Review of Syllabus for the post of

ASI (Service Quota)

COMPOSITION OF EXAMINATION:

1. Existing Subjects

General Ability:

Including Current Affairs, Pakistan Affairs, English & Basic Computer Studies.

2. Law & Policing:

The examination comprises of following subjects based on multiple choice is considered:-

1. Legal Studies & Police Laws
2. Basic Criminal Investigation

iii. Police Practical Work

1. Human Rights
2. Criminal Justice System of Pakistan
3. Police Software & Apps

Note: Detailed course content is given below

DETAILED COURSE CONTENT QF PROPOSED SUBJECTS RELATING TO LAW & POLICING

LEGAL STUDIES

PAKISTAN PENAL CODE

Sr#	Content
1.	Introduction: Section 1 to 4
2.	Definitions
3.	General Exceptions: Sections 76 to 106
4.	Abetment: Sections 107 to 111
5.	Criminal Conspiracy: Sections 120 A & 120 B
6.	Offences Against the Public Tranquility: Sections 141 to 149, 159, 160
7.	Offences Relating To Public Servants: Section 161 to 165-8, 170
8.	Contempt Of The Lawful Authority Of Public Servants: Section 174 to 188
9.	False Evidence And Offences Against Public Justice: Section 191 to 195, 201 202 203 204 212 to 216-A 221 to 228
10.	Offences Affecting The Public Health, Safety, Convenience, Decency And Morals: Section 279 282 285 286 290 292 293 294
11.	Offences Relating To Religion: Section 295 to Section 298-C
12.	Offences Affecting The Human Body: Section 299 to Section 338-E
13.	Wrongful Restraint And Wrongful Confinement, Kidnapping And Abduction, Rape & Unnatural Offences: Section 339 to 377-B
14.	Offences Against Property: Section 378 to Section 399, 403 to 412, 415 to 420, 425 to 427, 441 to 462
15.	Offences Relating To Documents And Trade Or Property Marks: Section: 462-3, 462- K, 463, 464, 467, 468, 469, 471, 489-A to 489-F
16.	Defamation: Section 499, 500
17.	Criminal Intimidation, Insult And Annoyance: Section 503 to Section 509
18.	Attempts To Commit Offences Section 511

LOCAL & SPECIAL LAWS

Sr#	Content
1.	Punjab Control of Sound System Regulation Act 2015 Section: 2 to 10
2.	Punjab Information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 Section: 2 to 14
3.	Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015 Section: 2 to 15
4.	Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, 1960 with Amended 2015 Section: 3 4 5 6 6-A 8 8-A & 16
5.	Control of Narcotics Substance Act 1997 with Amendment 2021 Section: 2 to 9, 17, 20, 21, 22, 23, 25 to 28
6.	Punjab Protection Against Harassment of Women at Work Place Act, 2012 Section: 1 to 8
7.	Punjab Prohibition of Kite Flying Amendment Act, 2009 Section: 2 3 4 A-A 4-3 4-C, 5 & 7
8.	Juvenile Justice System Act 2018 Amended Section: 2 to 18
9.	Prohibition of Expressing Matters On Wall Act, 2015 Section 2, 2-A & 3
10.	Trafficking in Person Act 2018 Section: 2 to 14
11.	Anti-Rape (Investigation & Trial) Act, 2021 Section: 2 to 18 22 24
12.	Transgender Person (Protection of Rights Act 2018) along with rules 2020. Section: 234 569 11 13 14 15 17 Rules 2020 11 12 13 14 15 16 20 & 21
13.	The Protection of Parents Ordinance 2021 Section: 2 3 4 5
14.	The Torture & Custodial Death (Prevention & Punishment) Act 2022 Section: 2 to 11 14 15 17 19
15.	Motor Vehicle Ordinance: Section. 3 4 92 94 99 99A 100 113 115.
16.	Arms Ordinance 1965: Section. 3 4 8 & 13.
17.	E & D Rules 1975 Sections: 3 to 9

CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE

Sr#	Content
1.	Definitions:
2.	Classes of Criminal Courts and Magistrates: Section 6, 9, 30, 32, 36
3.	Justice of the Peace: Section 22, 22-A, 22-B, 25
4.	Aid and information to the magistrate and police: section 42 to 45
5.	Arrest of accused person: section: 46 to 67
6.	Summons, warrants & proclamation: sections 68 to 90
7.	Summons to produce document or other thing: section 94, 95t 96
8.	General provisions relating to searches: section 100 to 103
9.	Prevention of offences: section 106 to 110
10.	Unlawful assemblies of maintenance of public peace and security: section 127 to 132-a
11.	Temporary order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger: section 144
12.	Dispute as to immovable property: section 145
13.	Preventive action of the Olice: section 149 to section 152
14.	Information to the police and their powers to investigate: section 154 to 176, 244-a, 364
15.	Social rules of evidence: section 509 to section 512
16.	Disposal of property: section 523 550
17.	Power of senior officers of police: section 551

QANOON-E-SHAHADAT

Sr#	Content
1.	Preliminary: article 1,2, definitions
2.	Of witnesses: article 3 6 7 8 16,17
3.	Of relevancy of facts: article ,37, 38, 40, 46, 46a, 59, 67, 68
4.	Of oral evidence: article 70, 71
5.	Of documenta evidence: article 87
6.	Of the burden of roof: article 117,121
7.	Of the examination of 136, 146, 148
8.	Impeaching credit of witnesses: article 151
9.	Refreshing memory: article 155,157
10.	Miscellaneous: article 164

POLICE RULES & POLICE ORDER 2002

Sr#	Content
POLICE ORDER 2002
1.	Article: 2, 3, 4, 7, 18, 18-A, 21, 24, 26, 120, 121, 122, 123, 124, 125, 134, 135, 136, 137, 155, 156, 157 & 167
POLICE RULES 1934
1.	Chapter 1: organization rules: 12, 21
2.	Chapter 6: arms & ammunition rules 10, 22
3.	Chapter 14: discipline & conduct Rules: 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,10,12,20,21,26,27,28,30,32,33,34,54,55
4.	Chapter 16: punishment rules: 3,4,8,12,18,19,21,33,34,35,36,37
5.	Chapter 21. Prevention & detective organization rule: 4, 5, 15, 22
6.	Chapter 22. Police station rule: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 11, 12, 14, 15, 16, 18, 30, 45 to 79
7.	Chapter 23. Prevention of offence Rule: 1, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 30, 32
8.	Chapter 24. Information to police Gule: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
9.	Chapter 25. Investigation rule: 1 to 58
10.	Chapter 26. Arrest, escape & custody Rule: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 13, 14, 16, 18, 18-a, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 31, 32

BASIC CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION

Sr#	Content
1.	Introduction of Crime Scene
2.	Importance of Crime Scene
3.	Introduction of First Responder
4.	First Responder — Communication
5.	First Responder – Safety Equipment
6.	First Responder- First Aid
7.	First Responder — Cordoning
8.	First Responder – Protection of Evidence
9.	First Responder — Documentation
10.	First Responder — Arrest
11.	First Responder As Investigation Officer
12.	Documentation at Crime Scene by 1.0
13.	Reconstruction of Crime Scene
14.	Detailed Analysis of Check List
15.	Final Review of Crime Scene

FORENSIC SCIENCE & EVIDENCE HANDLING

Sr#	Content
1.	Introduction to Forensic Science
2.	Material evidence and its kinds
3.	Crime Scene Photography
4.	Legal References
5.	Fire Arms
6.	Introduction and History of DNA
7.	Foot Prints
8.	Burglar Tools and Tool Marks
9.	Questioned Documents
10.	Restoration of obliterated Number on Metallic Surface
11.	Types of Finger Prints Pattern
12.	personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
13.	Cordoning of Crime Scene
14.	Protection of Crime Scene
15.	SOP for Protection of Crime Scene
16.	Punjab Forensic Science Agency Handbook
17.	Search Techniques for material evidence
18.	Cordoning (Safe Path)
19.	Preparation of Log Sheet
20.	Protection of perishable evidence
21.	Preparation of Parcel and Transportation
22.	Packaging material
23.	Chain of Custody
24.	Mobile Phone Forensics
25.	Audio video Analysis CCTV Analysis Audio Video Comparison Forensic Video Analysis

