium d) protein

Q.2. Read the given words with their meanings. 

Words	معنی	Meanings
Contain	مشتمل ہونا	Hold (someone or something)
Reddish	سرخی مائل	Slightly red
Pod	ڈوڈا	Seed shell
Heap	ڈھیر	Bundle
Solid	ٹھوس	Hard

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. I saw many __________ on the tree.
   a) bird
   b) Birds
   c) birdes
   d) deers
2. How many ______ are there in a week?
   a) Day
   b) Daies
   c) Days
   d) None of these
3. I went to the zoo to feed the __________.
   a) monkey
   b) monkies
   c) monkeys
   d) None of these
4. My brother has many __________ in debate competitions.
   a) prize
   b) prizies
   c) many prize
   d) prizes
5. There were a lot of __________ in the lab.
   a) computer
   b) computers
   c) None of these
6. The __________ showed that we were late for school.
   a) clocks
   b) clockes
   c) clock
   d) None of these
7. There are four __________ on earth.
   a) ocean
   b) oceans
   c) oceanes
   d) None of these
8. The __________ were sitting in the shade because it was hot.
   a) animals
   b) animales
   c) animale
9. There are three __________ on the plate.
   a) apple
   b) apples
   c) apples
   d) None of these
10. Would you like these __________?
    a) orange
    b) orange
    c) oranges
    d) None of these
11. How much __________ is there in the bottle?
    a) bread
    b) pencil
    c) waters
    d) None of these
12. There are many __________ in this salad.
    a) tomatoes
    b) tomato
    c) tea
    d) None of these
13. How much __________ would you like?
    a) sugars
    b) sugar
    c) None of these
14. How many __________ would you like?
    a) tea
    b) banana
    c) bananas
    d) cock
15. All her __________ are beautiful.
    a) shoe
    b) cap
    c) dress
    d) dresses
16. This __________ isn’t sweet.
    a) biscuit
    b) biscuits
    c) biscuit’s
    d) None of these

1. There is some __________ on the table.
   a) bread
   b) breads
   c) breades
   d) None of these
2. Put some __________ in your soap.
   a) salts
   b) saltes
   c) salt
   d) All
3. My grandmother has four __________.
   a) childrens
   b) children
   c) childs
4. Tigers have sharp __________.
   a) teeths
   b) tooth
   c) teeth
   d) teethes
5. Cats like to catch __________.
   a) mice
   b) mices
   c) mouses
   d) None of these
6. Three __________ are waiting in line.
   a) woman
   b) women
   c) womans
   d) womens
7. The __________ are on television.
   a) men
   b) mans
   c) man
   d) None of these
8. The farmer has __________.
   a) sheeps
   b) sheepes
   c) sheep
   d) None of these

Answer Keys

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
b	c	a	d	b	c	b	a	b	c	d	a
13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20	21	22	23	24
b	c	d	a	b	c	b	c	a	b	a	c

Unit-4

The Pride of Pakistan 

MCQs

1. Kashif brought his ……………….. along with him. 
2. a) camera
3. b) diary
4. c) lunch
5. d) storybook

2. The Nishan-e-Haider is the highest …………. In Pakistan. 
3. a) performance award 
4. b) military award
5. c) civil award
6. d) academic award

3. On entering the museum, the children saw………… ٰIndian tanks. 
4. a) two
5. b) three
6. c) four
7. d) five 

4. There are ………… great soldiers from the armed forces who received the Nishan-e Haider.
5. a) ten
6. b) eleven
7. c) twelve
8. d) thirteen

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. The Empire State Building is one of ______ (tall) buildings in the USA.
   a) Most tall
   b) Taller than
   c) the tallest
   d) the most tall
2. The weather in Portugal is a lot ______ (good) than the weather in England.
   a) Better than
   b) the best
   c) Gooder than
   d) Better than
3. I have got ______ (nice) family I know.
   a) the nicest than
   b) Nicer than
   c) the most nice
   d) the nicest
4. England is much ______ (big) Wales and has more inhabitants too.
   a) bigger than
   b) More big than
   c) the biggest
   d) bigger than
5. This film is awful. In fact, it’s ______ (bad) film I’ve ever seen.
   a) The baddest
   b) the worst
   c) the worse
   d) Worse than
6. The British weather is ______ (bad) the Portuguese weather.
   a) Worse than
   b) The worst
   c) Better than
   d) The best
7. She is ______ than her sister.
   a) pretty
   b) prettier
   c) prettiest
   d) most pretty
8. Alisha is a ______ girl.
   a) nice
   b) nicer
   c) nicest
   d) more nice
9. Asad speaks English ______.
   a) well
   b) better
   c) best
   d) most better
10. Russia is the ______ country in the world.
    a) big
    b) bigger
    c) biggest
    d) Extra big
11. China is ______ than India.
    a) big
    b) bigger
    c) biggest
    d) Most bigger
12. A ______ student.
    a) smart
    b) smarter
    c) smartest
    d) smartest
13. Take the ______ of the two routes.
    a) short
    b) shorter
    c) shortest
    d) shortest
14. What is the positive of inner?
    a) in
    b) inmost
    c) innermost
    d) most in
15. Which of the following words’ comparative degree is formed by simply adding the word more before the adjective itself?
    a) small
    b) nice
    c) heavy
    d) difficult
16. Kathy is probably ______ (intelligent) student in our class.
    a) the most intelligent
    b) More intelligent
    c) the intelligentest
17. This room is ______ (comfortable) one in the hotel.
    a) the most comfortable
    b) more comfortable
    c) Most comfortable
18. Our neighborhood is ______ (Peaceful) Los Angeles.
    a) The most peaceful
    b) more peaceful than
    c) more peaceful

Answer Keys

1	2	3		4	5		6	7	8		9	10		11		12
c	d	d		a	b		a	b	a		c	b		b		b
13			14			15				16			17		18
d			a			d				a			a		b

Unit-5

Thank you, Lord 

MCQs

1. Thank you. Lord’ is a poem by ……………….
2. a) Sylvia Plath
3. b) Mary Fairchild 
4. c) Mary Oliver
5. d) Christina Rossetti 

2. The poet is talking to …………….
3. a) God

b)a friend

1. c) a sister 
2. d) a brother 

3. The poet starts her day in the/at …………..
4. a) evening
5. b) afternoon
6. c) morning 
7. d) night 

4. The poet will help her
5. a) sisters
6. b) parents
7. c) a sister
8. d) friends 

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. The ______ of a snow-clad mountain is exciting.
   a) site
   b) cite
   c) sight
   d) none
2. I ______ him very well.
   a) row
   b) know
   c) no
   d) none
3. The ______ is here.
   a) Hera
   b) hare
   c) hair
   d) here
4. Raman was ______ by the English king.
   a) knighted
   b) nighted
   c) kingreted
   d) none
5. The ______ is the east.
   a) sun
   b) son
   c) sin
   d) soon
6. The child is ______ young to go to school alone.
   a) to
   b) too
   c) two
   d) none
7. Please remove the ______.
   a) rid
   b) reed
   c) read
   d) redo
8. A dice is ______.
   a) dye
   b) died
   c) die
   d) dyes
9. The cattle are ______ on the meadow.
   a) grading
   b) grazing
   c) grazeing
   d) none
10. Avoid ______ meat.
    a) eating
    b) grazing
    c) healthy
    d) mine
11. The feet of the cats are sharp ______.
    a) paws
    b) pauses
    c) pause
    d) None

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11
c	b	a	a	a	b	b	c	b	a	a

Unit-6

Valuing Others 

1. Find the compound noun which can be formed from two of these four words. Back, Front, Draw, and Pull.
   a) Pulldraw
   b) Dawnpull
   c) Drawback
   d) Pullfront
2. Find the compound noun which can be formed from two of these four words. Head, Red, Blue, and Greed.
   a) Bluegreed
   b) Redhead
   c) Greedhead
   d) Redgreed
3. Find the compound noun, which can be formed from two of these four words. Out, Cart, Side, and Put.
   a) Partworld
   b) Partunder
   c) Underworld
   d) Viewunder
4. Find the compound word the dinner bell rang loudly at 6 p.m.
   a) Loudly
   b) Dinner bell
   c) Bell rang
   d) At 6 p.m.
5. What kind of compound word is in this sentence?
   The dinner bell rang loudly at 6 p.m.
   a) Open
   b) Closed
   c) Hyphenated
   d) None of these
6. Find the compound word. The railroad put in a new sign by the tracks.
   a) Sign
   b) Tracks
   c) Railroad
   d) New sign by the tracks
7. What is the compound word?
   My favorite dessert is mint ice cream!
   a) Favorite
   b) Dessert
   c) Mint
   d) Ice cream
8. What kind of compound word is in this sentence?
   My favorite dessert is mint ice cream!
   a) Open
   b) Closed
   c) Hyphenated
   d) None of these
9. What is the compound word?
   My brother-in-law is a very good cook.
   a) Brother-in-law
   b) Very
   c) Very good
   d) Good cook
10. Which of these answers show closed compound words?
    a) Dining room, coffee mug
    b) Ponytail, thunderbolt
    c) Mother-in-law, part-time
    d) None of these
11. How many compound words are in the following sentence?
    The butterfly fluttered across back yards pulling pollen from many sunflowers.
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
12. How many compound words are in the following sentence?
    The waiter bought hot chocolate and French toast to our table.
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
13. How many compound words are in the following sentence?
    The cupcake was decorated with sprinkles and pretty frosting.
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
14. How many compound words are in the following sentence?
    Lynn dropped the tennis racket on the dining room table before heating some macaroni and cheese and getting some chocolate milk.
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4
15. What kind of compound word is in this sentence?
    Mickey is such a sweetheart.
    a) Open
    b) Closed
    c) Hyphenated
    d) None of these

1. What kind of compound word is in this sentence?
   The part-time mechanic loved to work on foreign cars.
   a) Open
   b) Closed
   c) Hyphenated
   d) All of these
2. What kinds of compound words are in the following sentence?
   The commander-in-chief issued an order to staff the fireboats.
   a) Open and closed compounds
   b) Open compounds only
   c) Hyphenated and open compounds
   d) Hyphenated and closed compounds
3. What kinds of compound words are in the following sentence?
   The snowbank was built snowflake by snowflake all winter long.
   a) Open and closed compounds
   b) Closed compounds only
   c) Hyphenated and open compounds
   d) Open and closed compounds
4. Which word is compound?
   a) Dog ran
   b) Backyard
   c) Of the
   d) None of these
5. Which word is a compound in the sentence?
   I love to watch my brother play football on Friday nights.
   a) Brother
   b) Nights
   c) Football
   d) To watch

Answer Keys

1  –  c	2  –  b	3  –  a	4  –  d	5  –  b	6  –  d	7  –  c	8  –  b
9  –  a	10 –  b	11 –  d	12 –  b	13 –  a	14 –  d	15 –  c	16 –  c
17 –  d	18 –  b	19 –  b	20 –  c

Unit-7

Colours of Pakistan 

MCQs

1. Shinas and Burusho cultures exist in _______. 
2. a) Sindh
3. b) Gilgit-Baltistan 
4. c) Punjab
5. d) Kashmir 

2. Ajrak is a part of _______ culture. 
3. a) Sindhi
4. b) Punjabi
5. c) Kashmiri
6. d) Balochi

3. Poetry and storytelling are very popular among the _________.
4. a) Punjabi
5. b) Pakhtun
6. c) Baloch
7. d) Sindh 

4. The spring festival is celebrated in Punjab in the mid of ______.
5. a) February
6. b) April
7. c) June
8. d) August

5. The ________ festival is celebrated every year in Shandur.
6. a) Spring
7. b) Polo
8. c) Jashan-e-Larkana 
9. d) Jashan-e-Baharan

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. Shinas and Burusho cultures exist in…
   a) Sindh
   b) Gilgit-Baltistan
   c) Punjab
2. Ajrak is a part of…
   a) Sindhi
   b) Punjabi
   c) Kashmiri
3. Poem and storytelling are very popular among the…
   a) Punjabi
   b) Baloch
   c) Sindhi
4. The spring festival is celebrated in Punjab in the mid of…
   a) February
   b) June
   c) August
5. …… festival is celebrated every year in Shandur.
   a) Spring
   b) Jashne-Larkana
   c) Jashn-e-Babusar

Answer Keys:

1 – b | 2 – a | 3 – c | 4 – a | 5 – b

Unit-8 

Good Study Habits 

MCQs

1. Miss Hina asked students to make a _______. 
2. a) card
3. b) model
4. c) poster
5. d) booklet 

2. The poster was displayed in the _______.
3. a) bedroom b) classroom c) drawing room

3. Good study habits can help us to become ______ students. 
4. a) bad
5. b) average
6. c) poor
7. d) better 

4. We should make a ______ for studying. 
5. a) timetable 
6. b) chart
7. c) card
8. d) poster 

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. … often reads the Holy Quran. (Marwa)
   a) He
   b) She
   c) They
   d) It
2. … is watching TV. (Aslam)
   a) He
   b) She
   c) They
   d) It
3. … is green. (the hat)
   a) He
   b) She
   c) They
   d) It
4. … is running. (the cat)
   a) She
   b) Its
   c) It
   d) He
5. Ali and Asad took their bike with …
   a) they
   b) them
   c) their
   d) us
6. Please don’t jiggle the book while I’m trying to read …
   a) us
   b) it
   c) them
   d) her
7. … were busy getting ready for Nimra’s party.
   a) we
   b) they
   c) both a and b
8. … can come to the movies with us.
   a) It
   b) they
   c) you
   d) b and c
9. Imran and … are going to shopping.
   a) me
   b) I
   c) they
   d) she
10. The teacher wants … to follow her.
    a) we
    b) us
    c) they
    d) he
11. … wanted to go skiing over the winter break.
    a) I
    b) we
    c) a and b
    d) us

1. Which is the possessive pronoun in the sentence? “We are yours obediently.”
   a) we
   b) yours
   c) are
   d) obediently
2. Which is the reflexive pronoun in the sentence? “How can I prove myself innocent?”
   a) myself
   b) I
   c) how
   d) innocent
3. Does she keep … money in an HBL bank?
   a) you’re
   b) him
   c) they’re
   d) her

1. I need to get … skates sharpened.
   a) my
   b) mine
2. I found a purple hat in the snow. Is it … ?
   a) yours
   b) them
   c) your’s
   d) theirs
3. That tree has lost almost all of … leaves.
   a) its
   b) their
   c) its’
4. I found this ball near the neighbor’s fence. Do you think it’s … ?
   a) there’s
   b) their’s
   c) theirs
   d) them
5. Can you come to … house this afternoon?
   a) hour
   b) our’s
   c) our
   d) ours
6. That ball isn’t …
   a) her
   b) ours
   c) him
7. You are too short to get hold of that tree branch by …
   a) yourselves
   b) ourselves
   c) herself
   d) none of these
8. The dog bit …
   a) themselves
   b) itself
   c) myself
   d) none of these
9. She was in a hurry, so she washed the utensils …
   a) himself
   b) itself
   c) herself
   d) myself
10. Brain forgot to write his name on the test, but the teacher knew it was …
    a) him
    b) its
    c) his
    d) my
11. We don’t have to call a plumber, we can fix the tap …
    a) herself
    b) himself
    c) myself
    d) ourselves
12. Every night, I clean my face with soap and stare at … in the mirror.
    a) myself
    b) herself
    c) himself
    d) itself
13. That racing bike is in a class all by …
    a) themselves
    b) herself
    c) yourselves
    d) itself
14. My sister and I painted the front of our house …
    a) herself
    b) ourselves
    c) itself
    d) themselves
15. He wanted to make an impression on his friend, so he cooked the food …
    a) herself
    b) ourselves
    c) himself
    d) none of these

ANSWERS KEYS

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. c
8. d
9. b
10. b
11. c
12. b
13. a
14. d
15. a
16. a
17. c
18. c
19. c
20. d
21. a
22. b
23. c
24. c
25. d
26. a
27. d
28. b
29. c

Unit-9

Manners 

MCQs

1. The poet _______ wrote the poem ‘Whole Duty of Children’.
2. a) Robert Frost
3. b) William Wordsworth
4. c) Robert Louis Stevenson
5. d) John Keats

2. In the poem, the poet is talking about _______. 
3. a) meals
4. b) manners 
5. c) games
6. d) sports 

3. A child should always say what is _______. 
4. a) false
5. b) true
6. c) right
7. d) wrong 

4. A child should behave mannerly at the ______. 
5. a) sofa
6. b) bed
7. c) chair
8. d) table

ADDITIONAL MCQS

1. My brother… a bear an hour ago. (Simple past)
   a) Seen
   b) Saw
   c) Sees
2. I …… to the mall after school. (Simple past)
   a) Goed
   b) Gone
   c) Went
3. Sorry, I …… hear you at the door. (Simple past)
   a) Wasn’t
   b) Didn’t
   c) Am not
4. …… you finished your homework? (Present perfect)
   a) Have
   b) Has
   c) Is
5. We …… never eaten Mexican food.
   a) Have
   b) Has
   c) Are
6. …… the sun come up?
   a) Do
   b) Have
   c) Has
7. …… they coming over for dinner? (Present continuous tense)
   a) Is
   b) Are
   c) Am
8. My mother-in-law is …… at our house this week. (Present continuous)
   a) Stay
   b) Staying
   c) Be staying
9. My sister …… English. (Present continuous)
   a) Learn
   b) Is learning
   c) Learning
10. Why …… playing football tomorrow? (Present continuous)
    a) He not is
    b) He isn’t
    c) Isn’t he
11. They are …… a new shopping mall downtown. (Present continuous)
    a) Opening
    b) Opnning
    c) Oppening

Answer Keys:
1 – b | 2 – c | 3 – b | 4 – a | 5 – a | 6 – c | 7 – b | 8 – b | 9 – b | 10 – c | 11 – a

Unit-10

Be Aware, Be Safe 

ADDITIONAL MCQS

Unit-11

The Fox and the Stork 

MCQs

1. The stork could not eat
2. a) the meal 
3. b) lunch
4. c) vegetables 
5. d) fruits 

2. The fox was very
3. a) innocent 
4. b) cunning
5. c) beautiful 
6. d) ugly 

3. The fox served the meal in _______ dishes. 
4. a) narrow 
5. b) deep
6. c) flat 
7. d) round 

4. The fox and stork became _______. 
5. a) enemy
6. b) friends
7. c) cousins 
8. d) sisters 

ADDITIONAL MCQS

Unit-12

Time to Think!