POLICE PRACTICAL WORK

POLICE STATION RECORD KEEPING

Sr#	Content
1.	Registers/Forms of Police Station Register No. 1 to 25
2.	Preparation of Crime Statistics Chart

SECURITY & INTELLIGENCE SECURITY

Sr#	Content
1.	Basic Rules of Security.
2.	Preparation and Implementation of security plan
3.	Security Gadgets (Walk through gates, Metal detector, Luggage scanner, Sniffer dogs & Explosive detector etc.
4.	Security of P.S & Sensitive Installations
5.	Vulnerable Places & Special Events
6.	VIP and WIP Security
7.	Security Sweeping, Route Survey & Security
8.	Protection and Formation of Motorcade

INTELLIGENCE

Sr#	Content
1.	Sources of Intelligence & Intelligence Collection
2.	Informant and Informant handling.
3.	Surveillance & Surveillance Techniques.
4.	Intelligence data collection & analysis.
5.	Practical exercises on collection of intelligence.
6.	Intelligence re ort writing.

CRIME PREVENTION STRATEGIES

Sr#	Content
1.	Patrolling
2.	Naka Bandi
3.	Beat Management
4.	Raid (Theory)
5.	Stop and Search of persons vehicles and Buildings.
6.	Preventive Actions (107/150, 107/151, 55/109, 55/110, CR.PC, Action under habitual offender Act & MPO etc. 145 Cr.PC

ANTI-RIOT TECHNIQUES

Sr#	Content
1.	Mob & Its Kinds
2.	How to Control Mob
3.	Methods to Use Power
4.	Anti-Riot Gadgets
5.	Formations
6.	Physical Techniques
7.	Tear Gas Introduction Use & Kinds
8.	Tear Gas Gun
9.	Gas Cartridges
10.	Armed Vehicles
11.	Team Work
12.	SOPs
13.	Duties of Team Incharge
14.	Practical Exercises
15.	Pedestrian Management in emergences
16.	Major Event Management

COMMUNITY POLICING

Sr#	Content
1.	Community Policing & Community Engagement
2.	Important Stakeholders
3.	Dealing with Elected Representative
4.	Liaison with Trade Union & Chamber of Commerce in city areas
5.	Dealing with Bar Councils
6.	Media Handling, Press Conference
7.	Introduction of Collective Bargaining Agents (CBA)
8.	Relation with Collective Bargaining Agents
9.	Proper use of Collective Bargaining Agents
10.	Use of Bargaining Agents in prevention of crime
11.	Public Complaint and Its Management
12.	Handling of 1787

FIRST AID

Sr#	Content
1.	First Aid and Objectives
2.	Basic Principles of First Aid (D.R.A.B.C Method)
3.	Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
4.	Measures of artificial respiration and cardiac conduction
5.	Artificial methods of resuscitation
6.	Irregular breathing / B. C First Aid Techniques
7.	Injuries
8.	Bleeding and its treatment
9.	Bone fracture and its treatment
10.	Fracture treatment in first aid
11.	Burning and Scalding
12.	Bandages, its use and methods
13.	Shock and unconsciousness
14.	Heart attack first aid
15.	Heatstroke
16.	Poisoning
17.	Diabetic emergency
18.	Principle of triage
19.	Emergency Medical Technician (E.M.T.)
20.	First aid kit
21.	Nutrition and Health
22.	Health problems faced by police officers, their causes and solutions
23.	Lifestyle and health problems of a police officer

CONSTITUTION OF PAKISTAN & FUNDAMENTAL HUMAN RIGHTS

Sr#	Content
1.	Fundamental Human Rights under Constitution of Pakistan (Article 1 to 28)
2.	Writ jurisdiction under Constitution of Pakistan (Article 184 (iii) & 199)
3.	Interfaith, Intersect & Inter-Religious Harmony

CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

Sr#	Content
1.	Criminal Justice System of Pakistan Police Prosecution Courts Prisons Probation & Parole

INVESTIGATION TECHNIOUES (THEORY)

Sr#	Content
1.	OVERVIEW OF THE CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION PROCESS IN PAKISTAN Start of an investigation Investigation at the crime scene Search and Recoveries Arrest and release of suspects
2.	THE START OF AN INVESTIGATION How does an Investigation start? Overview of the start of an Investigation The FIR Registration Process and Evidential Value of a FIR Actions to avoid during Registration of a FIR Investigation in Jurisdiction of other Police Station
3.	POWER OF INVESTIGATION Powers of Investigation Officer (1.0) Power of the SHO Officer Inchar e of a Police Station
4.	CRIME SCENE MANAGEMENT The Crime Scene and its importance Types of Crime Scenes (Primary & Secondary) Arrival & Management of the Crime Scene Victim and Witness Statements Identification, Preservation and Collecting of Physical Evidence at Crime Scene Chain of Custody Case Law concerning Collection of Evidences form Crime Sence Site Plan and its Purpose Use of photography and Video to supplement the Site Plan and investigation Documentation relating to the Crime Scene
5.	SEARCH AND SEIZURE Introduction Types of Searches Guidelines / Rules to be followed when conducting Search and Seizure The Requirement of Presence of Witnesses during Search How to Conduct an Organized Search Search for Persons Wrongfully Confined Documents Relating to Search
6.	EVIDENCE Definition of Evidences Bes Evidence Rule Classification of Evidences Types of Evidences for investigation Purposes Importance of Evidences in Reconstruction of a crime Scene
7.	ARREST, REMAND AND BAIL Introduction The Power to Arrest When to Arrest Planning an Arrest Process of Making an Arrest Search of Accused Persons Rights of the Accused at the time of Arrest Documentation relating to Arrest Transfer of Arrested Persons Initial 24 Hours Remand Interrogation Statement /Confession by the Accused Arrest Report Bail Absconding Proceedings
8.	IDENTIFICATION PARADE Significance of identification Parade When is it Conducted How Is it Conducted What arc the Rules to be followed when conducting the identification Parade? What is the Evidentiary Value of Identification Parade? What can be the impact of delay in conducting an identification Parade? Memo of Identification of Parade Checklist of Identification Parade
9.	POLICE REPORT UNDER SECTION 173 CR. PC Introduction Police Report under Section 173 Cr.PC for Persons recommended to Stand Trial —the Charge Sheet or Challan Documents to be attached with Charge Sheet How a Final Charge Sheet / Challan is submitted? Submission of Supplementary Challan after submitting Final or Interim Challan Police Re ort u s 173 Cr.PC for Cancellation or as Untraced

I.T SKILLS LEVEL-I

Sr#	Content
1.	Microsoft Word
2.	Microsoft Excel
3.	Microsoft Power Point

SOCIAL MEDIA MONITORING, CRIME PREVENTION AND DETECTION

Sr#	Content
1.	Use of Social Media in Crime Prevention ad Detention
2.	Use of Social Media as an Information Tool in Policing
3.	Punjab Police Social Media Policing