MCQs

1. Ahsan took out a/an ________ from his bag.
2. a) English book 
3. b) brochure
4. c) poetry book
5. d) storybook 

2. The brochure was about ________ rules. 
3. a) special
4. b) scientific
5. c) religious 
6. d) traffic 

3. The traffic rules make us safe while ________. 
4. a) travelling
5. b) playing 
6. c) reading 
7. d) hiking 

4. Ahsan wrote a/an ________ to the head of the traffic police. 
5. a) invitation
6. b) essay 
7. c) application 
8. d) letter 

ADDITIONAL MCQS

Unit-13

Little Things 

MCQs

1. The poem ‘Little Things’ is written by _________. 
2. a) Evaleen Stein 
3. b) Ann Taylor 
4. c) Julia A. Carney 
5. d) Elizabeth Bishop

2. The poem highlights the importance of ________. 
3. a) big things 
4. b) bad things 
5. c) good things 
6. d) little things 

3. Little grains of sand make the pleasant _________. 
4. a) sea 
5. b) land 
6. c) lake 
7. d) river 

4. An ocean is made up of little drops of ________. 
5. a) water
6. b) juice
7. c) milk
8. d) rain

ADDITIONAL MCQS

English Class 5^th (KPK)

Unit-2

Be Grateful 

1. The poet sees Allah (سبحانہ وتعالیٰ) in the ________ at night.

i) moon

ii) sun

iii) stars

iv) clouds

2. The poet says that the flowers _______ in a queue.

i) dry up

ii) bloom

iii) wither

iv) fade

3. The poet wants _______.

i) father’s love

ii) mother’s love

iii) a friend’s love

iv) Allah’s (سبحانہ وتعالیٰ) love

4. Allah is always ___________ the poet when she cries or smiles.

i) away from

ii) near

iii) far from

iv) beyond

5. When the poet needs a lot of care, _______ is always there.

i) her mother

ii) her father

iii) Allah (سبحانہ وتعالیٰ)

iv) her brother

Unit-4

Unforgettable Moments of My Life 

MCQs

1. His grandparents’ farmhouse had ________ dense trees.

i) short

ii) green

iii) tall

iv) yellow

2. The writer’s family decided to visit __________.

i) Multan

ii) Kashmir

iii) Swat

iv) Hunza

3. The writer was shocked to see the condition of the ________.

i)  swing

ii)  farmhouse

iii) the Jhelum river

iv) zip lines

4. The writer decided to restore ________ of the farmhouse.

i) greenery

ii) electricity

iii) gas

iv) animals

5. The writer had ________ siblings.

i) five

ii) farmhouse

iii) two

iv) four

Unit-6

A Fit and Healthy Life 

MCQs

1. The schoo! invited a

i) carpenter

ii) judge

iii) lawyer

iv) doctor

2. The students were wearing _________ during the doctor’s visit.

i) gloves ii) masks

iii) karate suits

iv) colourful dresses

3. We should wash-our ________ with soap for twenty seconds. 

i) feet 

ii) head 

iii) face 

iv) hands 

4. Never take medicine on an empty _________. 

i) hand

ii) head

iii) mouth

iv) stomach 

5. ________ food keeps us strong and fit.

i) Junk

ii) Healthy

iii) Dirty 

iv) Unclean

Unit-7

What Goes Around, Comes Around 

MCQs

1. The frog lived in _________ for most of his life.

i) a stable

ii) a nest

iii) soil

iv) water

2. The frog tied the mouse’s foot to his own with a piece of _______. 

i) cloth 

ii) thread 

iii) rope

iv) string 

3. The poor _______ drowned and his body floated on the surface of the water. 

i) hawk

ii) hen

iii) mouse

iv) crow 

4. As you sow, so shall you ________. 

i) cook

ii) reap 

iii) eat

iv) enjoy 

5. The hawk had a good ________. 

i) lunch

ii) dinner 

iii) supper

iv) breakfast 

Unit-8

Do What’s Right 

a. Raffay was feeling

i) angry

ii) thirsty

iii) hungry

iv) sleepy

b. Mohsin dropped his ___________. 

i)  bag

ii) wallet

iii) book

iv) bottle

c. Raffay feels ______ for his behaviour.

i) angry

ii) happy

iii) sorry

iv) glad

d. Raffay thanked ________ for showing him the right path.

i)  Allah (سبحانہ وتعالیٰ)

ii) his teacher

iii) his mother

iv) his friend

Unit-9

Patriotism 

MCQs

1. _____________ cannot make people great and strong.

i) Money

ii) Gold

iii) Diamonds

iv) Silver

2. _____________  men work while other’s sleep.

i) Dull

ii) Coward

iii) Brave

iv) Weak

3. The men who dare while others

i) cook

ii) smile

iii) fly

iv) cry

4. Great men lift the nation to the _________.

i) park

ii) clouds

iii) sky

iv) rainbow

5. Only ________ can make a nation strong.

i) mountains

ii) animals

iii) men

iv) hills

Unit-10 

Eid-ul-Azha 

MCQs

1. Suleman saw some banner about a ____________.

i) clothes sale

ii) cattle sale

iii) food sale

iv) mobile sale

2. Suleman wanted to buy a _______ for Eid.

i) cow

ii) goat

iii) camel

iv) bull

3. They are going to buy their animal for sacrifice on _______.

i) Tuesday

ii) Sunday

iii) Monday

iv) Friday

4. Prophet _________ had a dram about sacrificing his son.

i) Sulyeman (علیہ السلام)

ii) Ibrahim (علیہ السلام)

iii) Ishaq (علیہ السلام)

iv) Ismail (علیہ السلام)

Unit-12

Let’s Be Helpful 

MCQs

1. Markhor is the national animal of

i) Iran

ii) Afghanistan

iii) Pakistan

iv) Bangladesh

2. There are _________ species of markhor found in Asia.

i) two

ii) three

iii) four

iv) five

3. Male markhor has nearly _____ inches long horns.

i) 60

ii) 61

iii) 62

iv) 63

4. Like other goats, markhors are ______ animals.

i) omnivorous

ii) herbivorous

iii) carnivorous

iv) hunter

Unit-13

When Something Went Wrong

MCQs

1. Hafsa was anxiously waiting for her

i) food

ii) storybooks

iii) dress

iv) flowers

2. ‘Doorbell’ is an example of a/an

i) compound

ii) abstract

iii) proper

iv) collective

3. Hafsa’s mother wrote a/an _______ letter to the company.

i) invitation

ii) complaint

iii) greetings

iv) thank you

4. Her _______ ordered storybooks for Hafsa.

i) father 

ii) mother

iii) friend

iv) cousin

Unit-13

Together We Live 

MCQs

1. The two little kittens fought during a ormy

i) night

ii) morning

iii) evening

iv) afternoon

2. The old woman swept the kittens with a _________.

i) stick

ii) broom

iii) hanger

iv) brush

3. The kittens became wet with

i) rain

ii) sweat

iii) water

iv) snow

4. One kitten had no _______ so they began to fight.

i) toy

ii) food

iii) mouse

iv) blanket

5. They found it much better to _______ by the fire.

i) sit

ii) stand

iii) lie

iv) fight

 

GENERAL SCIENCE CLASS-7

Unit-1

Plant System

Introduction: 

Plant Organ Systems. Vascular plants have two distinct organ systems: a shoot system, and a root systerr. The shoot system consists stems, leaves, and the reproductive parts of the plant (flowers and fruits). 

1) How many systems are present in plants? 

1. a) two 
2. b) three 
3. c) four 
4. d) many 

Explanation: 1. Root system and 2. Shoot system 

Root System: 

2) Why the whole plant does not blow away with the wind? This is due to…….. 

1. a) stem 
2. b) roots 
3. c) shoot 
4. d) leaves 

 

3) The root of the plant is spread in the……..and anchor it.

1. a) water 
2. b) soil 
3. c) air 
4. d) none 

 

4) Which of the following function/s is/are performed by the roots of plant? 

1. a) anchor the plant in soil 
2. b) absorb water
3. c) absorb minerals and salts 
4. d) all of these 

 

5) Which of the following process is used by plants to absorb water and minerals? 

1. a) sedimentation 
2. b) precipitation 
3. c) diffusion 
4. d) all of these 

Explanation: Diffusion is defined as the  movement of individual molecules of a substance through a semipermeable barrier from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower  concentration 

 

6) Which of the following is present on the epidermis of root?

1. a) leave 
2. b) pores 
3. c) hairs 
4. d) none of these 

 

7) Which of the following is/are included in vascular bundle? 

1. a) xylem 
2. b) phloem 
3. c) epidermis
4. d) both a and b 

 

8) Where the vascular bundles (xylem and phloem) are present in the root of the plant? 

1. a) on top 
2. b) in the center 
3. c) in the sides 
4. d) in the peripheral region 

 

9. Which of the following is present between epidermis and vascular bundles? 
10. a) pith 
11. b) xylem 
12. c) vascular bundles 
13. d) phloem 

Explanation: A vascular bundle is a part of the transport system in vascular plants. The transport itself happens in the stem, which exists in two forms: xylem and phloem. Both these tissues are present in a vascular bundle, which in addition will include supporting and protective tissues.

10) How types of roots are present in plants?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many
   Explanation: Taproots and 2. Fibrous roots

 

11) Which of the following roots have one main root called primary root?

1. a) taproots
   b) fibrous roots
   c) both
   d) none of them
   Explanation: Taproot, main root of a primary root system, growing vertically downward. Most dicotyledonous plants (see cotyledon), such as dandelions, produce taproots, and some, such as the edible roots of carrots and beets, are specialized for food storage.

 

12) Taproots are the main roots that grow…

1. a) upward
   b) downward
   c) sidewise
   d) everywhere

 

13) The branches of root which arise from the side of the main root is…

1. a) primary root
   b) secondary root
   c) tertiary root
   d) taproot

 

14) The branches of secondary roots are called…

1. a) primary root
   b) fibrous root
   c) tertiary root
   d) taproot

 

15) Which of the following plants have tap roots?

1. a) herbs
   b) shrubs
   c) trees
   d) all of these

 

16) Which of the following roots is thread-like structures that spread out from the base of a stem of a plant?

1. a) primary root
   b) secondary root
   c) fibrous root
   d) taproot
   Explanation: A fibrous root system is the opposite of a taproot system. It is usually formed by thin, moderately branching roots growing from the stem. A fibrous root system is universal in monocotyledonous plants and ferns. The fibrous root systems look like a mat made out of roots when the tree has reached full maturity.

 

17) Which of the following plants have fibrous roots?

1. a) wheat
   b) grasses
   c) Banyan
   d) both a and b

 

18) The roots that grow on the parts of plants above the ground are called…

1. a) primary roots
   b) aerial roots
   c) fibrous roots
   d) taproots
   Explanation: Aerial roots are roots above the ground. They are almost always adventitious. They are found in diverse plant species, including epiphytes such as orchids, tropical coastal swamp trees such as mangroves, banyan figs, the warm-temperate rainforest – rata, and pohutukawa trees of New Zealand.

 

19) Which of the following plant/s has/have aerial roots?

1. a) wheat
   b) grasses
   c) Banyan
   d) all shrubs

 

20) Which of the following parts of the Banyan tree helps it in spreading over a wide region?

1. a) main roots
   b) aerial roots
   c) stem
   d) leaves

 

Shoot System:

Shoot system is an aerial and erect part of the plant body which grows upwards. It is usually above the soil and develops from the plumule of the embryo. It consists of stem, branches, leaves, flowers, fruits, and seeds.

21) Which of the following is/are included in the shoot system of a plant?

1. a) stem
   b) leaves
   c) fruit and flowers
   d) all of these

 

22) Which part of the plant gives support to the plant?

1. a) leaves
   b) stem
   c) roots
   d) fruit and flowers

23) Which of the following part of the plant helps in exchanging gases between the aerial parts of the plant?

1. a) roots
   b) leaves
   c) fruit and flowers
   d) stem

24) How many types of stems are found in plants?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many
   Explanation: Herbaceous stem and 2. Woody stem

25) Which of the following stems is herbaceous?

1. a) green stem
   b) flexible stem
   c) strong stem
   d) both a and b

26) Which of the following stems are herbaceous stems?

1. a) grass and aerials
   b) trees and shrubs
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

27) Which of the following stems have the woody stem?

1. a) spread strong stem
   b) flexible stem
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

28) Which of the following has/have the woody stems?

1. a) grass and aerials
   b) trees and shrubs
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

29) Among the vascular bundle, the strong and gives support to the plant?

1. a) inside the pith
   b) beneath the epidermis
   c) above the epidermis
   d) none of these

30) Which of the following is present in the center side of the leaf base and may resemble scales?

1. a) vascular bundles
   b) epidermis
   c) pith
   d) all of these

31) Which of the following is/are included in vascular bundles?

1. a) pith
   b) epidermis
   c) vascular bundles & both a and b
   d) none of these

32) Which of the following performs the storage function?

1. a) plants
   b) epidermis
   c) vascular bundles
   d) none of these

33) Which of the following is/are desert plants?

1. a) wheat
   b) mango
   c) cacti
   d) banyan
   Explanation: Cactus (plural: cacti, cactuses, or less commonly cactus) is a member of the plant family Cactaceae, a family comprising about 127 genera with some 1750 known species of the order Caryophyllales.

34) Which of the following store water in their thick stems which are green and perform photosynthesis?

1. a) wheat
   b) mangrove
   c) cacti
   d) banyan

35) Where is the largest Banyan tree in Pakistan?

1. a) Morial
   b) Quetta
   c) Thatta
   d) Karachi

36) Banyan tree is covered by which largest area?

1. a) Thatta in Sindh, Pakistan
   b) Karachi
   c) 3 acres
   d) 5 acres

37) Leaf consists of…

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

38) The flat green portion of the leaf is called…

1. a) leaf stalk
   b) midrib
   c) leaf blade
   d) veins

39) Which of the following structure/s is/are found in the leaf blade?

1. a) leaf stalk
   b) midrib
   c) veins
   d) both b and c

40) Which of the following is/are an extension of the leaf stalk?

1. a) xylem
   b) midrib
   c) leaf blade
   d) veins

41) Which of the following gives support to the leaf?

1. a) leaf blade
   b) midrib
   c) veins
   d) both b and c

42) Which of the following transports substances to and from the leaves?

1. a) leaf stalk
   b) midrib
   c) vascular bundles
   d) leaf blade

43) The process of photosynthesis is responsible for the preparation of glucose (food) for plants. Which of the following parts perform it?

1. a) roots
   b) stem
   c) leaves
   d) vascular bundles

44) The process of photosynthesis takes in……… of the leaves.

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) all of these
   Explanation: Mesophylls are the internal ground tissue present in leaves. There are two types of mesophyll cells in the leaves, namely palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll. Mesophyll cells are provided with a large number of chloroplasts.

45) Which of the following is the outermost layer of the leaf?

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) none of these

46) Which of the following parts of the leaf is waterproof and present over the epidermis of the leaf?

1. a) cuticle
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) phloem

47) Where are the small pores (stomata) present in the leaf?

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) leaf stalk

48) Gaseous exchange in plants takes place through which of the following parts of the leaf?

1. a) stomata
   b) xylem
   c) phloem
   d) mesophyll

49) Pair of guard cells surrounds…

1. a) pith
   b) each stoma
   c) phloem
   d) mesophyll

50) Which of the following is/are responsible for the closing and opening of stomata?

1. a) stomata
   b) xylem
   c) guard cells
   d) mesophyll

51) When do the stomata open?

1. a) during the night time
   b) during the daytime
   c) during day and night
   d) during dawn and dusk time

52) When are the stomata of the leaves closed?

1. a) during the night time
   b) during the daytime
   c) during day and night
   d) during dawn and dusk time

Transport:

Plants have two transport systems – xylem and phloem. Xylem transports water and minerals. Phloem transports sugars and amino acids dissolved in water.

 

53) Transportation is the movement of ______ from one place to another.

1. a) food
   b) minerals
   c) water
   d) all of these

54) Which of the following parts of the plant are responsible for the transport of materials?

1. a) roots
   b) xylem
   c) phloem
   d) both b and c

55) Xylem and phloem are collectively known as ______.

1. a) vascular bundles
   b) mesophyll
   c) epidermis
   d) dissolved minerals

56) What do xylem tissues transport?

1. a) food
   b) water
   c) water and dissolved minerals
   d) none of these

57) The food moves to leaves through ______.

1. a) xylem
   b) phloem
   c) vascular bundles
   d) both a and b

58) Which of the following has thick walls and supports the plant?

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) phloem
   d) mesophyll

59) Which of the following is dead tissue?

1. a) epidermis
   b) phloem
   c) mesophyll
   d) xylem

60) Which of the following is transported by the phloem?

1. a) water
   b) dissolved minerals
   c) food
   d) both a and b

61) The food prepared in leaves is transported by ______.

1. a) phloem
   b) xylem
   c) stem
   d) root

62) What is the direction of sugar solution in the phloem?

1. a) upward
   b) downward
   c) both up and down
   d) none of these

63) The loss of water from the stomata in the leaf is called ______.

1. a) sublimation
   b) respiration
   c) evaporation
   d) transpiration

64) As the water evaporates from the leaves, more water is pulled up through it by ______.

1. a) xylem
   b) mesophyll
   c) guard cells
   d) epidermis

65) Which of the following is the major force to pull the water from the roots?

1. a) evaporation
   b) transpiration pull
   c) respiration
   d) photosynthesis

66) What will happen to the plant when water loss is more than water intake?

1. a) the plant will grow better
   b) the plant will remain fresh
   c) the plant will wilt
   d) none of these

Explanation:

Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves, stems, and flowers. Water is necessary for plants, but only a small amount of water taken up by the roots is used for growth and metabolism. The remaining 97-99% is lost by transpiration. The non-woody parts of plants wilt when the turgor pressure in the cells falls towards zero as a result of diminished water availability.

 

Water in the cells. Wilting also serves to reduce water loss, as it makes the leaves expose less surface area.

68) When does the wilting of plants occur?

1. a) on hot day
   b) on dry day
   c) on sunny day
   d) all of these

69) Which of the following affects the rate of transpiration?

1. a) light intensity
   b) temperature
   c) humidity and wind
   d) all of these

70) Which of the following affects the rate of transpiration?

1. a) water supply
   b) height of plant
   c) amount of oxygen
   d) all of these

71) Which of the following is/are used to check transpiration from leaves?

1. a) litmus paper
   b) pH paper
   c) cobalt chloride paper
   d) all of these

Photosynthesis:

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create oxygen and energy in the form of sugar.

6CO2+6H2O→sunlightC6H12O6+6O26CO_2 + 6H_2O \xrightarrow{\text{sunlight}} C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 

72) Why are leaves and some other parts of plants green?

1. a) they have cell walls
   b) they have chlorophyll
   c) they have green cytoplasm
   d) they have plasma membrane

73) Which of the following absorbs sunlight?

1. a) protein
   b) fats
   c) chlorophyll
   d) vitamin A

74) Where is chlorophyll present in the plant cell?

1. a) mitochondria
   b) chloroplast
   c) ribosomes
   d) nucleus

75) Which of the following energy is/are used by plants to prepare food?

1. a) light
   b) heat
   c) chemical energy
   d) all of these

76) Which of the following gases is used during photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) methane

77) Which of the following gases is produced during photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) methane

78) Which of the following is a byproduct of photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) methane

79) Which of the following structures is used by plants to get carbon dioxide?

1. a) xylem
   b) phloem
   c) cuticle
   d) stomata

80) Which of the following structures is used by plants to get water for photosynthesis?

1. a) xylem
   b) phloem
   c) cuticle
   d) stomata

81) Which of the following is/are produced during photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) glucose
   d) both a and c

82) Which of the following is/are used during photosynthesis?

1. a) water
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) glucose
   d) both a and b

83) What happens to oxygen produced during photosynthesis?

1. a) some is used in respiration by the plant itself
   b) extra oxygen moves out through stomata
   c) some oxygen is stored in fruit and seeds
   d) both a and b

84) All forms of life depend on the process of photosynthesis for ______.

1. a) oxygen
   b) food
   c) shelter
   d) both a and b

85) Which of the following processes is the only source of oxygen on planet Earth?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

 

Leaves As Best Photosynthesis Sites

Cells in the mesophyll of the leaf have numerous chloroplasts. In leaves, cells in the mesophyll (the tissue between the upper and lower epidermis) are uniquely suited to carry out photosynthesis on a large scale. This is due to their high concentration of chloroplasts, which are the sites of photosynthesis.

86) Which of the following adaptations make the leaf structure suitable for the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) broad and flat shape of leaf
   b) large air spaces for gaseous exchange
   c) thin structure of leaf
   d) all of these

87) Which of the following adaptations make the leaf structure suitable for the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) network of veins to supply water
   b) transparent epidermis to allow entry of light
   c) waxy cuticle to slow water loss and large number of chloroplasts
   d) all of these

 

Minerals For Plant Growth

The three main nutrients are nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K). Together, they make up the trio known as NPK. Other important nutrients are calcium, magnesium, and sulfur.