PUNJAB POLICE SOFTWARE(s) & APPS

Sr#	Content
1.	Information technology and policing
2.	Special initiative police station
3.	Human Resource Management Information S stem HRMIS
4.	Complaint Management Information System CMS
5.	Police Station Record Management System (PSRMS) a. FIR b. Digital Case Diaries c. Report writing
6.	Anti-Vehicle Liftin S stem AVLS
7.	Tenant Registration System TRS
8.	Smart Eye
9.	Complaint Management System 1787
10.	Crime Mapping
11.	Khidmat Markaz
12.	Mobile Applications a. Rasta Application b. Women Safety Application c. Missing Child Application d. PKM Portal e. Tourist Facilitation Application f. Punjab Police WhatsApp Service g. Punjab Police Public App

 

THE PUNJAB INFORMATION OF TEMPORARY RESIDENTS ACT 2015

1. What is the main purpose of The Punjab Information of Temporary Residents Act 2015?
2. A) To regulate the ownership of rental properties
   B) To prevent unauthorized occupation of land
   C) To collect and share information about temporary residents for crime prevention
   D) To impose tax on rental properties
   Answer: C
   Explanation: The preamble of the Act clearly states that its purpose is to obtain information about temporary residents, maintain a database, and use this information for crime prevention and investigation.
3. What is the maximum time allowed for a landlord to provide tenant information to the police according to the Act?
4. A) 7 days
   B) 10 days
   C) 15 days
   D) 30 days
   Answer: C
   Explanation: Section 3(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that a landlord, tenant, or property dealer must provide information within 15 days of possession.
5. Under The Punjab Information of Temporary Residents Act, 2015, within what time frame must a hotel manager report a guest’s arrival to the police?
6. A) 6 hours
   B) 12 hours
   C) 24 hours
   D) 48 hours
   Answer: C
   Explanation: Section 3(2) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 requires that the owner or manager of a hotel or hostel must inform the police within 24 hours.
7. Who is responsible for verifying a tenant’s identity before renting out a property??
8. A) Only the landlord
   B) Only the tenant
   C) Only the police
   D) Landlord, manager, or property dealer
   Answer: D
   Explanation: Section 5(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that a landlord, manager, or property dealer must verify the identification of a tenant or guest before renting out a premises.
9. What document must a landlord obtain from a tenant before renting a property?
10. A) Driver’s license
    B) Utility bill
    C) CNIC or passport copy
    D) Signed affidavit
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 5(2) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 requires landlords and managers to obtain a copy of the CNIC or passport of tenants or guests.
11. Who is responsible for ensuring that a guest or tenant is not carrying illegal weapons?
12. A) Police
    B) Only the landlord
    C) Landlord, manager, or property dealer
    D) District administration
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 8(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that the landlord, manager, or property dealer must ensure that the tenant or guest is not in possession of unlicensed firearms or explosives.
13. Under what circumstances can a guest stay at a hostel managed by an institution?
14. A) with prior written permission of the manager
    B) only if they pay additional rent
    C) If they are a family member of a student
    D) No restrictions apply
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Section 4(1) of the Act states that a non-student or non-staff guest cannot stay in an institutional hostel without the manager’s prior written permission.
15. How can the information collected under this Act help in solving crimes?
16. A) Only robbery cases
    B) All civil disputes
    C) Only terrorism-related cases
    D) Terrorism and other offences under the Pakistan Penal Code
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 6(3) of the Act states that the information can be used for investigating terrorism and other offences under the Pakistan Penal Code, 1860.
17. Who is authorized to inspect rented premises, hostels, or hotels under this Act?
18. A) Any police officer
    B) A police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
    C) A property dealer
    D) The landlord only
    Answer: B
    Explanation: The Section 7(1) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 allows a Sub-Inspector or above to inspect premises and obtain necessary information.
19. What is the penalty for failing to provide required tenant or guest information to the police?
20. A) Rs. 5,000 fine
    B) Rs. 10,000 fine and/or 6 months imprisonment
    C) Only a warning
    D) Permanent closure of property
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 11 states that a person violating Sections 3, 4, 5, or 8 can face up to 6 months in prison and a fine between Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 100,000.
21. The nature of the offences under this Act is_____________?
22. A) Non-cognizable and bailable
    B) Cognizable and non-bailable
    C) Cognizable and bailable
    D) Civil offence only
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 12(1) states that offences under this Act are cognizable and non-bailable.
23. Who has the authority to compound an offence under the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states?
24. A) Any police officer
    B) Only the court
    C) The Government or an authorized officer
    D) The accused person
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 13(1) of the Act states that the Government or an authorized officer may compound an offence, subject to payment of an administrative penalty.
25. Under what condition is an offence under this Act NOT compoundable?
26. A) If the accused is a first-time offender
    B) If the accused has been previously convicted under this Act
    C) If the police recommend compounding
    D) If the tenant agrees to pay a fine
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 13(2) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015 states that if an accused was previously convicted under this Act, they cannot compound the offence again.
27. What must a hotel manager do if a guest carries a licensed weapon?
28. A) Confiscate the weapon
    B) Refuse entry to the guest
    C) Enter it in hotel records and inform the police
    D) Allow unrestricted possession
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 8(2) states that a hotel or hostel manager must record licensed weapons and inform the police.
29. Who is responsible for maintaining a database of tenants and guests?
30. A) The property dealer
    B) The landlord
    C) The police
    D) The local government
    Answer: C
    Explanation: According to the Act the police shall maintain a database of tenants and guests.
31. How often must each Head of District Police submit a report to the Government?
32. A) Monthly
    B) Quarterly
    C) Annually
    D) Biannually
    Answer: A
    Explanation: According to Section 14(1) the Head of District Police must submit a monthly report.
33. What is the deadline for the Government to present an annual implementation report in the Provincial Assembly?
34. A) 31 December
    B) 31 March
    C) 1 July
    D) No deadline is specified
    Answer: B
    Explanation: According to Section 14(2) of the Act the Government must present the report by 31 March each year.
35. Under which law is this Act enforced?
36. A) Pakistan Penal Code
    B) Code of Criminal Procedure
    C) Police Order 2002
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 15 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act states that the Act is in addition to and not in derogation of any other law, including PPC and CrPC.
37. Who has the power to make rules under this of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act 2015?
38. A) Punjab Police
    B) Government of Punjab
    C) Supreme Court
    D) Federal Government
    Answer: B
    Explanation: The Government of Punjab may make rules to implement the Act according to Section 16 states that.
39. Who can change the time limits for providing tenant or guest information to the police?
40. A) The police station in charge
    B) The court
    C) The Government of Punjab
    D) The property dealer association
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 9 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act states that the Government may extend the timelines for providing information through a notification in the official Gazette.
41. Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with this Act through inspections and verifications?
42. A) Local magistrates
    B) The property dealers
    C) The police
    D) The Home Department
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 7(2) of the Act states that the police are responsible for ensuring compliance through spot inspections and local verifications.
43. What information can a Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP) request under this Act?
44. A) The financial records of the tenant
    B) Ownership or title documents of rented premises or hostels
    C) The travel history of guests
    D) The personal email records of tenants
    Answer: B
    Explanation: according to Section 10 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act a police officer not below the rank of DSP may call for information about ownership or title of a rented premises or hostel from relevant authorities.
45. If a property dealer provides tenant information to the police, who else remains responsible for the same information?
46. A) Only the landlord
    B) Only the tenant
    C) No one else is responsible
    D) Both landlord and tenant, unless the information has already been provided
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 3(3) states that if one responsible person (landlord, tenant, or property dealer) provides the required information, the others are not liable for non-compliance.
47. What type of rented premises does this Act apply to?
48. A) Only commercial buildings
    B) Only residential buildings
    C) Any building let out for residential purposes or used as a temporary place of abode
    D) Only government-owned properties
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 2(k) of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act defines rented premises as any building or part of a building let out for residential purposes or used as a temporary place of abode, excluding hotels and hostels.
49. What is the consequence if a landlord, manager, or property dealer allows a tenant or guest to stay without verifying their CNIC or passport?
50. A) They must pay a service charge
    B) They may face imprisonment and a fine
    C) They will be issued a warning only
    D) They must notify the tenant and request identification later
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 5(1) & Section 11 of the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act state that failure to verify the identification of tenants or guests can result in imprisonment up to six months and a fine ranging from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 100,000.
51. If a guest checks into a hotel but does not have their CNIC or passport, what should the manager do?
52. A) Allow the guest to stay without verification
    B) Refuse accommodation until valid identification is provided
    C) Accept any other form of ID
    D) Report to the police immediately
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 5(1) of the Act clearly states that a manager must verify a guest’s CNIC or passport before allowing them to stay.
53. Which of the following premises is NOT covered under the definition of a “hotel” in this Act?
54. A) A guest house
    B) A resort
    C) A private residence given on rent
    D) A motel
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 2(e) of the Act defines hotel as any place offering lodging for guests, including guest houses, motels, inns, resorts, and sarais, but not private rented residences.
55. What is the purpose of analyzing the tenant and guest data collected by the police?
56. A) To identify financial irregularities
    B) To monitor political activities
    C) For prevention, detection, and investigation of offences
    D) To track migration patterns
    Answer: C
    Explanation: According to Section 6(2) the Punjab information of Temporary Residents Act the police shall analyze the data for prevention, detection, and investigation of offences.