88) Which of the following is/are required to grow a healthy plant?

1. a) sunlight
   b) air
   c) minerals
   d) all of these

89) Which of the following is required to prepare proteins by plants?

1. a) nitrates
   b) water
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) oxygen

90) Which of the following is required to make chlorophyll by plants?

1. a) nitrates
   b) magnesium
   c) iron
   d) oxygen

Explanation:

Magnesium is the central core of the chlorophyll molecule in plant tissue. Thus, if Mg is deficient, the shortage of chlorophyll results in poor and stunted plant growth. Magnesium also helps to activate specific enzyme systems.

91) Compost is a type of fertilizer that is made from…

1. a) cow dung
   b) rotting plants
   c) nitrates
   d) phosphates

92) What is/are the benefit of compost in growing plants?

1. a) it is easy
   b) it is cheap
   c) it damages the plant
   d) both a and b

 

Respiration:

Respiration is defined as a metabolic process wherein the living cells of an organism obtain energy (in the form of ATP) by taking in oxygen and liberating carbon dioxide from the oxidation of complex organic substances.

The release of energy during cellular respiration:

glucose+oxygen→energy released+carbon dioxide+water\text{glucose} + \text{oxygen} \rightarrow \text{energy released} + \text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water} C6H12O6+6O2→6CO2+6H2OC_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightarrow 6CO_2 + 6H_2O 

93) Which of the following processes is used by organisms to get energy from food?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

94) In plant cells, glucose reacts with oxygen to form…

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) water
   c) energy
   d) all of these

95) Which of the following is/are the waste products of respiration?

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) water
   c) energy
   d) both a and b

96) Where the process of respiration takes place in the cell of organisms?

1. a) mitochondria
   b) chloroplast
   c) ribosomes
   d) nucleus

97) Plant cells respire…

1. a) during the daytime
   b) during the night time
   c) during dawn and dusk time
   d) all the time

98) When plants get oxygen and give out carbon dioxide?

1. a) during the daytime
   b) during the night time
   c) never get oxygen
   d) all the time

99) Respiration occurs in…

1. a) animals
   b) plants
   c) fungi
   d) all of these

100) Photosynthesis occurs in…

1. a) animals
   b) fungi
   c) green parts of plants
   d) all of these

101) Which of the following is/are reactant/s in the process of respiration?

1. a) oxygen
   b) food
   c) water
   d) both a and b

102) Which of the following is/are reactant/s in the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) food
   c) water
   d) both a and c

103) Which of the following is/are product/s in the process of respiration?

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) water
   c) oxygen
   d) both a and b

104) Which of the following is/are product/s in the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) food
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) both a and b

105) In which of the following energy is released?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

106) In which of the following energy is absorbed?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

Exercise:

107) The root system which can get water from deep underground sources is…

1. a) fibrous root
   b) tap roots
   c) storage roots
   d) root nodules

108) Which of the following is not an organ of a plant?

1. a) epidermis
   b) root
   c) stem
   d) leaf

109) Vascular bundles are present in every part of the plant. They are made up of…

1. a) xylem only
   b) phloem only
   c) xylem and phloem
   d) xylem, phloem, and root hair cells

110) Amna liked to grow plants on her terrace. The plants were getting light and water every day but they were not growing properly. What suggestion can you give her to improve plant growth?

1. a) add sugar to plant pots
   b) give water once a week
   c) add compost fertilizer to plant pots
   d) shift them indoor

111) If water available to plants becomes less, then stomata are closed even at daytime. This protects plants from…

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) respiration
   c) transport of water
   d) wilting

112) The protective around plant part is…

1. a) epidermis
   b) cortex
   c) vascular bundles
   d) mesophyll

113) If the concentration of carbon dioxide increases in the air during daytime the process of…

1. a) photosynthesis will decrease
   b) respiration will decrease
   c) photosynthesis will increase
   d) respiration will increase

114) Plants perform respiration all the time. The purpose of respiration in plants is to…

1. a) prepare food
   b) release energy
   c) absorb energy
   d) maintain healthy growth

115) If you stay under trees at night, you can feel dizziness due to…

1. a) high level of oxygen and low level of carbon dioxide
   b) low level of oxygen and high level of carbon dioxide
   c) poisonous gases released by trees
   d) ghosts living in trees

116) Which of the following is the correct word equation for respiration?

1. a) Carbon Dioxide + Water → Glucose + Oxygen
   b) Carbon Dioxide + Water + Sunlight → Glucose + Oxygen
   c) Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water
   d) Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy

Unit No: 02

Respiratory and Circulatory

 

The circulatory and respiratory systems work together to circulate blood and oxygen throughout the body. Air moves in and out of the lungs through the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. Blood moves in and out of the lungs through the pulmonary arteries and veins that connect to the heart.

 

1) Which of the following is required for doing different functions?

1. a) water
   b) oxygen
   c) energy
   d) food

Explanation: Energy, in physics, is the capacity for doing work. It may exist in potential, kinetic, thermal, electrical, chemical, nuclear, or other various forms. There are, moreover, heat and work i.e., energy in the process of transfer from one body to another.

2) In case of us, from where does the energy to perform all the body functions?

1. a) from water we drink
   b) from sun
   c) from food we eat
   d) from soil

3) The food we eat is broken down and converted into smaller molecules of……

1. a) glucose
   b) glycogen
   c) starch
   d) chitin

Explanation: Glucose comes from the Greek word for “sweet.” It’s a type of sugar you get from foods you eat, and your body uses it for energy. As it travels through your bloodstream to your cells, it’s called blood glucose or blood sugar. Insulin is a hormone that moves glucose from your blood into the cells for energy and storage.

4) Which of the following is/are the major source of energy for the cell?

1. a) water
   b) glucose
   c) proteins
   d) all of these

5) Which of the following process is involved in the release of energy from food?

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) combustion
   c) cellular respiration
   d) rusting

Explanation: Cellular respiration is a series of chemical reactions that break down glucose to produce ATP, which may be used as energy to power many reactions throughout the body. There are three main steps of cellular respiration: glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation.

6) Cellular respiration is a series of……reactions which slowly releases energy stored in the food?

1. a) chemical
   b) physical
   c) nuclear
   d) volcanic

7) Which of the following is essential for the survival of a living thing?

1. a) cellular respiration
   b) playing
   c) combustion
   d) rusting

8) Which of the following reactions take place continuously throughout life?

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) combustion
   c) cellular respiration
   d) excretion

Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration:

Living organisms use energy released by respiration for their life processes. There are two types of respiration aerobic (which needs oxygen) and anaerobic (which doesn’t need oxygen).

9) How many types of cellular respiration are there?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:

1. Aerobic respiration (oxygen is required).
2. Anaerobic respiration (oxygen is not needed).

10) Which of the following gas is involved in cellular respiration?

1. a) carbon monoxide
   b) nitrogen
   c) oxygen
   d) ammonia

11) If the cellular respiration takes place in the presence of oxygen, it is called…….

1. a) cellular respiration
   b) aerobic respiration
   c) anaerobic respiration
   d) fermentation

12) Where the aerobic respiration is completed?

1. a) cytoplasm
   b) nucleus
   c) mitochondria
   d) ribosomes

![Mitochondria Diagram]

13) How much energy is released from food during aerobic respiration?

1. a) small amount
   b) very small
   c) large amount of energy
   d) no energy

Explanation: The source of the energy required to regenerate ATP is the chemical energy stored in food (e.g. glucose). The cellular process of releasing energy from food through a series of enzyme-controlled reactions is called respiration. Some of the energy released is used to produce ATP.

14) Which of the following is/are the waste product of aerobic respiration?

1. a) water
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) oxygen
   d) both a and b

15) If the cellular respiration takes place in the absence of oxygen, it is called…….

1. a) cellular respiration
   b) aerobic respiration
   c) anaerobic respiration
   d) none of these

16) How much energy is released from food during anaerobic respiration?

1. a) small amount
   b) very small
   c) large amount of energy
   d) no energy

17) Which of the following is/are the waste product of aerobic respiration?

1. a) lactic acid
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these

18) How many ATP molecules are produced during aerobic respiration?

1. a) 2
   b) 10
   c) 18
   d) 36

19) How many ATP molecules are produced during anaerobic respiration?

1. a) 2
   b) 10
   c) 18
   d) 36

 

Human Respiratory System:

The respiratory system is the network of organs and tissues that help you breathe. It includes your airways, lungs, and blood vessels. The muscles that power your lungs are also part of the respiratory system. These parts work together to move oxygen throughout the body and clean out waste gases like carbon dioxide.

![Human Respiratory System Diagram]

20) Which of the following process helps in the process of breathing and exchange of gases?

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) excretion
   c) respiration
   d) reproduction

21) Which of the following constitutes the human respiratory system?

1. a) air passageway
   b) lungs
   c) gut
   d) both a and b

22) Air enters in the nasal cavity through which of the following structure?

1. a) ear
   b) nostrils
   c) mouth
   d) eyes

23) Which of the following action/s is/are performed with air in the nasal cavity?

1. a) clean
   b) warm
   c) moist
   d) all of these

24) From nasal cavity to the trachea, the air passes through which of the following structure?

1. a) larynx
   b) mouth
   c) gut
   d) oesophagus

Explanation: Your larynx is part of your respiratory system. It’s a hollow tube that lets air pass through while keeping food and drink from blocking the airway.

 

25) Which of the following is also known as windpipe?

1. a) trachea
   b) mouth
   c) gut
   d) oesophagus

26) Trachea is divided into how many branches?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: Trachea is divided into two bronchi which enter into each lung.

27) Trachea is divided in which of the following structures?

1. a) bronchi
   b) lungs
   c) bronchioles
   d) oesophagus

Explanation: Your bronchi (BRAWN-kai) are the large tubes that connect to your trachea (windpipe) and direct the air you breathe to your right and left lungs. They are in your chest. Bronchi is the plural form of bronchus.

• The left bronchus carries air to your left lung.
• The right bronchus carries air to your right lung.

28) Inside the lungs, the bronchi are divided into…

1. a) alveoli
   b) larynx
   c) bronchioles
   d) oesophagus

29) Bronchioles end at tiny thin-walled air sacs called……

1. a) alveoli
   b) larynx
   c) nephrons
   d) villi

Explanation: Tiny air sacs at the end of the bronchioles (tiny branches of air tubes in the lungs). The alveoli are where the lungs and the blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of breathing in and breathing out.

30) In which part of the following, the gaseous exchange takes place?

1. a) alveoli
   b) larynx
   c) bronchi
   d) villi

31) Exchange of gases takes place inside lungs at alveoli between air and ……..

1. a) food
   b) plasma
   c) blood
   d) urine

Explanation: During gas exchange, oxygen moves from the lungs to the bloodstream. At the same time, carbon dioxide passes from the blood to the lungs. This happens in the lungs between the alveoli and a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are located in the walls of the alveoli.

32) Which of the following is like a huge spongy organ as it contains millions of alveoli?

1. a) brain
   b) stomach
   c) kidney
   d) lungs

Explanation: The lungs are the primary organs of the respiratory system in humans and most other animals, including some snails and a small number of fish. In mammals and most other vertebrates, two lungs are located near the backbone on either side of the heart. Their function in the respiratory system is to extract oxygen from the air and transfer it into the bloodstream and to release carbon dioxide from the bloodstream into the atmosphere, in a process of gas exchange.

 

33) How many alveoli are present in each lung?

1. a) hundreds
   b) thousands
   c) millions
   d) billions

Explanation: There are about 300 million alveoli in both lungs, which increase the surface area for the exchange of respiratory gases.

Exchange of Gases:

During gas exchange, oxygen moves from the lungs to the bloodstream. At the same time, carbon dioxide passes from the blood to the lungs. This happens in the lungs between the alveoli and a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are located in the walls of the alveoli.

34) Which of the following gas/es is/are inhaled from air and diffuses to the blood capillaries?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) hydrogen

35) When oxygen is diffused from inhaled air into the blood, the blood becomes……

1. a) oxygenated
   b) deoxygenated
   c) poisonous
   d) health

36) Which of the following is the waste product of cellular respiration?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) hydrogen

37) From where the carbon dioxide is added into the blood?

1. a) lungs
   b) kidney
   c) whole body cells
   d) liver

38) When carbon dioxide is diffused from body cells into the blood and oxygen is removed, the blood becomes……

1. a) oxygenated
   b) deoxygenated
   c) poisonous
   d) health

39) The deoxygenated blood is reached to……

1. a) lungs
   b) kidney
   c) whole body cells
   d) liver

40) Which of the following gas is diffused from blood capillaries into the alveolar air?

1. a) oxygen
   b) nitrogen
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) hydrogen

41) Which of the following gas is breathed out of the body?

1. a) oxygen
   b) methane
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) hydrogen

42) Why alveoli are a perfect respiratory surface? It is because they are……

1. a) thin-walled
   b) have a large surface area
   c) are moist
   d) all of these

43) Why alveoli are a perfect respiratory surface? It is because they are……

1. a) are surrounded by blood capillaries
   b) have a large surface area
   c) have a supply of fresh air
   d) all of these

44) If all the alveoli of your lungs are flattened and put together, their surface area will be equal to the size of……

1. a) table tennis
   b) tennis court
   c) football ground
   d) cricket ground

Explanation: Your lungs are one of the largest organs in your body. The surface area of both lungs is roughly the same size as a tennis court, and the total length of the airways running through them is 1,500 miles.

Breathing:

Breathing (or ventilation) is the process of moving air into and from the lungs to facilitate gas exchange with the internal environment, mostly to flush out carbon dioxide and bring in oxygen.

45) Breathing is simply the……

1. a) the production of energy
   b) gaseous exchange

 

46) Breathing is ______ process.

1. a) physical
   b) chemical
   c) nuclear
   d) fermentation

47) Breathing is at ______ level.

1. a) cellular
   b) tissue
   c) organ
   d) organism

48) Respiration is at ______ level.

1. a) cellular
   b) tissue
   c) organ
   d) organism

49) Which of the following expands or compresses the lungs as the lungs cannot move on their own?

1. a) muscles around lungs
   b) diaphragm
   c) kidneys and liver
   d) both a and b

Explanation: The diaphragm is a thin skeletal muscle that sits at the base of the chest and separates the abdomen from the chest. It contracts and flattens when you inhale. This creates a vacuum effect that pulls air into the lungs. When you exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, and the air is pushed out of the lungs.

50) When the lungs expand, the air moves in. What is this?

1. a) inhalation
   b) inspiration
   c) expiration
   d) both a and b

51) When the lungs compress, the air moves out. What is this?

1. a) inhalation
   b) exhalation
   c) expiration
   d) both b and c

Difference Between Breathing and Respiration:

As stated above, breathing is the biological process of inhaling and exhaling gases between the cells and the environment. The mechanism of breathing involves various respiratory structures such as the windpipe, lungs, and nose.
On the other hand, respiration is a chemical process that takes place in the cell.

52) Which of the following is a physical process involving exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?

1. a) breathing
   b) respiration
   c) filtration
   d) inhalation

53) Which of the following is a biochemical process involving reaction of glucose with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water?

1. a) breathing
   b) respiration
   c) filtration
   d) inhalation

54) Which of the following is true about breathing?

1. a) energy is released
   b) it takes place within a cell
   c) energy is not released
   d) enzymes are involved

55) Which of the following is NOT true about respiration?

1. a) it takes place outside the cells
   b) it takes place within a cell
   c) energy is not released
   d) both a and c

56) Which of the following is NOT true about respiration?

1. a) it is a biochemical process
   b) it takes place within a cell
   c) energy is released
   d) enzymes are not involved

 

Circulatory System:

The circulatory system is made up of blood vessels that carry blood away from and towards the heart.

• Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
• Veins carry blood back to the heart.
• The circulatory system carries oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to cells and removes waste products, like carbon dioxide.

57) Which of the following system is responsible to transport food to the organs and takes away wastes?

1. a) excretory system
   b) respiratory system
   c) circulatory system
   d) digestive system

 

59) The system which moves blood throughout the body is called:

1. a) circulatory system
   b) respiratory system
   c) excretory system
   d) digestive system

60) Which of the following is/are included in the circulatory system?

1. a) blood
   b) blood vessels
   c) heart
   d) all of these

61) The blood circulates in your body through:

1. a) lymph nodes
   b) blood vessels
   c) nerves
   d) nephrons

62) Which of the following are transported by the blood?

1. a) gases
   b) nutrients
   c) wastes
   d) all of these

63) Which of the following is the pumping organ for blood?

1. a) lungs
   b) kidney
   c) liver
   d) heart

Blood:

Your blood is made up of liquid and solids. The liquid part, called plasma, is made of water, salts, and protein. Over half of your blood is plasma.
The solid part of your blood contains red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.

• Red blood cells (RBCs) deliver oxygen from your lungs to your tissues and organs.

64) The blood is a/an:

1. a) organ
   b) tissue
   c) cell
   d) system

65) The blood consists of ______ components.

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Plasma
2. Blood cells

66) Which of the following makes up most of the blood?

1. a) plasma
   b) platelets
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

Explanation: Plasma, also known as blood plasma, appears light-yellowish or straw-colored. It serves as the liquid base for whole blood. Whole blood minus erythrocytes (RBCs), leukocytes (WBCs), and thrombocytes (platelets) make up the plasma.

67) Which of the following is the liquid portion of the blood?

1. a) plasma
   b) platelets
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

68) What is the color of plasma when it is separated from whole blood by standing in a test tube?

1. a) white
   b) pale yellow
   c) green
   d) red

69) Which of the following is/are carried by the plasma of blood?

1. a) water and chemicals
   b) nutrients
   c) gases and wastes
   d) all of these

70) Which of the following chemicals are transported by the blood plasma?

1. a) hormones
   b) ions
   c) acids
   d) both a and b

71) Blood cells are of ______ types.

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Red blood cells (RBCs)
2. White blood cells (WBCs)
3. Platelets

 

73) The percentage of plasma in blood is:

1. a) 55
   b) 1
   c) 44
   d) none of these

74) The percentage of WBCs and platelets in blood is:

1. a) 55
   b) 1
   c) 44
   d) none of these

75) The percentage of RBCs in blood is:

1. a) 55
   b) 1
   c) 44
   d) none of these

Diagram of blood composition:

• 55% Plasma
• 1% White blood cells and platelets
• 44% Red blood cells

76) Which of the following cells are disc-shaped with a depression on each side (biconcave)?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) none of these

Explanation: Red blood cells, also referred to as erythrocytes, are the most common type of blood cell and the vertebrate’s principal means of delivering oxygen to body tissues via blood flow through the circulatory system.

77) Which of the following cells contain red hemoglobin?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) none of these

78) Which of the following carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs

79) Anemia is a disease caused by:

1. a) less number of RBCs
   b) low quantity of hemoglobin
   c) less number of WBCs
   d) both a and b

Explanation: Anemia is a condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body’s tissues. Having anemia, also referred to as low hemoglobin, can make you feel tired and weak. There are many forms of anemia, each with its own cause.

80) Which of the following have an irregular shape and are the smallest type of cells?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) plasma

Explanation: Platelets, or thrombocytes, are small, colorless cell fragments in our blood that form clots and stop or prevent bleeding. Platelets are made in bone marrow, the sponge-like tissue inside our bones. Bone marrow contains stem cells that develop into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

Diagram of platelets (Thrombocytes) – Definition, Structure, Immunity, Functions.

81) Which of the following is/are responsible for blood clotting?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) plasma

82) Which disease reduces the number of platelets in a patient’s blood?

1. a) malaria
   b) TB
   c) AIDS
   d) Dengue fever

Explanation: Dengue fever (pronounced DEN-gee) is a painful, debilitating mosquito-borne disease caused by any one of four closely related dengue viruses.

83) Which of the following cells are of different types, sizes, and shapes?