 

THE PUNJAB SECURITY OF VULNERABLE ESTABLISHMENTS ACT, 2015

General Provisions and Definitions

1. What is the main objective of The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015?
   a) To regulate businesses in Punjab
   b) To enhance the security of vulnerable establishments
   c) To provide financial assistance to business owners
   d) To register all commercial establishments

Answer: b) To enhance the security of vulnerable establishments
Explanation: The Act aims to ensure effective security arrangements for vulnerable establishments to prevent terrorism and other crimes.

1. Which of the following is NOT considered a “vulnerable establishment” under the Act?
   a) Banks
   b) Educational institutions
   c) Private residences
   d) Jewelry shops

Answer: c) Private residences
Explanation: The The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015  applies to public places like banks, schools, and commercial establishments, but private residences are not included.

1. Who is responsible for ensuring the security arrangements of a vulnerable establishment?
   a) District Coordination Officer
   b) Manager of the establishment
   c) Head of District Police
   d) Government of Punjab

Answer: b) Manager of the establishment
Explanation: According to the Act, the manager is responsible for making necessary security arrangements in compliance with the Committee’s advice.

 

1. Which term refers to “effective physical and technical security arrangements including CCTV cameras, biometric systems, and security alarms”?
   a) Vulnerability measures b) Security arrangements
   c) Preventive measures d) Risk management

Answer: b) Security arrangements
Explanation: The Act defines security arrangements as physical and technical security measures such as CCTV cameras and alarm systems.

Security Advisory Committee

1. Who chairs the Security Advisory Committee in each sub-division?
   a) District Coordination Officer
   b) Deputy Commissioner
   c) Sub-Divisional Police Officer
   d) Head of District Police

Answer: c) Sub-Divisional Police Officer
Explanation: The Act designates the Sub-Divisional Police Officer as the Chairperson of the Security Advisory Committee.

1. How often must the Security Advisory Committee meet?
   a) Weekly
   b) Monthly
   c) Quarterly
   d) Annually

Answer: b) Monthly
Explanation: According to the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act  the Committee must meet at least once a month to ensure continuous security assessments.

1. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Security Advisory Committee?
   a) An officer from Special Branch of the Police
   b) A representative of district administration
   c) A retired judge
   d) Representatives of traders and stakeholders

Answer: c) A retired judge
Explanation: The Committee consists of law enforcement officers, district administration representatives, and stakeholders but does not include judges.

Responsibilities and Security Measures

1. How often must the Committee inspect a vulnerable establishment?
   a) Every six months
   b) Once a year
   c) Quarterly
   d) Monthly

Answer: c) Quarterly
Explanation: The Act mandates a quarterly inspection of vulnerable establishments.

1. Who is responsible for notifying an establishment as a vulnerable establishment?
   a) Government of Punjab
   b) Security Advisory Committee
   c) District Coordination Officer
   d) Police Station Incharge

Answer: c) District Coordination Officer
Explanation: The District Coordination Officer issues notifications declaring an establishment as vulnerable according to the the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015.10.  

 

• What is the purpose of clearing debris, managing filth depots, and covering manholes under The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015
  a) To ensure environmental protection
  b) To prevent the concealment of explosive materials
  c) To improve urban infrastructure
  d) To reduce air pollution

Answer: b) To prevent the concealment of explosive materials
Explanation: The Act emphasizes cleanliness of public places to prevent security threats.

Inspection, Warnings, and Sealing of Establishments

1. Who has the authority to inspect a vulnerable establishment at any time?
   a) District Coordination Officer
   b) Chairperson of the Committee
   c) Police Officer Incharge of the Police Station
   d) Provincial Minister for Home Affairs

Answer: c) Police Officer Incharge of the Police Station
Explanation: The Act allows the Police Officer Incharge to inspect vulnerable establishments and report findings.

1. What action can be taken if a manager fails to implement the security advice?
   a) A written warning is issued
   b) The establishment is immediately sealed
   c) The manager is arrested without warning
   d) The establishment is permanently closed

Answer: a) A written warning is issued
Explanation: A warning letter specifying the violation is issued first before further action.

1. What happens if a manager does not comply with the warning issued by the Committee?
   a) The establishment may be sealed or operations suspended
   b) The manager is given a second warning
   c) The case is referred to the High Court
   d) The police take over the management of the establishment

Answer: a) The establishment may be sealed or operations suspended
Explanation:  According to the Act the Committee has the authority to seal an establishment or suspend operations if security advice is not followed.

Penalties and Legal Proceedings

1. What is the maximum imprisonment for failing to comply with security measures?
   a) 3 months
   b) 6 months
   c) 1 year
   d) 2 years

Answer: b) 6 months
Explanation: The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act specifies up to six months of imprisonment for non-compliance.

1. What is the minimum fine for violating security provisions?
   a) Rs. 10,000
   b) Rs. 25,000
   c) Rs. 50,000
   d) Rs. 100,000

Answer: c) Rs. 50,000
Explanation: According to the Act a fine ranging from Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 100,000 for violations may be imposed.

1. Which court is responsible for conducting trials under this Act?
   a) Civil Court
   b) Magistrate of the first class
   c) High Court
   d) Anti-Terrorism Court

Answer: b) Magistrate of the first class
Explanation: The Act assigns summary trial jurisdiction to a Magistrate of the first class.

1. Under what conditions is an offence under this Act non-compoundable?
   a) If the accused has no prior conviction
   b) If the accused was previously convicted or had an offence compounded
   c) If the offence is related to financial fraud
   d) If the accused is a government officer

Answer: b) If the accused was previously convicted or had an offence compounded
Explanation: The Act does not allow compounding for repeat offenders.

 

Powers and Functions of the Government

1. Which authority has the power to make rules for implementing this Act?
   a) Punjab Assembly
   b) Government of Punjab
   c) Security Advisory Committee
   d) Inspector General of Police

Answer: b) Government of Punjab
Explanation: The Government of Punjab has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of this Act.

1. Who is responsible for notifying security standards for vulnerable establishments?
   a) Home Department of Punjab
   b) Chief Minister of Punjab
   c) Supreme Court of Pakistan
   d) Federal Government

Answer: a) Home Department of Punjab
Explanation: The Home Department is responsible for notifying security measures required under the Act.

1. Which government department ensures the implementation of security measures under this Act?
   a) Excise and Taxation Department
   b) Home Department
   c) Local Government Department
   d) Provincial Assembly

Answer: b) Home Department
Explanation: The Home Department is responsible for overseeing security measures and ensuring compliance under the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act, 2015.