1. a) platelets
   b) plasma
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

Explanation: White blood cells (WBCs) are part of the body’s immune system. They help the body fight infection and other diseases. Types of white blood cells include granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes.

 

84) Which of the following cells protect your body from germs and harmful things?

1. a) platelets
   b) plasma
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

85) Which of the following cells make the immune system?

1. a) platelets
   b) plasma
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

86) Which of the following diseases attacks WBCs in the blood of a patient?

1. a) malaria
   b) TB
   c) AIDS
   d) Dengue fever

Explanation: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging your immune system, HIV interferes with your body’s ability to fight infection and disease.

87) In which disease does the immune system of a patient fail to fight against disease-causing germs?

1. a) malaria
   b) TB
   c) AIDS
   d) Dengue fever

Blood Vessels

Capillaries

There are three kinds of blood vessels:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

Each of these plays a very specific role in the circulation process.

• Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
• They are tough on the outside but contain a smooth inner layer of epithelial cells that allow blood to flow easily.

88) Why is the blood circulatory system called a closed circulatory system?

1. a) Blood is always confined in blood vessels
   b) Blood is always present in tissues
   c) Blood is present in lungs
   d) All of these

89) How many types of blood vessels are present in the human blood circulatory system?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

90) Which of the following blood vessels carry blood away from the heart to the rest of the body?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

Explanation: Arteries are part of your circulatory (cardiovascular) system. They are the blood vessels that bring oxygen-rich blood from your heart to all of your body’s cells. They play a crucial role in distributing oxygen, nutrients, and hormones throughout your body.

Diagram of an Artery

Labeled parts:

• Tunica interna (intima)
• Endothelium
• Subendothelium
• Internal elastic lamina
• Smooth muscle
• External elastic lamina
• Tunica externa (adventitia)

91) Which of the following blood vessels have thick elastic walls that cope with the blood pressure exerted by the heart?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

92) In which of the following vessels is the pulse produced?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

93) The heart pushes blood to the:

1. a) veins
   b) arteries
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

 

95) Which of the following arteries carry deoxygenated blood?

1. a) pulmonary artery
   b) renal artery
   c) femoral artery
   d) aorta

96) Arteries branch off into tiny microscopic vessels called……

1. a) veins
   b) venules
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

Explanation: Capillaries are delicate blood vessels that exist throughout your body. They transport blood, nutrients, and oxygen to cells in your organs and body systems. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in your vascular system.

97) Which of the following vessels are so narrow that RBCs flow through them in a single line?

1. a) veins
   b) arterioles
   c) capillaries
   d) venules

98) Which of the following blood vessels have single-cell-thick walls?

1. a) veins
   b) arterioles
   c) capillaries
   d) venules

99) Capillaries join to form the smallest……

1. a) veins
   b) arterioles
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

Explanation: Veins are blood vessels located throughout your body that collect oxygen-poor blood and return it to your heart. Veins are part of your circulatory system. They work together with other blood vessels and your heart to keep your blood moving.

100) Which of the following blood vessels carry blood towards the heart from the rest of the body?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

101) Which of the following vessels have valves which prevent the backflow of blood?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

102) Which of the following blood vessels generally carry deoxygenated blood?

1. a) veins
   b) arteries
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

103) Which of the following veins carry oxygenated blood?

1. a) pulmonary vein
   b) renal vein
   c) femoral vein
   d) vena cava

104) Why is blood sample taken from veins?

1. a) they are larger
   b) they have thinner walls
   c) blood flow is slower in them
   d) all of these

Heart

The heart is a muscular organ about the size of a fist, located just behind and slightly left of the breastbone.
The heart pumps blood through the network of arteries and veins called the cardiovascular system.

The heart has four chambers:

• Right atrium: Receives blood from the veins and pumps it to the right ventricle.
• Right ventricle: Receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs, where it is loaded with oxygen.
• Left atrium: Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.
• Left ventricle: The strongest chamber, pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body. The left ventricle’s vigorous contractions create our blood pressure.

105) Which of the following is the muscular pump for blood?

1. a) heart
   b) lung
   c) kidney
   d) liver

106) The heart is divided into……parts.

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Upper part (atria)
2. Lower part (ventricles)

 

107) The heart is divided into……chambers.

1. a) four
   b) two
   c) three
   d) many

Explanation: The heart is divided into four chambers: two atria and two ventricles.

108) Which side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood?

1. a) right side
   b) left side
   c) upper side
   d) lower side

109) Which side of the heart receives oxygenated blood?

1. a) right side
   b) left side
   c) upper side
   d) lower side

110) The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood……

1. a) from the body
   b) from the lungs
   c) from the liver only
   d) from the left side

111) The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood……

1. a) from the lungs
   b) from the body
   c) from the liver
   d) from the right side

112) The heart forces oxygenated blood from its left side to be transported……

1. a) from the body
   b) from the liver only
   c) all over the body (through arteries)
   d) from the right side

113) Muscles require more energy and oxygen during exercise because……

1. a) they consume more oxygen
   b) muscles require more energy
   c) more oxygen is needed for respiration
   d) all of these

114) What happens to your breathing rate if you start running or moving your feet?

1. a) it will stop
   b) it will remain the same
   c) it will become slower
   d) it will increase

115) The four heart valves, which keep blood moving in one direction, are……

1. a) mitral, tricuspid, pulmonary, and aortic valves
   b) lower temperature
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) none of these

116) How many times does your heart beat normally in one minute?

1. a) 30
   b) 60
   c) 80
   d) 100

117) Your body has……liters of blood.

1. a) 5-6 liters
   b) 10 liters
   c) 15 liters
   d) 20 liters

118) Your heart is made up of special muscles. What are these muscles called?

1. a) cardiac muscles
   b) skeletal muscles
   c) smooth muscles
   d) none of these

119) Which of the following muscles is cardiac, continuous, and works without getting tired?

1. a) heart muscle
   b) hand muscles
   c) leg muscles
   d) none of these

120) If you get injured, which cells of your body help in blood clotting?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) plasma

121) If you jam muscles or overuse your legs, your heart will respond to this challenge?

1. a) heart rate will increase
   b) heart rate will remain the same
   c) heart rate will become slower
   d) none of these

122) The heart is made up of special muscles. These are called……

1. a) smooth muscles
   b) cardiac muscles
   c) skeletal muscles
   d) voluntary muscles

123) A person affected with anemia looks pale and feels tired. His body cells are getting……

1. a) less oxygen
   b) less food
   c) less water
   d) none of these

124) A team of climbers was climbing a high mountain. When they reached up to thirty thousand feet, their breathlessness at high altitude was due to……

1. a) more oxygen
   b) less oxygen
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) none of these

125) The exchange of gases between blood and body cells takes place in the……

1. a) capillaries
   b) veins
   c) arteries
   d) nerves

126) Vessels in the body that have one-way valves to keep blood flowing in one direction are……

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

 

129) Valves are found in……

1. a) arteries and vein only
   b) veins only
   c) skin and heart
   d) heart only

130) Oxygenated blood is found in two chambers of the heart……

1. a) right and left atrium
   b) left atrium and left ventricle
   c) right and left ventricle
   d) right atrium and right ventricle

131) Which component of the blood is liquid?

1. a) plasma
   b) white blood cells
   c) platelets
   d) red blood cells

132) The diagram shows different types of blood cells. Which cell is filled with hemoglobin?

1. a) red blood cell
   b) white blood cell
   c) platelets
   d) none of these

133) The diagram shows blood flow through a human heart. Which chamber pumps the blood to the lungs?

1. a) A
   b) B
   c) C
   d) D

Answer Keys

The table contains the correct answers to various questions from the series. Here are the correct answers for questions 129-133 based on the table:

• 129) b
• 130) b
• 131) a
• 132) a
• 133) c

 

UNIT NO: 03

IMMUNITY AND DISEASES

Immunity to a disease is achieved through the presence of antibodies to that disease in a person’s system.
Antibodies are proteins produced by the body to neutralize or destroy toxins or disease-carrying organisms.
Antibodies are disease-specific.

Diseases and Immunity

1. The disease-causing germs are also known as:
   a) bacteria
   b) virus
   c) parasites
   d) pathogens
2. Which of the following is/are pathogen/s?
   a) bacteria
   b) virus
   c) fungi and parasites
   d) all of these
3. The disease which is caused by pathogens is called………disease.
   a) inherited disease
   b) contagious disease
   c) non-contagious disease
   d) infectious disease

Explanation: Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They’re normally harmless or even helpful. But under certain conditions, some organisms may cause disease. Some infectious diseases can be passed from person to person.

1. Ali is an anemic person. His health issue is a/an
   a) infectious disease
   b) disease due to pathogens
   c) viral attack
   d) non-infectious disease

Explanation: Non-infectious diseases are not caused by pathogens and therefore cannot be spread from one person to another. Instead, non-infectious diseases are caused by factors such as genetics, malnutrition, environment, and lifestyle. Examples of non-infectious diseases include cancer, Alzheimer’s disease, and epilepsy.

1. Which of the following is/are infectious disease/s?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) All of these
2. Which of the following is NOT an infectious disease?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia

Explanation: Anemia is a condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body’s tissues. Having anemia, also referred to as low hemoglobin, can make you feel tired and weak. There are many forms of anemia, each with its own cause.

ANEMIA

Normal vs. Anemia Symptoms (Illustration present in the image)

1. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia
2. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

1. a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia

Explanation: Ringworm is a common skin infection that is caused by a fungus. It’s called “ringworm” because it can cause a circular rash (shaped like a ring) that is usually red and itchy. Anyone can get ringworm.

1. Which of the following diseases is caused by fungi?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia
2. The personal army of an organism against disease-causing pathogens is called………
   a) Circulatory system
   b) Immune system
   c) Respiratory system
   d) Reproductive system

Explanation: The immune system is a network of biological processes that protects an organism from diseases. It detects and responds to a wide variety of pathogens, from viruses to parasitic worms, as well as cancer cells and objects such as wood splinters, distinguishing them from the organism’s own healthy tissue. Many species have two major subsystems of the immune system.

1. Every day we encounter a huge number of pathogens, however, we do not fall ill every other day which is due to our……….
   a) Circulatory system
   b) Immune system
   c) Respiratory system
   d) Reproductive system
2. Which of the following is the ability of the body to resist harmful microorganisms?
   a) Immunity
   b) Susceptibility
   c) Illness
   d) Mutation

Explanation: Immunity to a disease is achieved when there are antibodies to that disease in a person’s system. There are two types of immunity: active and passive.

1. How many types of immunity are found in the human body against disease-causing microorganisms?
   a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Five

Explanation:

1. Innate Immunity
2. Adaptive Immunity
3. Active Immunity
4. Passive Immunity

Innate Immunity:

INNATE IMMUNITY, also known as nonspecific immunity, is the defense system with which you were born. It protects you against all antigens. Innate immunity involves barriers that keep harmful materials from entering your body. These barriers form the first line of defense in the immune response.

1. Innate immunity is also known as……….
   a) Nonspecific immunity
   b) Learned immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity
2. Which of the following is the natural defense of the body against any intruder?
   a) Learned immunity
   b) Innate immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity
3. Which of the following immunity acts without recognizing and differentiating the intruder?
   a) Innate immunity
   b) Learned immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity
4. How many components are there in innate immunity?
   a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Five

Explanation:

1. First line of defense
2. Second line of defense

19) The first line of defense is:

1. a) first line of defense
   b) second line of defense
   c) adaptive immunity
   d) both a and b

Explanation: The first line of defense is your innate immune system. Level one of this system consists of physical barriers like your skin and the mucosal lining in your respiratory tract. The tears, sweat, saliva, and mucous produced by the skin and mucosal lining are part of that physical barrier, too.

First Lines of Defense

• Saliva – Contains antibacterial enzymes to prevent entry
• Tears – Contain antibacterial enzymes
• Mucus linings – Trap dust and microbes
• Stomach acid – Low pH kills harmful microbes
• Good gut bacteria – Competes with bad bacteria

20) Which of the following is/are included in the first line of defense?

1. a) Skin
   b) WBCs
   c) Both a and b
   d) Mucus membrane of mouth, nose, and lungs, etc.

21) Which of the following is/are NOT included in the first line of defense?

1. a) Skin
   b) Mucus membrane
   c) WBCs
   d) All of these

22) Which of the following acts when the germs enter the body and escape from the first line of defense?

1. a) Passive immunity
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Adaptive immunity
   d) Both a and b

Second Line of Defense

Cells	Proteins	Other Responses
Monocytes & Macrophages	Interferon	Fever
Neutrophils	Anti-Microbial Peptides	Inflammation
Dendritic Cells	Iron Binding Proteins	–
Natural Killer Cells	Complement System	–
Mast Cells	–	–
Eosinophils	–	–
Basophils	A comprehensive summary of 10 minutes	–

23) Which of the following is/are included in the second line of defense?

1. a) Chemicals
   b) Fever
   c) WBCs
   d) All of these

24) Which of the following is/are NOT included in the second line of defense?

1. a) Mucous membrane
   b) Skin
   c) WBCs
   d) Both a and b

25) How does the second line of defense work?

1. a) It stops the entry of germs
   b) Kills germs and protects the body
   c) Forms antibodies
   d) All of these

26) Which of the following involves eating the germ cells?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Adaptive immunity
   d) Both a and b

Explanation: The second line of defense is a nonspecific resistance that destroys invaders in a generalized way without targeting specific individuals. Phagocytic cells ingest and destroy all microbes that pass into body tissues. For example, macrophages are cells derived from monocytes (a type of white blood cell).

27) Face masks, gloves, and sanitizer help with which of the following types of immunity?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Adaptive immunity
   d) Passive immunity

Adaptive Immunity

Innate Immunity vs. Adaptive Immunity

• Innate Immunity: Includes fever, macrophages, epithelial cells, etc.
• Adaptive Immunity: Includes dendritic cells, T-helper cells, plasma cells, etc.

Adaptive immune responses are the basis for effective immunization against infectious diseases. The cells of the adaptive immune system include antigen-specific T cells, which are activated to proliferate through the action of APCs, and B cells, which differentiate into plasma cells to produce antibodies.

28) Adaptive immunity is also known as:

1. a) Nonspecific immunity
   b) Learned immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

30) Which of the following line of defense identifies the germs and starts making special types of WBCs?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Third line of defense
   d) Passive immunity

Explanation: The third line of defense is immune cells that target specific antigens. The immune cells that play a role in the third line of defense are B-cells and T-cells, both of which are white blood cells. The B-cells produce antibodies, while the T-cells help identify pathogenic cells and destroy targeted cells.

31) How does adaptive immunity or the third line of defense work?

1. a) It identifies the germ cells
   b) It makes special WBCs against germs
   c) It stops the entry of germs
   d) Both a and b

32) Which of the following is/are made by the third line of defense against germs?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Both a and b
   d) None of these

Explanation: T cells are one of the important white blood cells of the immune system and play a central role in the adaptive immune response. T cells can be distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of a T-cell receptor (TCR) on their cell surface. T cells are born from hematopoietic stem cells, found in the bone marrow.

Explanation: B cells are a type of lymphocyte responsible for the humoral immunity component of the adaptive immune system. These white blood cells produce antibodies, which play a key role in immunity. Each B cell contains a single round nucleus.

33) Which of the following attack/s invaders outside the body?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Both a and b
   d) None of these

B cell (B lymphocyte)

Definition, Types, Development, Applications

34) Which of the following attack/s invaders inside the body?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Both a and b
   d) None of these

35) Which of the following kill virus-infected cells and activate other cells of the immune system to fight the germs?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Monocytes
   d) Neutrophils

36) Which of the following start making antibodies after activation?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Monocytes
   d) Neutrophils

37) Antibodies are __________ in nature?

1. a) Proteins
   b) Carbohydrates
   c) Vitamins
   d) Fats

Antibody: Structure, Classes, and Functions

Explanation: An antibody is a protein component of the immune system that circulates in the blood, recognizes foreign substances like bacteria and viruses, and neutralizes them.

38) Which of the following function/s is/are performed by an antibody?

1. a) It recognizes the germ
   b) It kills the germs
   c) It stops the entry of germs
   d) Both a and b

39) When do we become immune to a disease caused by bacteria and viruses?

1. a) When the body produces T cells
   b) When the skin stops the entry of pathogens
   c) When the body produces antibodies
   d) All of these

40) The way the body defends itself against harmful or foreign substances is called:

1. a) Reaction
   b) Immune response
   c) Allergic response
   d) None of these

Mechanism of Antibody Formation:

Antibody Production

Antibodies are produced by specialized white blood cells called B lymphocytes (or B cells). When an antigen binds to the B-cell surface, it stimulates the B cell to divide and mature into a group of identical cells called a clone.

42) How many ways does your body start the formation of antibodies?

1. a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Five

Explanation: 1. When you get a disease, or 2. When you get vaccinated.

43) When does your body start making antibodies against disease-causing agents?

1. a) When you get a disease
   b) When you are vaccinated
   c) When you start exercising
   d) Both a and b

44) Which of the following is required by your body to start the formation of antibodies?

1. a) Exposure to pathogen
   b) Use of medicine
   c) Eating of meal
   d) All of these

45) Which of the following work/s by training the immune system to recognize and fight pathogens?

1. a) Antibiotic
   b) Antiviral
   c) Vaccine
   d) All of these

Explanation: A vaccine is a biological preparation that provides active acquired immunity to a particular infectious disease. A vaccine typically contains an agent that resembles a disease-causing microorganism and is often made from weakened or killed forms of the microbe, its toxins, or one of its surface proteins. The agent stimulates the body’s immune system to recognize the agent as a threat, destroy it, and to further recognize and destroy any of the microorganisms associated with that agent that it may encounter in the future.

46) Which of the following vaccine/s is/are oral vaccine/s?

1. a) Polio vaccine
   b) COVID-19 vaccine
   c) Measles vaccine
   d) Both b and c

47) Which of the following vaccine/s is/are injection form vaccine/s?

1. a) Polio vaccine
   b) COVID-19 vaccine
   c) Measles vaccine
   d) Both b and c

48) Which of the following form memory?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Monocytes
   d) Both a and b

49) Which of the following trigger an immune system of the body?

1. a) Antibiotic
   b) Antiviral
   c) Vaccine
   d) All of these

Passive Immunity:

Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. A newborn baby acquires passive immunity from its mother through the placenta.

50) Sometimes already prepared antibodies are used to protect you against a pathogen or toxin that harms your body very quickly. Which type of immunity is this?

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

51) When a snake bites a person, already prepared antibodies against snake venom are injected. Which type of immunity is this?

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

52) Which of the following is short-lived immunity?

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

54) Before a child is born, antibodies are passed through _______ from mother to fetus?

1. a) Blood
   b) Placenta
   c) Arteries
   d) Hormones

55) After birth, the young baby receives antibodies from his/her mother through?

1. a) Blood
   b) Breast milk
   c) Arteries
   d) Food

56) Snake bite is a very serious threat to health and life of a person. If a snake bites a person, the only way to save him is by providing _______.

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Learned immunity

57) Immunity gained by a person from his/her mother through placenta or breast milk is called:

1. a) Passive immunity
   b) Paternal passive immunity
   c) Maternal passive immunity
   d) Natural passive immunity

Ways to Boost Your Immunity:

• Eat Well.
• Food Assistance.
• Be Physically Active. Regular physical activity helps you feel better, sleep better, and reduce anxiety.
• Maintain a Healthy Weight. Excess weight can affect how your body functions.
• Get Enough Sleep.
• Quit Smoking.
• Avoid Too Much Alcohol.

58) Which of the following ways is/are helpful in boosting your immune system?

1. a) Eat lots of fruits and vegetables
   b) Exercise regularly and maintain a healthy weight
   c) Drink plenty of water
   d) All of these

59) Which of the following ways is/are helpful in boosting your immune system?

1. a) Get good night’s sleep
   b) Stay hopeful and happy
   c) Wash your hands
   d) All of these

60) Which of the following ways is/are helpful in boosting your immune system?

1. a) Avoid fried food & sugar
   b) Avoid smoking
   c) Get recommended vaccination
   d) All of these

Infectious Diseases:

Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They’re normally harmless or even helpful. But under certain conditions, some organisms may cause disease.

61) Which of the following diseases are commonly spread through the direct transfer of bacteria?

1. a) Inherited diseases
   b) Non-contagious diseases
   c) Infectious diseases
   d) None of these

62) Germs from one person to another person are spread through _______.

1. a) The air droplets
   b) Faecal-oral spread and direct contact through skin
   c) Blood or body fluids
   d) All of these

63) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) COVID-19
   b) Anemia
   c) Typhoid
   d) TB

COVID-19

CORONAVIRUS DISEASE 2019

64) Which of the following is the causative agent of COVID-19 disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Protist
   c) COVID-19 virus
   d) HIV

65) Which of the following is/are slight symptoms of COVID-19 disease?

1. a) Fever
   b) Cough and cold
   c) Body fatigue
   d) All of these

66) Which of the following is/are severe symptoms of COVID-19 disease?

1. a) Respiratory difficulty
   b) Pneumonia
   c) Kidney failure
   d) All of these

67) COVID-19 spreads through _______.

1. a) Direct contact
   b) Breath droplet and coughing
   c) Sneezing
   d) All of these

68) From where is a diagnostic test sample for COVID-19 taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) All of these

69) How can we prevent ourselves from COVID-19?

1. a) Vaccination
   b) Social distancing
   c) Face mask
   d) All of these

70) How can we prevent ourselves from COVID-19?

1. a) Use of sanitizer
   b) Washing hands with soap often
   c) Avoid crowded places
   d) All of these

71) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) Dengue
   b) Anemia
   c) Typhoid
   d) TB

72) Which of the following is the causative agent of Dengue disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Dengue virus
   c) COVID-19 virus
   d) HIV

73) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Dengue?

1. a) High-grade fever
   b) Severe headache
   c) Pain behind eyes
   d) All of these

74) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Dengue?

1. a) Vomiting
   b) Nausea
   c) Skin rash and body pain
   d) All of these

75) COVID-19 spreads through _______.

1. a) Direct contact
   b) Breath droplet and coughing
   c) Sneezing
   d) Bite of Aedes mosquito

76) From where is a diagnostic test sample for Dengue taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) Blood

77) How can we prevent ourselves from Dengue?

1. a) Use of mosquito repellent
   b) Wear fully covered clothes
   c) Drain all standing water
   d) All of these

78) How can we prevent ourselves from Dengue?

1. a) Use of sanitizer
   b) Washing hands with soap often
   c) Avoid crowded places
   d) None of these

79) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) Hepatitis-B
   b) TB
   c) Anemia

Explanation: Hepatitis B is an infectious disease caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV) that affects the liver. It is a type of viral hepatitis. It can cause both acute and chronic infection.

80) Which of the following is the causative agent of Hepatitis-B disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Dengue virus
   c) HBV
   d) HIV

81) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Hepatitis-B?

1. a) Low-grade fever
   b) Loss of hunger
   c) Nausea
   d) All of these

82) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Hepatitis-B?

1. a) Vomiting
   b) Stomach pain
   c) Weakness
   d) All of these

83) Hepatitis-B spreads through _______.

1. a) Blood and body fluid
   b) Multiple use of syringes, needles, and razors
   c) Transfusion of blood
   d) All of these

84) From where is a diagnostic test sample for Hepatitis-B taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) Blood

85) How can we prevent ourselves from Hepatitis-B?

1. a) Single use of disposable syringes
   b) Proper disinfection of dental and surgical instruments
   c) Screening before blood donation
   d) All of these

86) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) Hepatitis-B
   b) Dengue
   c) Typhoid
   d) COVID-19

87) Which of the following is the causative agent of typhoid disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Dengue virus
   c) HBV
   d) HIV

Explanation: Salmonella is a genus of rod-shaped Gram-negative bacteria of the family Enterobacteriaceae. The two species of Salmonella are Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori. S. enterica is the type species and is further divided into six subspecies that include over 2,600 serotypes.

88) Which of the following is/are symptoms of typhoid?

1. a) High-grade fever
   b) Headache
   c) Stomach pain
   d) All of these

89) Which of the following is/are symptoms of typhoid?

1. a) Dizziness
   b) Loss of hunger
   c) Weakness
   d) All of these

90) Typhoid spreads through _______.

1. a) Faecal-oral route
   b) Ingestion of food/drinks contaminated with faeces/urine of typhoid patient
   c) Transfusion of blood
   d) Both a and b

91) From where is a diagnostic test sample for typhoid taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) Blood

92) How can we prevent ourselves from typhoid?

1. a) Vaccination
   b) Wash hands properly after using toilet and before handling food
   c) Eat freshly prepared and properly cooked food and drink boiled/bottled water
   d) All of these

Exercise

93) When the skin is damaged, bacteria enter our body. Which line of defense is crossed by these bacteria?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Third line of defense
   d) Fourth line of defense

94) A newborn baby has less immunity as compared to other people. The baby has only:

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Innate and passive immunity

95) The army of your body has special bullets which can identify the enemy and kill it. These bullets are small proteins called:

1. a) Pathogens
   b) Antibodies
   c) Bacteria
   d) Virus

96) The third line of defense learns about the enemy and adapts accordingly. It is also called:

1. a) Adaptive/Learned immunity
   b) Innate immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Natural immunity

97) Benish is allergic to dust and pollen. Her health issue is a/an:

1. a) Infectious disease
   b) Disease due to pathogens
   c) Viral attack
   d) Non-infectious disease

98) Rabies is a very serious threat to health and life of a person. If a rabies-infected dog bites a person, the only way to save him is by providing:

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Learned immunity

99) Maximum number of additional defense layers is required for:

1. a) Medical staff
   b) Teachers
   c) Students
   d) Lawyers

100) Typhoid and Polio spread by the faecal-oral route. If we want to prevent such diseases in our area we should:

1. a) Control mosquitoes
   b) Control air pollution
   c) Improve hospitals
   d) Improve sanitation and hygiene condition

101) Respiratory system-related diseases mostly spread through:

1. a) Water
   b) Food
   c) Blood
   d) Droplets in air

102) Which of these can provide you with long-term immunity against infectious diseases?

1. a) Antibiotics
   b) Vitamins
   c) Red Blood Cells
   d) Vaccines

Answer Keys

1	2	3		4	5		6		7	8			9		10		11				12		13		14			15		16
d	d	d		d	d		d		a	b			c		b		b				a		b		a			b		a
17	18	19		20		21		22			23			24		25		26		27		28		29			30		31		32
a	a	c		–		c		b			d			d		b		b		a		b		b			c		a		d
33	34	35		36		37		38			39			40		41		42		43		44		45			46		47		48
c	b	a		a		b		a			d			c		b		a		d		a		c			a		d		d
49	50	51		52		53		54			55			56		57		58		59		60		61			62		63		64
c	c	c		c		b		b			b			c		e		d		d		d		c			d		a		c
65	66	67		68		69		70			71			72		73		74		75		76		77			78		79		80
d	d	d		d		d		d			a			d		d		d		d		d		d			d		a		c
81	82	83		84		85		86			87			88		89		90		91		92		93			94		95		96
d	d	d		d		d		c			a			d		d		d		d		a		d			b		a
97			98				99					100							101							102
d			c				a					d							d							d

UNIT NO: 04

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

 

In a physical change, the nature of the substance, the particles of which it is composed, and the number of particles remain unchanged. In a chemical change, the properties of the new substances are different from the original, the particles are different, and the number of particles can change.

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGE

(An image of ice melting and iron rusting is shown as an example of physical and chemical changes.)

1) The universe is made up of:

1. a) Matter
   b) Energy
   c) Things
   d) Light

2) There exist ______ types of changes in matter?

1. a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Six

Explanation:

1. Physical change
2. Chemical change

3) Which of the following change(s) take/s place in matter?

1. a) Physical change
   b) Chemical change
   c) Biological change
   d) Both a and b

Physical Changes:

Physical changes are changes affecting the form of a chemical substance but not its chemical composition.
Physical changes are used to separate mixtures into their component compounds, but they cannot usually be used to separate compounds into chemical elements or simpler compounds.

Examples of Physical and Chemical Change:

Physical Change	Chemical Change
H₂O (Ice → Water)	Iron → Rust (Iron Hydroxides)

4) Which of the following is/are example/s of physical changes?

1. a) Chopping of wood
   b) Burning of paper
   c) Melting of ice
   d) Both a and c

5) New substances are NOT formed in which of the following changes?

1. a) Physical change
   b) Chemical change
   c) Biological change
   d) Both a and b

6) What happens to the ice when it melts?

1. a) It converts into gas (vapors)
   b) It converts into liquid water
   c) It converts into plasma
   d) All of these

7) Which of the following is/are physical change/s?

1. a) Cutting
   b) Grinding
   c) Grinding
   d) All of these

8) Which of the following is/are physical change/s?

1. a) Mixing
   b) Shredding
   c) Freezing
   d) All of these

9) Which of the following is/are physical change/s?

1. a) Breaking glass
   b) Folding paper
   c) Sublimation
   d) All of these

Explanation:

Conversion of a substance from the solid to the gaseous state without it becoming liquid. An example is the vaporization of frozen carbon dioxide (dry ice) at ordinary atmospheric pressure and temperature.

10) Which of the following is NOT an example of physical change?

1. a) Filling up a balloon with air
   b) Freezing of water
   c) Photosynthesis
   d) Boiling of water

11) Which change can easily reverse?

1. a) Chemical change
   b) Physical change
   c) Both chemical and physical changes
   d) Neither chemical nor physical change

Chemical Changes:

Chemical changes occur when a substance combines with another to form a new substance, called chemical synthesis or, alternatively, chemical decomposition into two or more different substances.

Waves and Energy
Waves carry energy. The amount of energy they carry is related to their frequency and their amplitude. The higher the frequency, the more energy, and the higher the amplitude, the more energy.

WAVES: A wave is a propagating dynamic disturbance of one or more quantities. Waves can be periodic, in which case those quantities oscillate repeatedly about an equilibrium value at some frequency.

Introduction:

1. Wave is a disturbance or vibration in a medium which transfers ______ from one place to another.
   a) force
   b) mass
   c) energy
   d) all of these
2. The to and fro motion of a body about its mean position is called ______.
   a) circulatory motion
   b) vibratory motion
   c) linear motion
   d) arbitrary motion
3. Which of the following is/are act/s as a medium for waves?
   a) water and air particles
   b) string
   c) spring
   d) all of these
4. What will happen when you drop a pebble into standing water of a pond?
   a) it will start flowing
   b) waves will produce on water surface
   c) nothing will happen
   d) all of these

Mechanical And Electromagnetic Waves:

Mechanical and electromagnetic waves can be distinguished depending on the medium. Electromagnetic waves travel without the use of a medium, whereas mechanical waves require the use of one. Mechanical waves do not travel in a vacuum, whereas electromagnetic waves do.

1. Waves can be categorized into ______ types on the basis of medium.
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) six

Explanation:

1. Mechanical waves and
2. Electromagnetic waves

1. Which of the following waves only travel through a medium?
   a) electromagnetic
   b) mechanical
   c) both of them
   d) none of them

Explanation:

Waves which propagate through a material medium (solid, liquid, or gas) at a wave speed which depends on the elastic and inertial properties of that medium.

1. Which of the following is an example of mechanical waves which can only travel through a medium?
   a) sound waves
   b) light waves
   c) water waves
   d) both a and c
2. Which of the following is an example of mechanical waves which can only travel through a medium?
   a) seismic waves
   b) infrared waves

Explanation:

Seismic waves are caused by the sudden movement of materials within the Earth, such as slip along a fault during an earthquake.

1. Which of the following waves can travel through a vacuum (without medium)?
   a) electromagnetic
   b) mechanical
   c) both of them
   d) none of them
2. Explanation: Electromagnetic radiation consists of waves of the electromagnetic field, which propagate through space and carry electromagnetic radiant energy. It includes radio waves, microwaves, infrared, light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays.
3. Which of the following waves travel with the speed of light?
   a) electromagnetic
   b) mechanical
   c) both of them
   d) none of them
4. What is the speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum in km per second?
   a) 300
   b) 3000
   c) 30000
   d) 300000
5. Which of the following is/are example(s) of electromagnetic waves which can travel without medium (in vacuum)?
   a) sound waves
   b) light waves
   c) water waves
   d) both a and c
6. Which of the following is/are example(s) of electromagnetic waves which can travel without medium (in vacuum)?
   a) seismic waves
   b) infra-red waves
   c) microwaves
   d) both b and c
7. Which of the following is/are example(s) of electromagnetic waves which can travel without medium (in vacuum)?
   a) X-rays
   b) water waves
   c) microwaves
   d) both a and c
8. Huge explosions occur in the sun continuously. Which of the following is/are produced during these explosions?
   a) heat
   b) light
   c) sound
   d) all of these
9. Light and heat from the sun reach the earth but sound can’t. Why?
   a) light and heat need medium
   b) sound waves need medium
   c) sound waves are electromagnetic
   d) all of these

Transverse Waves and Longitudinal Waves:

Transverse waves cause the medium to move perpendicular to the direction of the wave. Longitudinal waves cause the medium to move parallel to the direction of the wave.

Longitude Wave vs Transverse Wave

1. Waves are divided into ______ types with respect to their nature?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) six

Explanation:

1. Transverse waves
2. Longitudinal waves

Transverse Waves:

A transverse wave is a wave whose oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of the wave’s advance. This is in contrast to a longitudinal wave which travels in the direction of its oscillations. Water waves are an example of a transverse wave.

19) The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate……..to the direction of wave travel is called transverse waves?
a) parallel
b) below
c) perpendicular
d) above

20) Which type of waves is/are produced in rope?
a) electromagnetic
b) transverse
c) longitudinal
d) all of these

21) Which of the following position is the crest of transverse waves?
a) parallel to the mean position
b) above the mean position
c) below the mean position
d) all of these

22) Transverse waves travel in the form of……..
a) compression and rarefaction
b) compression only
c) crest and trough
d) rarefaction only

23) Explanation: A crest point on a wave is the maximum value of upward displacement within a cycle. A crest is a point on a surface wave where the displacement of the medium is at a maximum. A trough is the opposite of a crest, so the minimum or lowest point in a cycle.

Transverse Wave
(Diagram of Transverse Wave with Crest, Trough, Amplitude, and Direction of Travel)

24) Which of the following position is the trough of transverse waves?
a) parallel to the mean position
b) above the mean position
c) below the mean position
d) all of these

25) The portion of transverse waves in which particles of the medium are above the mean position is called……..
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

26) The portion of longitudinal wave in which particles of the medium are below to the mean position is called……..
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

27) Which of the following waves are transverse waves?
a) waves in string
b) secondary waves of earthquake
c) waves in spring
d) both a and b

28) One wave cycle of transverse wave is formed by……..
a) one crest only
b) one trough only
c) one crust and one trough
d) two crest and one trough

Explanation: A wave is a disturbance in a medium that carries energy without a net movement of particles. The wavelength of a wave is called the length of one complete wave cycle. Therefore, one wavelength is referred to as a cycle of a wave.

29) The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate……..to the direction of wave travel is called longitudinal waves?
a) parallel
b) below
c) perpendicular
d) above

30) Longitudinal waves travel in the form of……..
a) compression and rarefaction
b) compression only
c) crest and trough
d) rarefaction only

Explanation: Longitudinal waves are waves in which the vibration of the medium is parallel (“along”) to the direction the wave travels and displacement of the medium is in the same (or opposite) direction of the wave propagation.

Longitudinal Wave
(Diagram of Longitudinal Wave with Compression, Rarefaction, Wavelength, and Direction of Energy Wave)

31) The portion of longitudinal wave in which particles of the medium are closed to each other is called……..
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

32) The portion of longitudinal wave in which particles of the medium are spread out is called
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

33) Longitudinal wave is formed by……..
a) one compression only
b) one rarefaction only
c) one compression and one rarefaction

34) Which of the following waves are longitudinal waves?
a) tsunami waves
b) primary waves of earthquake
c) waves in spring
d) all of these

35) Earthquake generates……….waves.
a) transverse
b) longitudinal
c) both type
d) none of them

Explanation: When an earthquake occurs, it releases energy waves, known as Seismic waves.

Properties of Waves

36) The length of one wave cycle is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Explanation: The distance between identical points (adjacent crests) in the adjacent cycles of a waveform signal propagated in space or along a wire.

37) The distance between two consecutive crests is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency

38) The distance between two consecutive troughs is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency

39) What is the SI unit of wavelength……….
a) meter
b) second
c) hertz

40) The number of waves passing through a point in one second is called……..of the wave.
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency

Explanation: Wave frequency is the number of waves that pass a fixed point in a given amount of time. The SI unit for wave frequency is the hertz (Hz), where 1 hertz equals 1 wave passing a fixed point in 1 second.

41) What is the SI unit of frequency………
a) meter
b) second
c) hertz
d) joule

42) What is the symbol of frequency?
a) f
b) hz
c) t
d) s

43) Which of the following formula is used to calculate the frequency of wave?
a) f = v/λ
b) f = n/t
c) T = v/n
d) T = n/t

44) The time taken by a wave to pass through a point in the medium is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Explanation: T is the time it takes for one complete oscillation, it is measured in seconds.

45) What is the SI unit of time period of wave…..
a) meter
b) second
c) hertz
d) joule

46) Which of the following formula is used to calculate the frequency of wave?
a) f = v/n
b) f = n/t
c) T = v/n
d) T = n/t

47) The maximum displacement of vibrating particle of the medium from mean position when a wave is passing through it is called….
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Explanation: The amplitude of a wave refers to the maximum amount of displacement of a particle on the medium from its rest position.

48) Which of the following measures the energy carried the wave?
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

49) Greater the amplitude of the wave,……..will be the energy carried by it.

1. a) lower
   b) greater
   c) same
   d) none of these

50) Smaller the amplitude of the wave, …… will be the energy carried by it.
a) lower
b) greater
c) same
d) none of these

Relation between Frequency and Time Period of Waves

Frequency is inversely proportional to the time period.
i.e. F = 1/T

51) Frequency of a wave and its time period are……..of each other.
a) direct
b) inverse
c) independent
d) all of these

52) Greater the frequency of a wave……..will be its time period.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

53) Lower the frequency of a wave,……..will be its time period.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

54) Greater the time period of a wave……..will be its frequency.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

55) Lower the time period of a wave……..will be its frequency.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

56) Which of the following relation between frequency and time period of a wave is/are correct?
a) f = 1/T
b) f = T
c) T = 1/f
d) both a and c

57) If waves have high frequency in a medium then it means that there are ………..number of waves or cycles in its region.
a) small
b) large
c) same
d) independent

58) If waves have low frequency in a medium then it means that there are ………..number of waves or cycles in its region.
a) small
b) large
c) same
d) independent

Relation between Amplitude and Frequency of Waves

The relationship between the wave’s amplitude and frequency is such that it is inversely proportional to the frequency. The amplitude decreases as the frequency increases.