Responsibilities of Law Enforcement Agencies

1. Who is responsible for enforcing the Act at the district level?
   a) Deputy Commissioner
   b) District Police Officer
   c) Assistant Commissioner
   d) Provincial Minister for Law

Answer: b) District Police Officer
Explanation: The District Police Officer (DPO) ensures that vulnerable establishments comply with the Act’s security requirements.

1. What role does the Special Branch of the Police play under this Act?
   a) Investigating financial crimes
   b) Monitoring and advising on security threats
   c) Conducting judicial inquiries
   d) Managing public awareness campaigns

Answer: b) Monitoring and advising on security threats
Explanation: The Special Branch assists in assessing security risks and advising on preventive measures under this Act.

1. Which law enforcement agency is responsible for coordinating intelligence on security threats to vulnerable establishments?
   a) Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
   b) Counter Terrorism Department (CTD)
   c) Anti-Narcotics Force (ANF)
   d) Traffic Police

Answer: b) Counter Terrorism Department (CTD)
Explanation: The CTD is responsible for intelligence gathering and ensuring the security of vulnerable establishments under the Act.

Legal and Procedural Aspects

1. Under the Act, if an establishment does not comply with security directives even after penalties, what further action can be taken?
   a) The establishment may be permanently closed
   b) The owner may be declared a proclaimed offender
   c) The case may be referred to the High Court
   d) The police may take control of the premises

Answer: a) The establishment may be permanently closed
Explanation: If an establishment repeatedly fails to comply, the government has the authority to permanently close it under the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act.

1. If a manager refuses to allow inspection of the security arrangements, what legal consequence does he face?
   a) He is fined immediately
   b) He is arrested and prosecuted
   c) His establishment is placed under police surveillance
   d) The establishment’s trade license is revoked

Answer: b) He is arrested and prosecuted
Explanation: Obstructing an inspection is a punishable offense under the Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act.

1. Which of the following is NOT a condition for sealing an establishment under this Act?
   a) Failure to implement recommended security measures
   b) Obstructing police inspections
   c) Engaging in financial fraud
   d) Ignoring repeated security warnings

Answer: c) Engaging in financial fraud
Explanation: The Punjab Security of Vulnerable Establishments Act deals with security violations, not financial fraud, which falls under other laws.

Miscellaneous Provisions

1. Which of the following security measures is MANDATORY for all vulnerable establishments?
   a) Installation of biometric entry systems
   b) Deployment of armed security guards
   c) CCTV cameras with at least 30-day recording capability
   d) Panic buttons on every entrance door

Answer: c) CCTV cameras with at least 30-day recording capability
Explanation: The Act mandates CCTV surveillance with a recording capacity of at least 30 days for all vulnerable establishments.

1. What is the purpose of mandatory training for security guards under the Act?
   a) To teach them self-defense techniques
   b) To ensure they can recognize and respond to security threats
   c) To provide them with legal authority for arrests
   d) To enhance their customer service skills

Answer: b) To ensure they can recognize and respond to security threats
Explanation: The Act requires security guards must be trained to recognize potential threats and respond appropriately to security incidents.

1. If an establishment is wrongly declared as a vulnerable establishment, what legal recourse does the owner have?
   a) File a petition in the court
   b) Request a review from the Chief Minister
   c) Approach the National Assembly
   d) Submit an application to the Security Advisory Committee

Answer: d) Submit an application to the Security Advisory Committee
Explanation: The owner can appeal to the Committee for a review of the decision according to the Act.

1. What role do local traders and business owners play in the security framework under this Act?
   a) They have no formal role
   b) They can provide financial assistance to police
   c) They are included in the Security Advisory Committee for consultation
   d) They must report all daily transactions to the police

Answer: c) They are included in the Security Advisory Committee for consultation

Explanation: Business owners and traders are part of the Committee to ensure practical security measures are implemented.

 

THE PUNJAB SOUND SYSTEMS (REGULATION) ACT 2015

1. Under the Punjab Sound System Act 2015, which of the following is considered a “sound system”?
2. A) Loudspeaker
   B) Sound amplifier
   C) Any other prescribed equipment
   D) All of the above
   Answer: D
   Explanation: Section 2(f) defines a sound system as a loudspeaker, sound amplifier, or any other prescribed equipment.
3. What is the meaning of “vicinity” as per this Act?
4. A) 50 yards from the sound system
   B) 10 yards from the sound system
   C) 100 meters from the sound system
   D) No specific distance is mentioned
   Answer: B
   Explanation: According to Section 2(g) of The Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, 2015, the term vicinity is clearly restricted to a 10-yard radius from the location of the sound system.
5. According to the Act, who determines the specifications of a sound system?
6. A) Local police station
   B) Government of Punjab
   C) High Court
   D) Municipal Corporation
   Answer: B
   Explanation: Section 3(3) states that the Government shall determine the specifications of a sound system by notification.
7. What is the punishment for violating Sections 3 or 4 of the Act?
8. A) A warning only
   B) Imprisonment up to 6 months and a fine between Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 100,000
   C) Imprisonment up to 1 year and a fine of Rs. 500,000
   D) Community service for one month
   Answer: B
   Explanation: Section 6 prescribes punishment of imprisonment up to six months and a fine ranging from 25,000 to Rs. 100,000.
9. Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the provisions of this Act at places of worship?
10. A) Local Government Officer
    B) Police officer in charge of the local area police station
    C) The head of the place of worship
    D) Any citizen
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 5 states that the police officer in charge of the local area police station is responsible for inspecting sound systems at places of worship.
11. In which of the following locations is it prohibited to use a sound system in a way that disturbs the surroundings?
12. A) Near a hospital providing facilities for indoor patients
    B) Near an educational institution during working hours
    C) Near a place of worship during prayer times
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 4(1)(b) of prohibits the use of sound systems near hospitals, educational institutions, courts, and places of worship during specified times.
13. What is the maximum number of external sound systems allowed at a place of worship for specific religious purposes?
14. A) Two
    B) Three
    C) Four
    D) No limit
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(a) allows not more than four external sound systems for Azan, Durood-e-Pak, Arabic Khutba, and specific announcements.
15. What kind of utterances are prohibited using a sound system under this Act?
16. A) Sectarian utterances
    B) Controversial statements likely to cause public disorder
    C) Any speech causing annoyance to the public
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Section 4(1)(d) of the Punjab Sound System Act 2015 prohibits using a sound system for sectarian or controversial utterances likely to cause public disorder.
17. Which authority can grant permission for the use of an external sound system in a public place?
18. A) Local religious leaders
    B) Any police officer
    C) The Government or an authorized officer
    D) A Magistrate
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(b) of the Punjab Sound System Act states that permission from the Government or an authorized officer is required to use an external sound system in a public place.