59) Which of the following waves carry more energy?
a) greater amplitude and lower frequency
b) greater amplitude and greater frequency
c) smaller amplitude and lower frequency
d) smaller amplitude and greater frequency

60) Which of the following waves carry small energy?
a) greater amplitude and lower frequency
b) greater amplitude and greater frequency
c) smaller amplitude and lower frequency
d) smaller amplitude and greater frequency

61) Loudness of sound depends upon……..of the wave.
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Sound Waves and its Properties

62) When the sound is produced in following cases?
a) when we beat the drum
b) when we pluck the string of guitar
c) when we hit anything
d) all of these

63) Sound is produced by……..bodies.
a) circulating
b) rotating
c) vibrating
d) all of these

64) Sound waves travel………vibrating body.
a) toward
b) away from
c) both
d) none of them

65) Sound waves are which type of the following waves?
a) transverse
b) longitudinal
c) electromagnetic
d) all of these

66) When a drummer hits the drum. What will happen to the skin of drum during the production of sound?

1. a) it will stop vibrating
   b) it will start rotating
   c) it will start vibrating
   d) all of these

67) Sound waves are reached to our ears through
a) radiations
b) air
c) vacuum
d) all of these

68) Which of the following part of body vibrating during speech?
a) tongue
b) pharynx
c) vocal cords
d) trachea

Pitch of Sound

The pitch of sound is determined by the frequency of vibration of the sound waves that produce them.

Lower Pitch – Higher Pitch

69) Who of the following have shrill sound?
a) girls
b) children
c) men
d) both a and b

70) Who of the following have grave sound?
a) girls
b) children
c) men
d) all of these

71) Why the sound of girls and children is shrill and that of males is grave?
a) they have same pitch
b) they have different pitch
c) they have different wavelength
d) they have same frequency

72) Shrill sound has ______ frequency.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) both
d) none of them

73) Grave sound has ______ frequency.
a) lower
b) greater
c) both
d) none of them

74) Which of the following tells us how shrill or grave sound is?
a) pitch
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

75) Sound of the different frequencies can be distinguished by the ______ of sound.
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) pitch

76) Which of the following is/are the example/s of shrill sound/s?
a) children
b) girls
c) whistling
d) all of these

77) Which of the following is/are the example/s of shrill sound/s?
a) chirping of birds
b) male voice
c) lion’s roar
d) all of these

78) Which of the following is/are the example/s of grave sound/s?
a) chirping of birds
b) male voice
c) lion’s roar
d) both a and c

79) Which of the following is/are the example/s of grave sound/s?
a) sound of big drum
b) dog’s barking sound
c) lion’s roar
d) all of these

80) The relationship of pitch and frequency is ______.
a) direct
b) inverse
c) independent
d) variable

81) What will happen to the pitch of sound if its frequency is increased?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) none

82) What will happen to the pitch of sound if its frequency is decreased?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) none

83) Which type of sound will produce if its frequency and pitch is higher?
a) grave
b) shrill
c) low
d) high

84) Which type of sound will produce if its frequency and pitch is lower?
a) grave
b) shrill
c) low
d) high

Loudness of Sound

The loudness of a sound relates the intensity of any given sound to the intensity at the threshold of hearing. It is measured in decibels (dB).

Loudness

The loudness of a sound increases with the amplitude of the sound wave.

85) Loudness of sound is the sensation produced by sound on our ______.
a) brain
b) vocal cord
c) ear
d) skin

86) Which of the following may be different for two sounds having same pitch (frequency)?

Here is the text from the page:

87) The property of sound which helps us to distinguish between a soft sound and a louder sound is called:
a) pitch
b) shrill
c) graveness
d) loudness

88) How many factors affect the loudness of sound?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

Explanation:

1. Amplitude of the wave,
2. Surface area of sound,
3. Distance from sound source,
4. Sensitivity of ear.

89) Loudness of sound is related to which of the following factors?
a) pitch
b) frequency
c) amplitude
d) time period

90) On the basis of amplitude, how many types of sound are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

Explanation:

1. Soft sound
2. Louder sound

91) Loud sound has:
a) greater amplitude
b) greater frequency
c) lower amplitude
d) lower frequency

92) Soft sound has:
a) greater amplitude
b) greater frequency
c) lower amplitude
d) lower frequency

93) What is the relationship between loudness of sound and its amplitude?
a) direct
b) inverse
c) independent
d) variable

94) A wave with larger amplitude has ______ energy.
a) a lot
b) low
c) same
d) variable

95) A wave with smaller amplitude has had ______ energy.
a) a lot
b) low
c) same
d) variable

96) If the surface area of the sound producing body is larger, what type of sound will be produced?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

97) If the surface area of the sound producing body is smaller, what type of sound will be produced?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

98) Which type of sound will produce from beating a small drum?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

99) Which type of sound will produce from beating a large drum?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

100) If the listener is standing near a sound source, what type of sound he/she will hear?
a) soft
b) louder
c) shrill
d) grave

101) If the listener is standing away from the sound source, what type of sound he/she will hear?
a) soft
b) louder
c) shrill
d) grave

102) Loudness of sound depends upon the condition of:
a) health
b) brain
c) heart
d) ear

103) Which type of sound usually old people cannot listen?
a) soft
b) louder
c) shrill
d) grave

Some Common Phenomenon of Sound

1. ECHO

An echo is a repetition or a partial repetition of a sound due to reflection.

![Diagram of sound reflection]
“Sound reflects back”

104) When we speak in a big hall of hilly area or an empty well, we hear our own sound again and again. What is this phenomenon?
a) shrill
b) graveness
c) echo
d) loudness

105) Echo is repetition of sound due to reflection of sound waves from a:
a) soft surface
b) hard surface
c) vacuum
d) all of these

106) To hear echo, sound must reach our ear in how much time?
a) 0.001 second
b) 0.01 second
c) 0.1 second
d) 1 second

107) The feeling of original sound remains in our brain till:
a) 0.001 second
b) 0.01 second
c) 0.1 second
d) 1 second

108) When our brain cannot recognize original sound and its echo?

Here is the text from the page:

109) What should be the minimum distance between the speaker and reflecting surface?
a) 10 m
b) 1000 m
c) 100 m
d) 17 m

110) What is the speed of sound in air?
a) zero
b) 340 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 140 m/s

111) What is the speed of sound in vacuum?
a) zero
b) 340 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 140 m/s

2. HEARING THUNDER AFTER LIGHTNING

Thunder will always be heard after the lightning strike is seen owing to the fact that light travels significantly faster than sound.

Thunder & Lightning

112) During lightning in the sky, when both light and sound are produced?
a) at different time
b) at same time
c) sound before light
d) light before sound

113) Why we see light before the sound of thunder during lightning in the sky?
a) sound is faster than light
b) light is faster than sound
c) the speed of sound and light is same
d) none of these

114) What is the speed of sound at 0°C temperature?
a) zero
b) 332 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 140 m/s

115) What is the speed of light?
a) zero
b) 340 km/s
c) 240 km/s
d) 300,000 km/s

Exercise

116) Hertz is the unit of:
a) mass
b) energy
c) loudness
d) frequency

117) To hear sound echo, minimum distance between sound source and obstacle should be
a) 17 cm
b) 17 m
c) 71 m
d) 0.17 m

118) Which of the following is a longitudinal wave?
a) X-rays
b) waves on stretched rope
c) P-seismic waves
d) S-seismic waves

119) Which has highest pitch of sound?
a) lion roar
b) whistling sound
c) train horn
d) traffic noise

120) Sound waves cannot pass through:
a) solids
b) liquids
c) gases
d) vacuum

121) Which of the following animal has the lowest pitch of sound?
a) sparrow
b) mosquito
c) cat
d) dog

122) If frequency of sound is doubled but amplitude of this sound wave is kept constant, then:
a) loudness and pitch both increases
b) loudness and pitch both decreases
c) loudness increases and pitch remains same
d) loudness remains same and pitch increases

123) Which of the following is a longitudinal wave?
a) sound wave
b) water waves on surface of ocean
c) light
d) string wave

124) Product of frequency and time period of a wave is:
a) 1
b) 1/T
c) 1/f
d) 0

Answer Keys

1	2					3					4						5			6				7				8						9		10										11							12						13											14							15							16
c	b					D					d						a			b				a				b						a		b										d							d						d											d							a							b
17			18						19					20								21						22						23						24					25						26							27						28					29						30							31							32
a			b						d					a								d						d						d						d					b						b							a						a					d						a							d							a
33			34						35					36							37					38					39								40			41						42							43						44					45						46							47							48
a			c						d					b							a					b					c								a			c						e							a						d					b						c							a							a
49					50					51						52						53					54					55							56					57						58							59						60				61							62							63							64
b					b					a						a						b					d					a							b					d						a							b						c				a							b							d							b
65				66								67						68					69						70				71					72					73						74							75						76						77					78							79							80
b				b								a						b					d						a				d					b					a						b							c						b						d					b							a							d
81				82								83						84					85						86				87					88					89						90							91						92						93					94							95							96
b				a								c						d					d						b				b					d					a						c							d						d						a					b							d							b
97		98						99					100						101						102					103					104						105						106							107						108					109						110							111							112
c		b						d					b						c						e					d					c						d						d							b						a					b						a							b							b
113							114								115								116							117							118						119									120								121								122								123							124
b							b								d								d							C							b						d									d								d								a								a							a

 

Unit No 05

Heat and Temperature

 

Heat is a measure of change, never a property possessed by an object or system. Therefore, it is classified as a process variable. Temperature describes the average kinetic energy of molecules within a material or system and is measured in Celsius (°C), Kelvin (K), Fahrenheit (°F), or Rankine (R).

HEAT TEMPERATURE

1. According to the kinetic theory of particles, matter consists of tiny particles called…..
   a) atoms
   b) molecules
   c) sub-atomic particles
   d) ions
2. According to the kinetic theory of particles, atoms combine together to form…..
   a) radical
   b) molecules
   c) sub-atomic particles
   d) ions

Explanation: The kinetic theory of matter (particle theory) says that all matter consists of many, very small particles that are constantly moving or in a continual state of motion. The degree to which the particles move is determined by the amount of energy they have and their relationship to other particles.

1. How many states of matter are present?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: 1. Solid, 2. Liquid, and 3. Gas

1. According to the kinetic theory of particles, which of the following states of matter only vibrate about their mean position?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) all
2. According to the kinetic theory of particles, which of the following states of matter can flow?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) both b and c
3. Due to which of the following, particles have kinetic energy?
   a) motion
   b) potential energy due to attraction between them
   c) size of particle
   d) both a and b
4. Which of the following particles have greater kinetic energy?
   a) particles of gases
   b) particles of liquids
   c) particles of solids
   d) all of these
5. Which of the following particles have smallest kinetic energy?
   a) particles of liquids
   b) particles of gases
   c) particles of solids
   d) all of these
6. Which of the following particles have intermediate kinetic energy?
   a) particles of gases
   b) particles of liquids
   c) particles of solids
   d) all of these
7. Which of the following total energy in a substance is called thermal energy?
   a) kinetic energy
   b) potential energy
   c) heat energy
   d) both a and b
8. Kinetic energy increases with the increase of which of the following factors?
   a) temperature
   b) pressure
   c) humidity
   d) salinity

Temperature

Temperature is a physical quantity that expresses the hotness of matter or radiation. … Temperature is measured with a thermometer.

1. What is the temperature of boiling water?
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 0°F
   d) 100°F
2. Temperature is the measure of how ……….. a body is.
   a) hot
   b) cold
   c) soft
   d) both a and b
3. Which of the following is the measure of average kinetic energy?
   a) heat
   b) temperature
   c) motion
4. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the temperature?
   a) sphygmomanometer
   b) thermometer
   c) ammeter
   d) voltmeter

Explanation: A thermometer is a device that measures temperature or a temperature gradient. A thermometer has two important elements: a temperature sensor in which some change occurs with a change in temperature; and some means of converting this change into a numerical value.

1. Which of the following is/are the SI unit of temperature?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
2. Which of the following is/are unit/s used to measure the temperature of the body?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following unit/s is/are used for scientific calculation of temperature?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
4. Which of the following unit/s is/are used for clinical purpose?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
5. Which of the following unit/s is/are used for normal day life temperature (for weather)?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)

Temperature Scales

Scale of temperature is a methodology of calibrating the physical quantity temperature in metrology. Empirical scales measure temperature in relation to convenient and stable parameters, such as the freezing and boiling point of water.

1. How many scales are used to measure the temperature of a body?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: 1. Kelvin scale, 2. Celsius scale, and 3. Fahrenheit scale.

1. To form a temperature scale, how many fixed or reference points are marked?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: 1. Lower reference point and 2. Upper reference point.

1. Which of the following is taken as the lower reference point for making a temperature scale?
   a) boiling point of water
   b) melting point of ice
   c) boiling point of alcohol
   d) melting point of iron
2. Which of the following is taken as the upper reference point for making a temperature scale?
   a) boiling point of water
   b) melting point of ice
   c) boiling point of alcohol
   d) melting point of iron

Kelvin Scale

The Kelvin, symbol K, is the primary unit of temperature in the International System of Units. Used alongside its prefixed forms and the degree Celsius.

1. On Kelvin scale, what is freezing point of water?
   a) 0° K
   b) 100° K
   c) 273° K
   d) 373° K
2. On Kelvin scale, what is boiling point of water?
   a) 173° K
   b) 73° K
   c) 273° K
   d) 373° K
3. How many equal divisions are present between the freezing point and boiling point of water on Kelvin scale?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 73
   d) 273

Celsius Scale

The degree Celsius is the unit of temperature on the Celsius scale, one of two temperature scales used in the International System of Units, alongside the Kelvin scale. The degree Celsius can refer to a specific temperature on the Celsius scale or a unit to indicate a difference or range between two temperatures.

1. On Celsius scale, what is freezing point of water?
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 273°C
   d) 373°C
2. On Celsius scale, what is boiling point of water?
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 273°C
   d) 373°C
3. How many equal divisions are present between the freezing point and boiling point of water on Celsius scale?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 73
   d) 273
4. Change of one Kelvin is the same as change of ……… degree/s centigrade.
   a) one
   b) two
   c) three
   d) ten

Fahrenheit Scale

The Fahrenheit scale is a temperature scale based on one proposed in 1724 by the physicist Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit. It uses the degree Fahrenheit as the unit.

1. On Fahrenheit scale, what is freezing point of water?
   a) 32°F
   b) 212°F
   c) 273°F
   d) 373°F
2. On Fahrenheit scale, what is boiling point of water?
   a) 32°F
   b) 212°F
   c) 273°F
   d) 373°F
3. How many equal divisions are present between the freezing point and boiling point of water on Fahrenheit scale?
   a) 180
   b) 100
   c) 73
   d) 273
4. Change of one degree Fahrenheit is ……… as change of one degree Kelvin or centigrade.
   a) less
   b) more
   c) equal

Differences between Celsius scale and Fahrenheit scale

°C = (°F – 32) × 5/9
°F = (9/5 × °C) + 32

Conversion of Temperatures b/w Different Scales

1. From Celsius scale to Kelvin scale, which of the following equation is used?
   a) T(K) = T(C) + 173
   b) T(K) = T(C) + 273
   c) T(K) = T(C) + 373
   d) T(K) = T(C) + 100
2. From Celsius to Fahrenheit scale, which of the following formula is used?
   a) T(F) = 2.8 T(C) + 32
   b) T(F) = 1.8 T(C) + 272
   c) T(F) = 1.8 T(C) + 32
   d) T(F) = 1.8 T(C) – 32
3. What is the temperature of healthy person on Celsius scale?
   a) 373°C
   b) 37°C
   c) 212°C
   d) 273°C
4. What is the temperature of healthy person on Kelvin scale?
   a) 373° K
   b) 37° K
   c) 310° K
   d) 273° K
5. What is the temperature of healthy person on Fahrenheit scale?
   a) 310°F
   b) 37°F
   c) 212°F
   d) 98.6°F
6. Temperature of healthy person is 37°C. What is this temperature on Kelvin scale?
   a) 373° K
   b) 37° K
   c) 310° K
   d) 273° K

Calculation:
T(K) = T(C) + 273
T(K) = 37 + 273

1. Temperature of healthy person is 37°C. What is this temperature on Fahrenheit scale?
   a) 373°F
   b) 37°F
   c) 98.6°F
   d) 273°F

Calculation:
T(F) = 1.8 T(C) + 32
T(F) = 1.8 × 37 + 32
T(F) = 98.6°F

1. What is the lowest temperature on the Kelvin scale?
   a) 0° K
   b) 100° K
   c) 273° K
   d) 32° K
2. Which of the following temperature is called absolute zero?
   a) 0°C
   b) 0°K
   c) 273°C
   d) 32°F
3. Absolute zero is equal to ……… °C.
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 273°C
   d) -273°C

Explanation:
Absolute zero is the lowest limit of the thermodynamic temperature scale, a state at which the enthalpy and entropy of a cooled ideal gas reach their minimum value, taken as zero kelvin.

Absolute Zero

(Image illustrating Absolute Zero in Kelvin, Celsius, and Fahrenheit)

1. On which of the following temperature, the molecules of matter stop moving?
   a) 0°C
   b) 0°K
   c) 273°K
   d) 32°F
2. Why is it impossible to reach absolute zero?
   a) because molecules are always stationary
   b) because molecules are always moving
   c) because molecules are always charged
   d) because molecules are always neutral

Heat

Heat is the transfer of kinetic energy from one medium or object to another, or from an energy source to a medium or object.

1. Which of the following is a form of energy?
   a) temperature
   b) light
   c) pressure
   d) heat
2. Heat is a form of energy that flows from ……… to ………. body.
   a) colder – hotter
   b) hotter – hotter
   c) colder – colder
   d) hotter – colder
3. What will happen when water in a pot is heated?
   a) the kinetic energy of molecules remains same
   b) the kinetic energy of molecules increases
   c) the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
   d) the kinetic energy of molecules is independent of temperature
4. When temperature of a body increases then it ……… heat.
   a) loses
   b) absorbs
   c) both a and b
5. When temperature of a body falls then it ……… heat.
   a) loses
   b) absorbs
   c) both a and b
6. A body at higher temperature will have ……… amount of heat.
   a) same
   b) smaller
   c) greater
7. A body at lower temperature will have ……… amount of heat.
   a) same
   b) smaller
   c) greater
8. Heat will flow ……… between objects which have greater temperature difference.
   a) faster
   b) same rate
   c) slower
9. Heat will flow ……… between objects which have smaller temperature difference.
   a) faster
   b) same rate
   c) slower
10. Amount of heat depends on which of the following?
    a) type of matter
    b) mass
    c) pressure
11. If two bodies at different temperatures are touched to each other, heat will continue to flow from hot body to cold body until they attain same temperature, called ………
    a) thermal conductance
    b) thermal stability
    c) thermal equilibrium
    d) thermal expansion
12. Which of the following cup of tea has more amount of heat?
    a) half cup
    b) full cup
    c) heat is independent of mass
    d) same
13. Which of the following cup of tea has less amount heat?
    a) half cup
    b) full cup
    c) heat is independent of mass
    d) same

1. What is the SI unit of heat?
   a) Kelvin
   b) Celsius
   c) Joule
   d) Fahrenheit

Explanation:
The SI unit of heat is also joules (J) which are defined as the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of a given mass by one degree.

1. What is the SI unit of energy?
   a) Newton
   b) Celsius
   c) Joule
   d) Watt

Thermal Expansion

Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to change its shape, area, volume, and density in response to a change in temperature.

1. Which of the following of a substance changes on heating?
   a) length
   b) shape
   c) volume and density
   d) all of these
2. When a substance is heated, its length, volume, shape or density change, this is called
   a) thermal conductance
   b) thermal stability
   c) thermal equilibrium
   d) thermal expansion
3. What happens to all three states of matter on heating?
   a) they contract
   b) they expand
   c) they do not change
   d) all of these
4. What happens to all three states of matter on cooling?
   a) they contract
   b) they expand
   c) they do not change
   d) all of these
5. Thermal expansion is ………. for different states of the same substance.
   a) same
   b) different
   c) not fixed
   d) all of these
6. Which of the following states of matter expand more than others?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) none
7. Liquid substances expand more than ………. states of matter.
   a) solid
   b) liquid
   c) gas
   d) none

Thermal Expansion in Solids

When a solid is heated, its atoms vibrate faster about their fixed points. The relative increase in the size of solids when heated is therefore small.