 

10. Who has the power to seize a sound system being used in violation of the Act?
11. A) Any police officer
    B) A police officer not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector (ASI)
    C) A magistrate
    D) A local government official
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 7(1) of the Punjab Sound System Act, empowers a police officer not below the rank of ASI to seize a sound system used in the commission of an offence.
12. What is the legal status of an offence under this Act?
13. A) Non-cognizable and bailable
    B) Cognizable and non-bailable
    C) Cognizable and bailable
    D) Non-cognizable and non-bailable
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 8(1) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, states that an offence under this Act is cognizable and non-bailable, meaning the police can arrest without a warrant.
14. Which court has jurisdiction to try an offence under this Act?
15. A) High Court
    B) Magistrate of the First Class
    C) Sessions Court
    D) Supreme Court
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 8(2) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, states that a Magistrate of the First Class shall conduct the trial under summary trial procedures.
16. What action may a court take against a seized sound system?
17. A) Return it to the owner
    B) Confiscate it
    C) Auction it immediately
    D) Allow the owner to use it after a fine
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 10 of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act allows the court to confiscate the sound system used in the commission of an offence.
18. Who is responsible for submitting an annual report on the implementation of this Act?
19. A) Inspector General of Police
    B) Provincial Assembly of Punjab
    C) Head of District Police
    D) Local magistrates
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 11(1) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act requires the Head of District Police to submit a monthly implementation report to the Government.
20. Under the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act, who has the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of this law?
21. A) Punjab Police
    B) Government of Punjab
    C) Federal Government
    D) Local Municipal Authorities
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 12 of the act states that the Government of Punjab may, by notification in the official Gazette, make rules for implementing the Act.
22. What is the minimum fine for violating Section 3 or 4 of the Act?
23. A) Rs. 10,000
    B) Rs. 15,000
    C) Rs. 25,000
    D) Rs. 50,000
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 6 of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act specifies that the fine shall not be less than Rs. 25,000 but shall not exceed Rs. 100,000.
24. Which of the following statements is true regarding the compoundability of offences under this Act?
25. A) Every offence under this Act is compoundable
    B) An offence may be compounded only if the accused has not been previously convicted or compounded for the same offence
    C) The accused can always request the court to compound the offence
    D) Offences under this Act cannot be compounded under any circumstances
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 9(2) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act states that an offence cannot be compounded if the accused was previously convicted or had a previous offence compounded.
26. Under the Act, who can grant permission for the use of a sound system in a public place?
27. A) Any police officer
    B) A local magistrate
    C) The Government or an authorized officer
    D) Any district official
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(b) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act allows the Government or an authorized officer to grant permission for using a sound system in a public place.
28. Under what circumstances can a sound system be used at a place of worship?
29. A) For any religious gathering without restriction
    B) Only for Azan, Durood-e-Pak, Arabic Khutba, funeral announcements, or lost and found announcements
    C) Anytime, as long as the volume is controlled
    D) For general announcements and public discussions
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 4(2)(a) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act allows the use of a maximum of four external sound systems for Azan, Durood-e-Pak, Arabic Khutba, funeral announcements, and lost and found announcements.
30. Which of the following is NOT a location where sound system usage is restricted under the Act?
31. A) A public park
    B) A court during working hours
    C) A hospital providing facilities for indoor patients
    D) An educational institution during working hours
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Section 4(1)(b) mentions restrictions for hospitals, courts, and educational institutions, but does not specifically mention public parks.
32. What is the purpose of requiring the Head of District Police to submit an annual report?
33. A) To review the effectiveness of the Act
    B) To take disciplinary action against violators
    C) To allocate funds for sound system usage
    D) To issue more sound system permits
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Section 11(2) of the Punjab Sound System (Regulation) Act states that the Government shall submit a consolidated annual report in the Provincial Assembly of Punjab summarizing the implementation of the Act.
34. What happens to a sound system after it is seized under this Act?
35. A) It is returned to the owner after 24 hours
    B) It is immediately auctioned
    C) It must be produced before a court
    D) It is destroyed immediately
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Section 7(2) of the Act requires that any seized sound system be presented before the court having jurisdiction over the offence.
36. Which previous law is repealed by The Punjab Sound Systems (Regulation) Act 2015?
37. A) The Punjab Noise Control Ordinance, 1990
    B) The Punjab Regulation of Loudspeakers and Sound Amplifiers Ordinance, 1965
    C) The Punjab Public Order Act, 1982
    D) The Punjab Environmental Protection Act, 1997
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 13(1) states that the Punjab Regulation of Loudspeakers and Sound Amplifiers Ordinance, 1965 is repealed by this Act.
38. What happens to actions taken under the repealed Punjab Regulation of Loudspeakers and Sound Amplifiers Ordinance, 1965?
39. A) They are considered null and void
    B) They remain valid as if done under the new Act
    C) They are subject to review under the new law
    D) They need to be re-approved under the new Act
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Section 13(2) states that anything done or action taken under the repealed Ordinance shall be deemed to have been done under this Act.

 

THE PUNJAB MAINTENANCE OF PUBLIC ORDER ORDINANCE, 1960

Which of the following is considered a “Sensitive Public Place” under the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Private residences
b) Public parks only
c) Government offices, educational institutions, hospitals, and courts
d) Private commercial buildings

Answer: c) Government offices, educational institutions, hospitals, and courts
Explanation: Section 2(e) defines “Sensitive Public Place” to include government buildings, educational institutions, hospitals, courts, and other notified locations.

 

Who has the authority to issue an order of arrest and detention under this Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Inspector General of Police
b) The Government of Punjab
c) Any police officer
d) A private security agency

Answer: b) The Government of Punjab
Explanation: Section 3(1) of the Ordinance states that the Government has the power to order the arrest and detention of individuals acting against public safety or order.

What is the maximum period a person can be detained under the ordinance without review by the Board?
a) One month
b) Three months
c) Six months
d) Indefinitely

Answer: b) Three months
Explanation: Section 3(5) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that a person cannot be detained for more than three months unless the Review Board confirms the necessity.

 

Who appoints the Review Board as defined in the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance ?
a) President of Pakistan
b) Chief Justice of Lahore High Court
c) Governor of Punjab
d) Prime Minister

Answer: b) Chief Justice of Lahore High Court
Explanation: Section 3(5-a) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that the Review Board is appointed by the Chief Justice of the Lahore High Court.

 

If the Review Board determines that a person’s detention is unnecessary, what action must the Government take?
a) Extend the detention for another three months
b) Transfer the case to a higher authority
c) Release the detained person
d) Increase the detention period

Answer: c) Release the detained person
Explanation: Section 3(5-g) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance requires the Government to release a detainee if the Review Board finds no sufficient cause for further detention.

What happens if a detained person absconds and cannot be found?
a) He is declared a fugitive under the ordinance
b) Sections 87, 88, and 89 of the Criminal Procedure Code apply
c) The Government orders his permanent detention
d) The case is closed

Answer: b) Sections 87, 88, and 89 of the Criminal Procedure Code apply
Explanation: Section 3(8) of the Ordinance allows for the application of CrPC said provisions for absconding persons.

 

Who has the authority to control the printing or publication of certain materials under this ordinance?
a) The Inspector General of Police
b) Any local journalist
c) Government or an authorized authority
d) Private publishing companies

Answer: c) Government or an authorized authority
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance Section 6(1) gives the Government the authority to prohibit or control publications affecting public order.

According to Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance what is the maximum duration for which a publication ban can be imposed?
a) One month
b) Two months
c) Six months
d) Indefinitely

Answer: b) Two months
Explanation: Section 6(2) of the Ordinance states that publication restrictions cannot remain in force for more than two months unless extended.

Under which section of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance can a Deputy Commissioner issue an order restricting a person’s movement?
a) Section 1
b) Section 3
c) Section 5
d) Section 6

Answer: c) Section 5
Explanation: Section 5 of the Ordinance allows the Deputy Commissioner to control the movement of individuals prejudicial to public safety.

What is the maximum period for which a movement restriction order by a Deputy Commissioner can remain valid without government extension?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) One year
d) Indefinitely

Answer: a) Three months
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance Section 5(2) states that an order under this section cannot exceed three months unless the Government extends it.

 

What penalty is imposed on a person who refuses to provide fingerprints, handwriting samples, or photographs when ordered under the ordinance?
a) Fine only
b) Six months imprisonment, fine, or both
c) No penalty
d) Only a warning

Answer: b) Six months imprisonment, fine, or both
Explanation: Section 4(2) of the Ordinance prescribes a punishment of up to six months imprisonment or fine for refusal to provide identifying information.