1. In which of the following state of matter, the particles vibrate about their mean position but don’t leave their positions?
   a) solid
   b) liquid
   c) gaseous
2. Why do solids expand on heating?
   a) their particles vibrate with greater amplitude
   b) the gap between neighboring atoms increases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles increases
   d) all of these
3. Why do solids contract on cooling?
   a) their particles vibrate with smaller amplitude
   b) the gap between neighboring atoms decreases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles decreases
   d) all of these
4. Why do solids contract on cooling?
   a) their particles vibrate with greater amplitude
   b) the gap between neighboring atoms increases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles increases
   d) none of these

Thermal Expansion in Fluids (Liquids and Gases)

Increase in dimensions of a liquid on being heated is called thermal expansion of the liquid. Liquids have only volume. When heated, its volume increases. Increase in volume is called cubical expansion.

1. In which of the following states of matter, the particles are at large distance from each other than solid?
   a) solid
   b) liquid
   c) gaseous
   d) both b and c
2. Why do liquids expand on heating?
   a) the gap between their particles decreases
   b) their force of attraction increases
   c) their particles start moving with greater kinetic energy
   d) all of these
3. Why do liquids contract on cooling?
   a) their particles start moving with smaller kinetic energy
   b) the gap between their particles decreases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles decreases
   d) all of these

Effect of Thermal Expansion & Contraction with their Applications in our Daily Life

1. Which of the following substances expand on heating and contract on cooling?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) all substances
2. Which of the following substances is used in a thermometer?
   a) iron
   b) mercury
   c) copper
   d) gold

Explanation:
A thermometer is an example of thermal expansion. The thermometer helps us measure the amount of temperature or… (sentence cut off).

1. Why does it become easier to open a tight metal lid on heating?
   a) metal lid expands on heating
   b) metal lid contracts on heating
   c) metal lid expands on cooling
   d) none of these
2. Why are gaps in railway tracks left?
   a) it could contract in winter
   b) it could expand in summer
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these
3. Why are bridges divided into small sections with expansion joints?
   a) it could contract in winter
   b) it could expand in summer
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

Explanation:
An expansion joint is a part of the bridge that helps absorb thermal expansion or thermal contraction. Basically, when concrete gets hot, it can expand, and when it gets cold, it contracts. To account for that movement, expansion joints are put in bridges. Without those joints, there would be cracks in the structures.

Transfer of Heat

1. There are ………. different methods to transfer heat.
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

1. If you place one end of a spoon on a flame, its other end becomes hot. It is due to ……… of heat.
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
2. In which of the following methods is heat transferred from a hot body to a cold body by the vibration of particles?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
3. In solids, heat is transferred by the ………. of heat.
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
4. Which of the following is/are good conductors of heat?
   a) metals
   b) non-metals
   c) solids
   d) all of these
5. Which of the following is NOT a good insulator?
   a) wood
   b) water
   c) metal
   d) plastic
6. Which of the following is/are poor conductor of heat?
   a) metals
   b) non-metals
   c) solids
   d) all of these
7. Why are cooking utensils made up of metals?
   a) metals are insulators
   b) metals are poor conductors of heat
   c) metals are good conductors
   d) all of these
8. Why are metals good conductors?
   a) they have small atomic mass
   b) they have small size
   c) they have free electrons
   d) all of these
9. Which of the following transfers heat in conductors (metals)?
   a) protons
   b) free electrons
   c) neutrons
10. Which of the following is/are non-metal/s?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
11. Which of the following cannot conduct heat easily?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
12. Which of the following is/are poor conductors?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
13. Which of the following is/are insulator/s?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
14. Why are non-metals poor conductors or insulators?
    a) they have small atomic mass
    b) they have small size
    c) they have no free electrons
    d) all of these
15. In three states of matter, which of them is/are good conductor/s of heat?

1. Which of the following is the best insulator?
   a) wood
   b) water
   c) air
   d) iron
2. Why do we wear wool sweaters and wool clothes to keep our body warm?
   a) they trap air
   b) they conduct heat very well
   c) they are cheaper
   d) all of these
3. Why do birds fluff out in winter to remain warm?
   a) they trap air in wings
   b) they breathe very hot air
   c) they attract heat to themselves
   d) all of these

Convection

Convection is the process by which heat is transferred by the movement of a heated fluid such as air or water.

1. Which of the following is/are examples of convection of heat?
   a) water current moving on the surface of boiling water
   b) hot air balloon rising high in the sky
   c) heating of metal rod
   d) both a and b
2. The transfer of heat by actual movement of molecules from a hot place to a cold place is known as ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
3. Convection can take place in which of the following states of matter?
   a) gas
   b) liquid
   c) solid
   d) both a and b
4. Why is convection not possible in solids?
   a) particles of solids are vibrating
   b) particles of solid cannot move freely
   c) particles of solid can move freely
   d) all of these
5. What happens to the bottom water in a pot when heated?
   a) bottom water becomes hot
   b) bottom water rises due to low density
   c) bottom water expands
   d) all of these
6. Which of the following water is denser?
   a) hot water
   b) cold water
   c) water vapors
7. Which of the following water is less dense?
   a) hot water
   b) cold water
   c) moderate water
   d) all of these
8. The hot water (lighter) moves up and cold water (denser) goes down to the bottom, and a circulating flow of water is established. This is called ………
   a) conduction current
   b) convection current
   c) radiation current
   d) all of these

Explanation:
Convection currents are movements of fluid caused by a temperature or density difference within a material.

1. The air near the surface of land becomes hotter during the day and rises straight up. This is called ………
   a) conduction current
   b) convection current
   c) radiation current
   d) thermal
2. Which of the following helps birds to fly for a long time in air without flapping their wings?
   a) the gravity of the earth
   b) their body weight
   c) radiation current
   d) thermal
3. Which of the following are the best thermal climbers?
   a) hawks
   b) vultures
   c) pigeons
   d) both a and b
4. Land and sea breezes are due to ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation

Radiation

In physics, radiation is the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or through a material medium.

1. The transfer of heat from a hot place to a cold place with or without having a material medium in between, in the form of electromagnetic waves, is called ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
2. The heat from the heater reaches us by ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
3. Why does heat from heaters not reach us by conduction?
   a) air is a bad conductor of heat
   b) air particles cannot move
   c) we cannot sit on the heater
   d) the distance between the heater and us is greater
4. Why does heat from heaters not reach us by convection?
   a) air is a bad conductor of heat
   b) hot air rises up
   c) hot air is denser
   d) the distance between the heater and us is greater
5. The heat from the sun reaches us from millions of kilometers in the empty space by ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
6. Why does heat from the sun not reach us by conduction?

a) no matter is present in space
b) no air is present in space
c) no water is present in space
d) both b and c

1. Why heat from the sun cannot reach us by convection?
   a) no matter is present in space
   b) no air is present in space
   c) no water is present in space
   d) both b and c
2. Which of the following waves carry energy from the sun to the earth?
   a) longitudinal
   b) mechanical
   c) electromagnetic
   d) all of these

Explanation: Solar radiation, often called the solar resource or just sunlight, is a general term for the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the sun.

1. Which of the following waves are electromagnetic and carry heat from the sun to the earth?
   a) radio waves
   b) infrared (I.R)
   c) visible light
   d) all of these
2. Which of the following waves are electromagnetic and carry heat from the sun to the earth?
   a) X-rays
   b) gamma rays
   c) infra-red
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following electromagnetic waves carry the most amount of heat energy?
   a) X-rays
   b) gamma rays
   c) infra-red (I.R)
   d) visible light
4. Which of the following methods is used to warm the greenhouses in winter?
   a) conduction current
   b) convection current
   c) radiation current
   d) none of these

Thermal Insulation for Constructing Buildings

1. Heat enters buildings from ……… sides.
   a) top
   b) bottom
   c) front
   d) all sides
2. Most of the heat enters buildings from ………
   a) roofs
   b) bottom
   c) front
   d) all sides
3. Which of the following process/es transfer/s heat into buildings?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
4. False ceiling below the roof is done with air trapped between the ceiling and the roof. By which method is the transfer of heat from outside to inside the room controlled?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these

Explanation: A false ceiling is a type of construction that involves the installation of a secondary ceiling below the original ceiling.

1. By laying down a reflector on the top of the roof and whitewashing the roof, by which method is the transfer of heat from outside to inside the room controlled?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these

Explanation: White and shiny surfaces are poor absorbers and good reflectors of heat.

1. Which of the following method/s is/are used to control the temperature of a building?
   a) insulating panels attached with the front wall
   b) false ceiling
   c) double-glazed windows and doors are installed
   d) all of these

Exercise

1. “J” is the symbol for joule; it is the unit of ………
   a) temperature
   b) heat
   c) power
   d) voltage
2. If your classroom temperature is 27°C, what is its value in the Kelvin scale?
   a) 27 K
   b) 373 K
   c) 300 K
   d) 246 K

Explanation: T(K) = T(°C) + 273
T(K) = 27 + 273
T(K) = 300 K

1. Which of the following is the best conductor?
   a) wood
   b) water
   c) metal
   d) plastic
2. Which temperature of the following represents the melting point of ice?
   a) 0 K
   b) 32°C
   c) 273 K
   d) 0°F

Explanation: T(°C) = T(K) – 273
T(°C) = 273 – 273

T(C) = 0°C
The melting point of ice is 0°C OR 273 K

1. Mercury thermometer is used to measure temperature of a body. Which process is used in it?
   a) convection
   b) radiation
   c) thermal expansion
   d) insulation
2. Which of the following is the worst conductor?
   a) metal
   b) wool
   c) wood
   d) air
3. Conduction of heat best takes place in………
   a) solids
   b) fluids
   c) gases
4. Materials that trap air like fur, wool, and sawdust are heat……….
   a) insulators
   b) conductors
   c) convectional devices
   d) reflectors
5. The heat transfer that occurs due to a density difference in fluids is……..
   a) conduction
   b) radiation
   c) convection
   d) insulation
6. Huge amount of heat is being generated on sun. This heat reaches from sun to earth by……
   a) radiation only
   b) convection only
   c) convection and radiation
   d) conduction, convection, and radiation

Answer Keys

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12	13	14	15	16
a	b	b	a	d	b	a	c	b	d	a	a	b	d	b	b

 

17	18	19	20	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30	31	32
b	d	b	c	a	b	a	b	a	c	d	b	a	b	b	a

 

33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48
a	b	a	a	b	c	b	c	d	c	e	b	d	b	d	b

 

49	50	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60	61	62	63	64
d	d	b	b	a	c	b	a	e	b	c	b	a	c	e	d

 

65	66	67	68	69	70	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
d	b	a	b	c	a	a	d	d	d	d	c	d	b	b	a

 

81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90	91	92	93	94	95	96
c	c	b	a	a	a	c	b	c	c	c	b	d	d	d	-d

 

97	98	99	100	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110	111	112
c	c	a	a	d	b	d	b	d	b	b	a	b	d	d	d

 

113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128
b	c	c	a	b	c	a	d	c	d	d	d	c	c	d	a

 

129	130	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140	141
a	c	d	b	c	c	c	c	d*	a	a	a	a

 

Technology in Everyday Life
Unit No: 06

Water Conservation

Water conservation includes all the policies, strategies and activities to sustainably manage the natural resource of fresh water, to protect the hydrosphere, and to meet the current and future human demand.

1. Carefully use of water in order to avoid any wastage is called…….
   a) water conservation
   b) water pollution
   c) water management
   d) water recycling
2. How much percentage of the earth surface is covered by water?
   a) 30
   b) 40
   c) 60
   d) 70

[Explanation] About 71 percent of the Earth’s surface is water-covered, and the oceans hold about 96.5 percent of all Earth’s water. Water also exists in the air as water vapor, in rivers and lakes, in icecaps and glaciers, in the ground as soil moisture and in aquifers, and even in you and your dog.

1. How much percentage of the earth surface is covered by land?
   a) 30
   b) 40
   c) 60
   d) 70
2. How much percentage of the total water is present in sea?
   a) 70
   b) 40
   c) 90
   d) 98
3. How much percentage of the total water is fresh water?
   a) 70
   b) 2
   c) 90
   d) 98
4. How much percentage of the total fresh water is present in the form of ice and glaciers?
   a) 70
   b) 87
   c) 90
   d) 98
5. How much percentage of the total fresh water is present in the form of rivers and lakes?
   a) 1
   b) 87
   c) 12
   d) 98
6. How much percentage of the total fresh water is present in the form of ground water?
   a) 1
   b) 87
   c) 12
   d) 98
7. Which of the following is most essential for life?
   a) minerals
   b) water
   c) habitat
   d) food
8. Which of the following is/are the domestic use/s of water?
   a) drinking and cleaning
   b) bathing
   c) cooking and washing
   d) all of these
9. In which of the following, water is required?
   a) domestic
   b) agriculture
   c) industries
   d) all of these

Facts about Water Scarcity

1. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the number of people who do not have direct access to drinking water are…….
   a) 2.1 million
   b) 2.1 billion
   c) 4.1 million
   d) 4.2 billion

[Explanation] With 189 member countries, the World Bank Group is a unique global partnership fighting poverty worldwide through sustainable solutions.

1. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of natural disasters caused by water…….
   a) 10%
   b) 90%
   c) 30%
   d) 42%

[Explanation] UNICEF, in full originally called the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, now officially United Nations Children’s Fund, is an agency of the United Nations responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.

1. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of total water consumed by agricultural activities…….
   a) 70%
   b) 90%
   c) 30%
   d) 42%

[Explanation] The United Nations is an intergovernmental organization whose stated purposes are to maintain international peace and security, develop friendly relations among nations, achieve international cooperation, and be a center for harmonizing the actions of nations.

1. According to the World Bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the number of people whose drinking water is provided by desalination plants……..
   a) 200 million
   b) 2.1 billion
   c) 300 million
   d) 4.2 billion
2. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of increase in water consumption from now to 2050
   a) 70%
   b) 90%
   c) 30%
   d) 42%
3. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of total water wasted each day by the world’s water pipelines…….
   a) 7%
   b) 9%
   c) 30%
   d) 40%
4. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of dams around the world used for irrigation…….
   a) 70%
   b) 48%
   c) 38%
   d) 12%

Make a Model for Drip and Sprinkler Irrigation System

Drip irrigation or trickle irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that has the potential to save water and nutrients by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants, either from above the soil surface or buried below the surface.

Drip Irrigation Working Model

DIY Easy

1. Why both sprinkle and drip irrigation system are used?
   a) to save energy
   b) to save labor
   c) to save water
   d) to save land
2. In the process of drip system irrigation, the water reaches directly to the…….
   a) flowers
   b) air
   c) roots
   d) leaves
3. In the irrigation process, most of the water is wasted through…….
   a) absorption
   b) evaporation
   c) condensation
   d) precipitation
4. How much percent water use is reduced by the drip irrigation as compared to a conventional sprinkler?
   a) 10 to 20%
   b) 20 to 40%
   c) 30 to 70%
   d) 50 to 100%

Preservation of Food

Food preservation, any of a number of methods by which food is kept from spoilage after harvest or slaughter. Such practices date to prehistoric times.

1. Preventing the food from spoilage is called food…….
   a) protection
   b) fermentation
   c) preservation
2. Humans have been preserving food for…….
   a) recent years
   b) hundred years
   c) two hundred years
   d) thousands of years
3. Food preservation can be found in…….culture on the planet earth?
   a) Greek
   b) Ethiopian
   c) every
4. Which of the following is/are the most common method/s of preserving food at home today?
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying
   d) all of these
5. The food is heated at a specified temperature and then vacuum sealed in special glass jars. This method of preserving food is called…….
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying

[Explanation] Canning, the process of placing foods in jars or cans and heating properly to a specified temperature, is a way to preserve many different foods.

1. For which of the following foods, canning works for foods such as…….
   a) fruits
   b) vegetables
   c) meat and seafood
   d) all of these
2. The method of preserving food by chilling up to -18°C is called……
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying
   d) none of these

[Explanation] Freezing food preserves it from the time it is prepared to the time it is eaten. Since early times, farmers, fishermen, and trappers have preserved grains and produce in unheated buildings during the winter season.

1. For which of the following foods, freezing works for foods such as…….
   a) vegetables and grains
   b) fruits and nuts
   c) meat, egg, and seafood
   d) all of these
2. The method of preserving food by removing moisture is called……
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying
   d) none of these

[Explanation] Food drying is a method of food preservation in which food is dried (dehydrated or desiccated).

Drying Food

1. For which of the following foods, drying method of preservation is used…….
   a) fruits, legumes, and nuts
   b) vegetables and grains
   c) meat, egg, and seafood
   d) all of these
2. Which bacteria are encouraged to grow during fermentation?
   a) good bacteria
   b) bad bacteria
   c) infectious bacteria
   d) all of these

[Explanation] The fermentation process involves the oxidation of carbohydrates to generate a range of products, which are principally organic acids, alcohol, and carbon dioxide. Such products have a preservative effect by limiting the growth of spoilage or pathogenic microbiota in the food.

1. Why do we ferment food?
   a) to make it tastier
   b) to preserve it
   c) to decorate it
   d) to destroy it
2. Which of the following is/are fermented food/s?
   a) sauerkraut
   b) cured sausage
   c) yogurt
   d) all of these
3. Sauerkraut is a fermented food product. Which of the following is/are its source/s?
   a) cabbage
   b) milk
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these

[Explanation] Sauerkraut is finely cut raw cabbage that has been fermented by various lactic acid bacteria. It has a long shelf life and a distinctive sour flavor, both of which result from the lactic acid formed when the bacteria ferment the sugars in the cabbage leaves. It is one of the best-known national dishes in Germany.

1. Yogurt is a fermented food product. Which of the following is/are its source/s?
   a) cabbage
   b) milk
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these
2. Cured sausage is a fermented food product. Which of the following is/are its source/s?
   a) meat
   b) milk
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these

1. In pickling, the food is soaked in a solution containing…….
   a) salt
   b) acid
   c) base
   d) both a and b
2. Which of the following acid/s is/are used for pickling?
   a) vinegar
   b) lemon juice
   c) sulphuric acid
   d) both a and b
3. Which of the following is/are old-fashioned methods of preserving food?
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) dry salting
   d) both a and b

[Explanation] Dry salting is used to draw the moisture out of food, which helps to reduce the growth of unwanted bacteria.

1. In the early twentieth century, which of the following methods was used as an alternative to canning?
   a) curing
   b) freezing
   c) dry salting
   d) both a and b
2. Which of the following is a complex method of preservation?
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) dry salting
   d) curing

[Explanation] Curing is the addition to meats of some combination of salt, sugar, nitrite and/or nitrate for the purposes of preservation, flavor, and color.

1. Curing is similar to…….
   a) drying
   b) freezing
   c) pickling
   d) both a and b

[Explanation] Pickling is defined as the process of preserving a food by either anaerobic fermentation in brine or immersion in vinegar.

1. In addition to salt and acid, which of the following are used in curing?
   a) sulphates
   b) nitrates
   c) phosphates
   d) alkalis
2. For which of the following foods, curing is specially used?
   a) vegetables and grains
   b) fruits and nuts
   c) meat and fish
   d) milk
3. Who for the first time found out that heating at a certain temperature makes the food microbe-free?
   a) A. Flaming
   b) Joseph Lister
   c) Louis Pasteur
   d) Charles Darwin
4. Louis Pasteur was a…chemist and microbiologist.
   a) English
   b) French
   c) German
   d) American
5. Heating food at a certain temperature to make it microbe-free is called…….
   a) drying
   b) freezing
   c) pickling
   d) pasteurization

[Explanation] Pasteurization (or pasteurisation) is the process by which heat is applied to food and beverages to kill pathogens and extend shelf life.