What punishment is prescribed for carrying firearms in a “Sensitive Public Place” without authorization?
a) Minimum seven days to one year imprisonment and a fine
b) Only a warning
c) No punishment
d) Lifetime imprisonment

Answer: a) Minimum seven days to one year imprisonment and a fine
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance Section 5A(3) states that carrying firearms in sensitive places without authorization results in imprisonment and a fine.

Under which section of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance can the Government prohibit a public meeting or procession in Punjab?
a) Section 3 b) Section 5
c) Section 7 d) Section 9

Answer: c) Section 7
Explanation: Section 7 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, empowers the Government to prohibit public meetings or processions in the interest of public order.

What is the maximum duration for which an order prohibiting a public meeting can be imposed?
a) One week b) Two weeks
c) One month d) Two months

Answer: d) Two months
Explanation: Section 7(2) states that such prohibitions cannot remain in force for more than two months unless extended.

If a person organizes a prohibited procession, what punishment can be imposed under the ordinance?
a) Fine only
b) One-year imprisonment, fine, or both
c) No punishment
d) A warning from authorities

Answer: b) One-year imprisonment, fine, or both
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 7(4) prescribes up to one year of imprisonment or a fine for organizing unlawful processions.

Which authority can impose restrictions on the use of loudspeakers in public places under the Ordinance?
a) Local municipal committees
b) Police officers of any rank
c) The Government or District Coordination Officer (DCO)
d) Religious institutions

Answer: c) The Government or District Coordination Officer (DCO)
Explanation: Section 8 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, empowers the Government or a DCO to regulate loudspeakers to maintain public order.

If someone violates a loudspeaker ban, what is the punishment under the ordinance?
a) Fine only
b) Three months imprisonment, fine, or both
c) No punishment
d) Only a written warning

Answer: b) Three months imprisonment, fine, or both
Explanations:  Section 8(3) of the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that anyone can be imprisoned up to three months and a fine for violating loudspeaker restrictions.

Who has the authority to require a person to furnish security for good behavior under this ordinance?
a) The Government or District Coordination Officer
b) Local police officers
c) Private security agencies
d) Court magistrates

Answer: a) The Government or District Coordination Officer
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, section 9 of allows the Government or the District Coordination Officer to demand security from individuals likely to disturb public order.

What is the maximum period for which security for good behavior can be required?
a) Three months b) Six months
c) One year d) Two years

Answer: c) One year
Explanation: Section 9(2) of the Ordinance states that security requirements cannot exceed one year.

If a person fails to furnish security for good behavior, what action can be taken?
a) The person is warned and released
b) The person is detained in preventive custody
c) The person is fined but not detained
d) No action is taken

Answer: b) The person is detained in preventive custody
Explanation: Section 9(3) allows for detention if a person fails to furnish required security.

Penalties for Violating Orders Under the Ordinance

What is the general punishment for violating any order issued under this ordinance?
a) A warning letter
b) Fine of up to Rs. 5,000
c) Imprisonment up to three years, fine, or both
d) No penalty

Answer: c) Imprisonment up to three years, fine, or both
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 10 provides a general penalty of up to three years of imprisonment or a fine for violations.

If a person aids or abets another in violating an order under this ordinance, what is the punishment?
a) No punishment for aiding or abetting
b) Half of the main offender’s punishment
c) The same punishment as the main offender
d) Only a fine without imprisonment

Answer: c) The same punishment as the main offender
Explanation: Section 10(2) of the Ordinance states that aiding or abetting in violation of orders results in the same penalty as the principal offender.

1. Who has the power to make rules for the implementation of this Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
   a) The President of Pakistan
   b) The Punjab Assembly
   c) The Government of Punjab
   d) The Supreme Court

Answer: c) The Government of Punjab
Explanation: Section 11 of the Ordinance grants the Government of Punjab the authority to make rules for carrying out the provisions of the ordinance.

If a police officer acts in good faith under Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, can he be held legally liable for his actions?
a) Yes, he can be sued for damages
b) No, if he acted in good faith
c) Only if approved by the Government
d) He can be fined but not imprisoned

Answer: b) No, if he acted in good faith
Explanation: Section 12 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance provides legal protection to government officials acting in good faith under the ordinance.

If a detained person is found to be mentally unfit, what action is taken?
a) The person is released immediately
b) The person is kept in ordinary jail conditions
c) The person is transferred to a mental health institution
d) No special provisions apply

Answer: c) The person is transferred to a mental health institution
Explanation: Section 3(7) of the Ordinance states that mentally unfit detainees should be sent to a mental health institution instead of jail.

Under the ordinance, which entity has the power to extend a detention order beyond three months?
a) Chief Minister of Punjab
b) Inspector General of Police
c) Review Board
d) Lahore High Court

Answer: c) Review Board
Explanation: Section 3(5) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance states that a detention order beyond three months requires Review Board approval.

 

What must the Government do if a detained person requests a review of their detention?
a) Deny the request outright
b) Refer the case to a local police station
c) Refer the case to the Review Board
d) Release the detainee immediately

Answer: c) Refer the case to the Review Board
Explanation: Section 3(5-f) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, ensures a detainee’s right to review by the Review Board.

If a newspaper publishes material violating this ordinance, who can be held responsible?
a) Only the writer
b) Only the publisher
c) Both the writer and publisher
d) No one, as newspapers have immunity

Answer: c) Both the writer and publisher
Explanation: According to Section 6 of the Ordinance, both the writer and the publisher can be penalized for unlawful publications.

Who has the authority to prohibit the entry of newspapers, periodicals, or other publications in Punjab under Section 7 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Only the Government
b) Deputy Commissioner or any public servant authorized by the Government
c) Only the Supreme Court
d) Any police officer
Answer: b) Deputy Commissioner or any public servant authorized by the Government
Explanation: The Ordinance allows the Government, a Deputy Commissioner, or an authorized public servant to prohibit such entry for maintaining public order.

For how long can an order under Section 7(1) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance remain in force?
a) Indefinitely b) Three months
c) Two months d) Six months
Answer: c) Two months
Explanation: As per Section 7(2), no prohibition order can exceed two months.

What action can the Government take if someone disobeys an order under Section 7?
a) Issue a warning
b) Impose a fine only
c) Seize all copies of the prohibited publication
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Seize all copies of the prohibited publication
Explanation: Section 7(4) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance allows the Government or the issuing authority to seize copies of the prohibited publication in case of disobedience.

Before ordering the seizure of a publication under Section 7(4), what must be provided to the affected person?
a) Compensation b) An opportunity to show cause
c) A court hearing d) None of the above
Answer: b) An opportunity to show cause
Explanation: According to Section 7(5) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance an affected person must be provided a chance to present their case before seizure is ordered.

Who can depute a police officer to attend public meetings for reporting purposes under the Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Government
b) Deputy Commissioner
c) Any police constable
d) Any government officer
Answer: b) Deputy Commissioner
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 8(1) empowers a Deputy Commissioner to depute officers for reporting public meetings.

What is the minimum rank of a police officer who can be deputed under Section 8 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Inspector
b) Assistant Sub-Inspector
c) Head Constable
d) Constable
Answer: c) Head Constable
Explanation: According to Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance, officers not below the rank of Head Constable can be deputed for reporting.

Who can direct the organizer of a public meeting to record all speeches?
a) Inspector General of Police
b) Incharge of a local police station with SDPO’s permission
c) Home Secretary
d) Any police officer
Answer: b) Incharge of a local police station with SDPO’s permission
Explanation: Section 8-A(1) of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance specifies that such orders must come from the incharge of the local police station with SDPO’s approval.

What is the penalty for not submitting the required speech recordings under Section 8-A?
a) Three years’ imprisonment
b) Six months’ imprisonment and fine between 25,000 to 100,000 rupees
c) Fine only d) No penalty
Answer: b) Six months’ imprisonment and fine between 25,000 to 100,000 rupees
Explanation: Section 8-A(3) o the Ordinance provides the prescribed punishment for non-compliance.