Stethoscope:

The stethoscope is a medical device for auscultation, or listening to internal sounds of an animal or human body.

1. Which of the following instrument is used by doctors to listen to heart beat?
   a) microscope
   b) telescope
   c) ophthalmoscope
   d) stethoscope
2. Stethoscope is used to…
   a) check blood circulation
   b) see distant objects
   c) listen heart beat
   d) see tiny objects

Sanitizer

1. Which of the following is used now a day to prevent from germs?
   a) acids
   b) sanitizer
   c) bases
   d) water
2. Which of the following is used now a day to prevent from COVID-19?
   a) acids
   b) sanitizer
   c) bases
   d) water
3. Which of the following is used to kill the germs without harming to skin?
   a) sanitizer
   b) soap
   c) salt
   d) water
4. Which of the following is/are used to make homemade sanitizer?
   a) alcohol
   b) aloe Vera gel
   c) oil
   d) all of these
5. Which of the following alcohol is commonly used to make sanitizer?
   a) methanol
   b) ethanol
   c) propanol
   d) none of these

[Explanation] To get one cup of sanitizer, combine ½ cup of gel or glycerin with ½ cup of rubbing alcohol. Mix thoroughly with your spoon or whisk to ensure that the alcohol is evenly distributed throughout the gel. Stir in five drops of an essential oil, if you’re using it.

Exercise

1. The percentage of fresh water on earth is not more than only…….
   a) 2%
   b) 30%
   c) 20%
   d) 25%
2. Drip irrigation system is useful for agriculture because it allows water to…
   a) reach the roots directly
   b) spread equally
   c) sprinkles water
   d) evaporate
3. Given below from the list is not a way to preserve food?
   a) freezing
   b) pickling
   c) curing
   d) garnishing
4. The best way to preserve vegetables is…
   a) pickling
   b) drying
   c) curing
   d) salting
5. The instrument used by doctors for listening to heart beats is called…
   a) stethoscope
   b) periscope
   c) ophthalmoscope
   d) microscope
6. Which of the following is used for making a working model of a stethoscope?
   a) funnels plastic tube, balloons and duct tape
   b) funnels and duct tape only
   c) tubing and duct tape only
   d) balloons and duct tape only
7. Use of hand sanitizer helps in…
   a) killing germs from the skin and keeping it safe
   b) keeping skin safe
   c) keeping skin moisturized
   d) removing germs
8. In pickling food is soaked in…
   a) water
   b) oil
   c) solution of salt and acid
   d) solution of sugar and acid
9. The process of food preservation in which bacteria is allowed to grow against the harmful bacteria is called…
   a) fermentation
   b) dry salting
   c) pickling
   d) canning
10. Pasteurization means…
    a) freezing at a certain temperature to keep food microbe free
    b) heating at a certain temperature to keep food microbe free
    c) drying at a certain temperature to keep food microbe free
    d) heating to change the colour of the food

Answer Keys

1	2		3		4		5	6		7		8		9	10				11		12		13			14			15			16
a	d		a		d		b	b		a		c		d	b				d		b		b			a			a			c
17		18		19		20			21		22		23			24	25			26		27		28	29		30			31			32
c		B		c		b			c		e		c			d	c			d		c		a	d		b			d			d
33		34		35		36			37		38		39			40	41			42		43		44	45			46			47		48
a		b		d		a			d		a		d			a	d			a		d		d	a			d			a		b
49		50		51		52			53		54		55			56	57			58		59		60	61			62			63		64
d		c		b		b			a		d		b			a	d			b		a		b	d			a			a		e
65																		66
a																		b

 

Earth and Space

Unit No: 07

 

Earth and space science (or ESS), in a nutshell, is about Earth and its place within the solar system and universe. It includes the study of the Earth, including its land, oceans, atmosphere, and all the life that lives there from humans to animals to plants.

Force of Gravity Keeps Planets and Moons in their Orbits:

Gravity is what holds the planets in orbit around the sun and what keeps the moon in orbit around Earth.

1. The force of attraction that exists between two material objects is called…
   a) force of energy
   b) force of charges
   c) force of gravity
   d) all of these
2. In which of the following objects, the force of gravity is prominent?
   a) massive objects
   b) small objects
   c) microscopic objects
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following objects has more gravity?
   a) earth
   b) moon
   c) sun
   d) satellite
4. Who proposed the law of gravity?
   a) Einstein
   b) Newton
   c) Faraday
5. Explanation: Sir Isaac Newton PRS was an English mathematician, physicist, astronomer, alchemist, theologian, and author, widely recognized as one of the greatest mathematicians and physicists and among the most influential scientists of all time. He was a key figure in the philosophical revolution known as the Enlightenment.
6. The planets are affected by gravitational force of…
   a) moon
   b) asteroids
   c) sun
   d) meteors
7. Which of the following move the planet in its orbit?
   a) gravitational force of their moon
   b) gravitational force of sun
   c) gravitational force of their own mass
   d) gravitational force of their satellite
8. What will happen if the gravity of the sun ceases?
   a) the planet will move in orbit
   b) the planet will move in a straight way
   c) the planet will move toward the sun
   d) none of these
9. Every object wants to maintain in one of two states: rest or uniform motion. This property of objects is known as…
   a) inertia
   b) momentum
   c) gravity

Explanation: Inertia means an object will continue its current motion until some force causes its speed or direction to change.

1. Why is it difficult to move a large stone? It is because it has…
   a) inertia
   b) momentum
   c) gravity
2. Which of the following forces moves the object in a circle?
   a) gravitational force
   b) centrifugal force
   c) centripetal force
   d) attractive force

Explanation: A centripetal force is a force that makes a body follow a curved path.

1. Which of the following force moves the object away from the orbit/circle?
   a) centrifugal force
   b) gravitational force
   c) electrostatic force
   d) attractive force

Explanation: “Centrifugal forces” are forces within a country that work to pull that country apart.

Centrifugal Force

F = m × (v² / r)
F = m × (ω² r) or F = m × ω² r

Earth and Moon:

1. Which of the following is the natural satellite of our earth?
   a) sun
   b) star
   c) moon
   d) ISS

Explanation: The Moon is Earth’s only natural satellite. It is about one-quarter of Earth’s diameter. In the Solar System, the Moon is the fifth-largest satellite.

1. Just like the sun, Earth also applies force of ____ on its moon to revolve around itself.
   a) gravitational force
   b) centrifugal force
   c) centripetal force
   d) attractive force
2. Why does the moon revolve around the earth in a circular orbit? It is because of _____.
   a) gravitational force
   b) centrifugal force
   c) centripetal force
   d) attractive force
3. Our moon and satellites revolve around ____ just like our Earth revolves around the sun.
   a) sun
   b) star
   c) earth
   d) ISS

Mass and Weight:

The terms “mass” and “weight” are used interchangeably in ordinary conversation, but the two words don’t mean the same thing. The difference between mass and weight is that mass is the amount of matter in a material, while weight is a measure of how the force of gravity acts upon that mass.

1. All things in nature are made up of small particles…
   a) atoms
   b) molecules
   c) gravity
   d) both a and b
2. The total amount of matter in the body is the measurement of its…
   a) weight
   b) volume
   c) mass
   d) density
3. Quantity of matter in a body is called its…
   a) weight
   b) volume
   c) mass
   d) density
4. Which of the following is the SI unit of mass?
   a) kilometer
   b) kilogram
   c) cubic meter
5. Which of the following is/are the smaller units of mass?
   a) gram
   b) milligram
   c) both a and b
6. Which of the following is/are the bigger units of mass?
   a) gram
   b) ton
   c) milligram
7. How many grams are present in one kilogram?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 1000
   d) 1/1000
8. How many kilograms are present in one ton?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 1000
   d) 1/1000
9. How many milligrams are present in one gram?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 1000
   d) 1/1000
10. How many grams are present in one milligram?
    a) 1/10
    b) 1/100
    c) 1000
    d) 1/1000
11. How many kilograms are present in one gram?
    a) 1/10
    b) 1/100
    c) 1000
    d) 1/1000
12. How many tons are present in one kilogram?
    a) 10
    b) 1/100
    c) 1000
    d) 1/1000
13. Which of the following is measured in kilograms normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
14. Which of the following is measured in grams normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
15. Which of the following is measured in milligrams normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
16. Which of the following is measured in tons normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
17. Mass of the body is measured by…
    a) physical balance
    b) screw gauge
    c) meter roller
    d) litter
18. Which of the following balance(s) is/are used to measure the mass of an object?
    a) electronic and beam balance
    b) weigh scale and weigh bridge scale
    c) physical balance
    d) all of these
19. If the mass of a watermelon is 10 kg on Earth, what will be its mass on the moon?
    a) less than 10 kg
    b) greater than 10 kg
    c) same 10 kg
    d) variable
20. What will happen to the mass of an object if it is shifted to another planet or moon?
    a) it increases
    b) it decreases

Weight

The weight of an object is the force acting on the object due to gravity.

1. Weight is a/an…
   a) matter in object
   b) force
   c) energy in a body
   d) none of these
2. Which of the following is the force with which Earth attracts anything towards its center?
   a) mass
   b) weight
   c) inertia
   d) work
3. What is the SI unit of weight?
   a) Kg
   b) Joule
   c) Newton
4. The device which is used to measure the weight of a body is called…
   a) spring balance
   b) force meter
   c) physical balance
   d) both a and b
5. Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the weight of an object?
   a) W = m × V
   b) W = m × g
   c) W = m × G
6. In equation W = m × g, the letter ‘g’ represents…
   a) mass
   b) weight
   c) gram
   d) gravitational field strength
7. Gravitational field strength is also known as… due to gravity.
   a) mass
   b) speed
   c) weight
   d) acceleration
8. What is the value of “g” on Earth’s surface?
   a) 2.3 N/kg
   b) 3.8 N/kg
   c) 9.8 N/kg
   d) 6.99 N/kg
9. Earth attracts 1 kg body with a force of…
   a) 1 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 20 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 1 kg, g = 10 N/kg
W = mg
W = 1 kg × 10 N/kg
W = 10 N

1. If 2 kg mass is placed on Earth, it attracts 2 kg body with force of…
   a) 1 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 20 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 2 kg, g = 10 N/kg
W = mg
W = 2 kg × 10 N/kg
W = 20 N

1. You are asked to measure the weight of a watermelon of mass 10 kg on Earth. What will be its weight?
   a) 100 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 20 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 10 kg, g = 10 N/kg
W = mg
W = 10 kg × 10 N/kg
W = 100 N

1. Mass of the moon is… times less than the mass of Earth.
   a) 3
   b) 6
   c) 9
   d) 10
2. What is the gravity on the moon’s surface as compared to the gravity on Earth’s surface?
   a) 3 times lesser
   b) 6 times lesser
   c) 3 times greater
   d) 6 times greater
3. Gravitational field on moon’s surface is… as compared to Earth.
   a) 1/3
   b) 1/6
   c) 3
   d) 6
4. What is the value of g (N/kg) on the moon?
   a) 1.3
   b) 1.8
   c) 1.9
   d) 1.6

Explanation: g(moon) = 1/6 (g earth)
g(moon) = 1/6 (10)
g(moon) = 1.6 N/kg

1. Moon attracts 1 kg mass object with… N force only.
   a) 1.3
   b) 1.8
   c) 1.9
   d) 1.6
2. Calculate the weight of a watermelon of 10 kg on the moon.
   a) 1 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 16 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 10 kg, g = 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = m × g
W(moon) = 10 kg × 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = 16 N

1. Calculate the weight of a watermelon of 20 kg on the moon.
   a) 32 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 16 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 20 kg, g = 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = m × g
W(moon) = 20 kg × 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = 32 N

1. What will be the gravity in space far away from heavy heavenly objects?
   a) 0
   b) 9.8
   c) 1.9
   d) 1.6
2. How many times greater can you jump on the moon’s surface than on Earth?
   a) 3
   b) 6
   c) 9
   d) 10

Tides and Gravitational Pull of Moon
High and low tides are caused by the moon. The moon’s gravitational pull generates something called the tidal force. The tidal force causes Earth and its water to bulge out on the side closest to the moon and…

Tides

The side farthest from the moon. These bulges of water are high tides.

1. In which of the following water bodies, tides are produced?
   a) ocean
   b) lakes
   c) rivers
   d) all of these
2. The rise and fall of water level in the ocean, rivers, and lakes are called…
   a) gravity
   b) force
   c) tides
   d) waves
3. When sea level rises to its maximum level, such tides are called…
   a) maximum tides
   b) high tides
   c) minimum tides
   d) low tides

Explanation: The high tide on the side of the Earth facing the moon is called the high tide.

1. When water level falls to its lowest point, it is known as…
   a) maximum tides
   b) high tides
   c) minimum tides
   d) low tides

Explanation: Low tide is when it recedes to its furthest extent.

1. Which of the following is/are the cause/s of tides on ocean?
   a) gravitational pull of moon and earth
   b) gravitational pull of sun and Saturn
   c) spinning of earth
   d) both a and b
2. Which of the following has major impact on ocean water?
   a) gravitation attraction of sun
   b) gravitation attraction of Venus
   c) gravitation attraction of moon
   d) gravitation attraction of Mars
3. In which side of the earth, high tides are produced on ocean?
   a) earth’s side close to the sun
   b) earth’s side close to the moon
   c) earth’s side away from the sun
   d) earth’s side away from the moon
4. High tides on the far end of the earth are due to the flow of water against the weak gravitational pull of…
   a) earth
   b) sun
   c) moon
   d) Mars
5. High tides on the far end of the earth are due to flow of water against the weak gravitational pull of moon because of…
   a) inertia
   b) gravity
   c) force
   d) momentum

Revolution of Earth Around Sun, Seasons, and Constellation

As the earth spins on its axis, producing night and day, it also moves about the sun in an elliptical (elongated circle) orbit that requires about 365 1/4 days to complete. The earth’s spin axis is tilted with respect to its orbital plane. This is what causes the seasons.

1. Earth not only spins around its tilted axis but also revolves around…
   a) galaxy
   b) sun
   c) moon
   d) Mars
2. Which of the following is/are caused by the spinning of earth around its own axis?
   a) changes in seasons
   b) day and night
   c) rainfall
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following is/are caused by the revolution of earth around the sun?
   a) changes in seasons
   b) day and night
   c) rainfall
   d) all of these
4. How many poles are present on earth?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) one

1. Which of the following is an imaginary line around the middle of a planet?
   a) axis
   b) equator
   c) meridian
   d) latitudes
2. Equator is halfway between…
   a) north pole and south pole
   b) east and west
   c) east and north
   d) south and west
3. Equator is the halfway between north and south poles at…degree latitude.
   a) 0
   b) 10
   c) 45
   d) 23.5
4. Which of the following is the line around which earth spins?
   a) axis
   b) equator
   c) meridian
5. …is an angle between the direction of the North Pole and the perpendicular to the orbital plane.
   a) axial tilt
   b) equator
   c) meridian
6. Axial tilt of the earth is…degree
   a) 0
   b) 90
   c) 45
   d) 23.5
7. Which of the following of the earth causes the seasons?
   a) tilted axis
   b) equator
   c) meridian
8. During the orbital motion of earth around sun, when the axis of the earth is towards the sun then…season in there for that part of the earth.
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring
9. During the orbital motion of earth around sun, when the axis of the earth is away from the sun then…season in there for that part of the earth.
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring
10. During the orbital motion of earth around sun, when the axis of the earth is in between the sun then…season in there for that part of the earth.
    a) autumn
    b) summer
    c) spring
    d) both a and c
11. In which of the following, the length of the day is longest and night is shortest?
    a) summer solstice
    b) winter solstice
    c) spring equinox
    d) autumnal equinox
12. In which of the following, the length of the day is shortest and night is longest?
    a) summer solstice
    b) winter solstice
    c) spring equinox
    d) autumnal equinox
13. In which of the following, the length of the day and night is same?
    a) summer solstice
    b) autumnal equinox
    c) spring equinox
    d) both b and c

Constellation

A constellation is an area on the celestial sphere in which a group of visible stars forms a perceived pattern or outline, typically representing an animal, mythological subject, or inanimate object. The origins of the earliest constellations likely go back to prehistory.

1. A group of stars that appears to form a pattern or picture is called…
   a) collection
   b) galaxy
   c) constellation
   d) region
2. Which of the following is/are the famous constellation/s?
   a) Orion the great hunter
   b) Leo the lion
   c) Taurus the bull
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following helps the people to locate themselves using the night sky?
   a) moon
   b) galaxy
   c) constellation
   d) pole
4. Why does the position of the constellation change during different times?
   a) due to gravity of the earth
   b) due to motion of the earth around the sun
   c) due to gravity of the moon
   d) due to motion of the moon around earth

Relation of Earth’s Hemisphere with Annual Rotation Around The Sun

1. There are…hemisphere/s of the earth.
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) one

Explanation: 1. Northern hemisphere and 2. Southern hemisphere

1. When it will be the summer in the northern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun
   b) when south pole tilted toward the sun
   c) when north pole tilted away from the sun
   d) all of these
2. When it will be the winter in the northern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun
   b) when south pole tilted away from the sun
   c) when north pole tilted away from the sun
   d) all of these
3. When it will be the summer in the southern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun

1. When it will be the winter in the southern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun
   b) when south pole tilted toward the sun
   c) when north pole tilted away from the sun
   d) all of these
2. Pakistan is located in…
   a) northern hemisphere
   b) southern hemisphere
   c) on equator
3. Australia is located in…
   a) northern hemisphere
   b) southern hemisphere
   c) on equator
   d) none of these
4. When it is winter in Pakistan, which season will there be in Australia?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) autumn
5. When it is summer in Pakistan, which season will be there in Australia?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring
6. In between summer and winter on northern hemisphere, which season will be there in the northern hemisphere?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) autumn or fall
   d) spring
7. In between winter and summer on northern hemisphere, which season will be there in the northern hemisphere?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring

1. If 20 kg of mass is lifted from earth to moon, what is its mass on moon?
   a) 20 kg
   b) 2 kg
   c) 4 kg
   d) 3.2 kg
2. If the value of g on a planet is 25 N/kg then what is weight of 2 kg body on it?
   a) 25 N
   b) 50 N
   c) 75 N
   d) 150 N

Explanation: W = mg
W (planet) = 2 kg × 25 N/kg
W (planet) = 50 N

1. If it is spring in southern hemisphere of earth then which weather is in northern hemisphere?
   a) summer
   b) winter
   c) autumn
2. Which of the following is involved in producing tides in ocean?
   a) gravitational pull of moon on earth
   b) gravitational pull of sun on earth
   c) rotation of the earth
   d) all of these

Answer Key

103					104						105				106							107						108						109								110					111								112
c					a						e				b							C						b						b								a					b								a
113		114					115				116			117					118			119				120			121					122				123					124				125					126						127
c		d					a				c			b					e			b				e			b					e				c					c				e					c						d
129	130					131				132			133				134			135				136			137					138				139				140					141				142					143					144
d	a					b				d			c				e			b				c			b					b				c				e					d				b					e					b
145	146					147				148			149				150			151				152			153					154				155				156					157				158					159					160
d	b					a				b			b				b			b				b			b					b				b				b					b				b					b					b
161				162					163				164					165					166				167						168				169								170					171						172
c				b					d				c					b					a				c						b				a								b					a						c
177	178					179				180			181				182			183				184			185				186					187			188					189				190					191						192
a	b					b				b			b				c			a				b			d				c					d			c					b				a					b						b
193			194					195				196				197					198				199					200					201						202					203					204						205
b			b					a				b				b					a				c					a					b						c					a					a						b

 

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