Under which legal provision does the power to issue search warrants exist in this Act?
a) Section 98 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
b) Article 199 of the Constitution
c) Section 10 of this Act
d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation: Section 10 states that search warrants can be issued as per Section 98 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

What is the maximum punishment for contravening any provision of the Ordinance where no specific punishment is provided?
a) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
b) One year’s imprisonment
c) Five years’ imprisonment
d) Only a fine
Answer: a) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
Explanation: Section 13 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance provides this general penalty.

What is the punishment for spreading rumors that cause fear or alarm under Section 16 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) One-year imprisonment
b) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
c) No punishment
d) Fine only
Answer: b) Three years’ imprisonment or fine or both
Explanation: Section 16 of the Ordinance imposes punishment for speeches or statements that spread fear or alarm among the public.

What must a person prove to avoid punishment for possessing a prohibited document under Section 17 of Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance ?
a) That they were unaware of the document’s nature
b) That they had permission from the police
c) That they destroyed the document
d) None of the above
Answer: a) That they were unaware of the document’s nature
Explanation: Section 17 allows exemption if unawareness is proven.

What is the punishment for attempting to induce a public servant to disregard their duty?
a) One-year imprisonment or fine or both
b) Warning only
c) Three years’ imprisonment
d) No penalty
Answer: a) One-year imprisonment or fine or both
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 19 provides punishment for tampering with public servants.

Which of the following acts falls under sabotage under Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance?
a) Damaging a government building
b) Hindering railway operations
c) Disrupting essential services
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance of Section 20(1) lists these as sabotage activities.

Who conducts summary trials for offenses punishable under the Ordinance?
a) Sessions Judge
b) Magistrate of the First Class
c) High Court Judge
d) Any police officer
Answer: b) Magistrate of the First Class
Explanation: Punjab Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance section 21, specifies that a First-Class Magistrate can conduct such trials.

Who is authorized to arrest a person without a warrant under this Ordinance?
a) Any private citizen
b) A police officer not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector
c) A Sessions Judge
d) Only the Home Secretary
Answer: b) A police officer not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector
Explanation: Section 23 empowers police officers of a certain rank to arrest individuals suspected of violating the Act.

 

THE PROTECTION AGAINST HARASSMENT OF WOMEN AT THE WORKPLACE ACT 2010

 

According to the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, who can be an “accused” in a harassment complaint?

A) Only a male employee
B) Only an employer
C) An employee or employer of an organization
D) Only a contractual employee

Answer: C) An employee or employer of an organization
Explanation: The Act defines “accused” as an employee or employer against whom a complaint has been made under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, without any gender restriction.

What does “CBA” stand for under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Collective Bargaining Agreement
B) Corporate Business Association
C) Central Bargaining Authority
D) Collective Bargaining Agent

Answer: D) Collective Bargaining Agent
Explanation: “CBA” refers to the Collective Bargaining Agent as provided under the Punjab Industrial Relations Act 2010 or any other relevant law in force.

What is the purpose of the “Code” mentioned in the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act.

A) It defines criminal penalties for harassment
B) It provides a Code of Conduct for preventing harassment
C) It outlines the duties of employers towards employees
D) It specifies salary structures in workplaces

Answer: B) It provides a Code of Conduct for preventing harassment
Explanation: The “Code” in this Act refers to the Code of Conduct included in the Schedule, which provides guidelines on workplace behavior to prevent harassment.

 

Who is considered a “Complainant” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Only a female employee who reports harassment
B) Only an employee who files a complaint to the Inquiry Committee
C) Any man or woman who has lodged a harassment complaint
D) Only an employer who files a complaint against an employee

Answer: C) Any man or woman who has lodged a harassment complaint
Explanation: The Act defines “Complainant” as a woman or a man who has filed a complaint either to the Ombudsperson or the Inquiry Committee regarding harassment.

Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of “Employer” under this Act?

A) A person responsible for management and control of an organization
B) A contractor who procures labor for another organization
C) A customer visiting a workplace
D) A director or office bearer of a company

Answer: C) A customer visiting a workplace
Explanation: The Act defines “Employer” broadly, including owners, directors, office bearers, and contractors. However, customers are not included in the definition of an employer.

What is the meaning of “harassment” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Any action that makes an employee uncomfortable at work
B) Any behavior that interferes with work performance or creates a hostile work environment due to sexual advances
C) Any argument between employees in the workplace
D) Any verbal disagreement related to job responsibilities

Answer: B) Any behavior that interferes with work performance or creates a hostile work environment due to sexual advances
Explanation: The Act defines harassment as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or conduct of a sexual nature that disrupts work performance or creates a hostile workplace.

What is the function of an “Inquiry Committee” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act ?

A) To oversee general workplace operations
B) To investigate complaints of harassment
C) To approve employee promotions
D) To draft employment contracts

Answer: B) To investigate complaints of harassment
Explanation: The “Inquiry Committee” is established under Section 3(1) of the Act and is responsible for investigating complaints related to harassment in the workplace.

Who appoints the “Ombudsperson” under the Protection Against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) The employer of the organization
B) The Inquiry Committee
C) The Government
D) The employees through voting

Answer: C) The Government
Explanation: The Ombudsperson is appointed under Section 7 of the Act by the Government to handle harassment complaints independently.

What does the term “organization” include under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act ?

A) Only private companies
B) Only government offices
C) Only factories and businesses
D) Both public and private sector institutions

Answer: D) Both public and private sector institutions
Explanation: The Act defines “organization” broadly to include government ministries, corporations, educational institutes, medical facilities, private businesses, and NGOs.

According to the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, what is considered a “workplace”?

A) Only the designated office space assigned to an employee
B) Only the organization’s main office premises
C) Any location where official work is carried out, including work-related activities outside the office
D) Only industrial and commercial establishments

Answer: C) Any location where official work is carried out, including work-related activities outside the office
Explanation: The Act defines a “workplace” broadly to include not only office buildings but also any place where official duties are performed, including off-site work-related activities. This ensures comprehensive protection against workplace harassment in all professional settings.

Within how many days of the enactment of the Act must an organization constitute an Inquiry Committee?

A) 15 days B) 30 days
C) 45 days D) 60 days

Answer: B) 30 days
Explanation: According to Section 3(1), every organization is required to establish an Inquiry Committee within 30 days of the enactment of this Act to handle harassment complaints.

What is the minimum requirement regarding the composition of the Inquiry Committee?

A) It must have at least one external member
B) It must have at least two female members
C) It must have three members, with at least one woman
D) It must have only senior management officials

Answer: C) It must have three members, with at least one woman
Explanation: Section 3(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act states that the Inquiry Committee must consist of three members, of whom at least one must be a woman. The committee should include a senior management member and a senior employee representative.

What is the time frame within which the Inquiry Committee must communicate the charges to the accused after receiving a complaint?

A) 24 hours B) 3 days
C) 7 days D) 15 days

Answer: B) 3 days
Explanation: Section 4(1)(a) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act

mandates that the Inquiry Committee must inform the accused of the charges within three days of receiving the written complaint.

If the accused fails to submit a written defense within the given time, what action can the Inquiry Committee take?

A) Dismiss the complaint automatically
B) Extend the time indefinitely
C) Proceed with the inquiry ex-parte
D) Close the case without investigation

Answer: C) Proceed with the inquiry ex-parte
Explanation: As per Section 4(1)(b) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act , the Inquiry Committee allows the accused seven days to submit a written defense. If the accused fails to respond without reasonable cause, the committee proceeds ex-parte (without their input).

What are the two categories of penalties that the Inquiry Committee can recommend if the accused is found guilty?

A) Primary and secondary penalties B) Criminal and civil penalties
C) Minor and major penalties D) Temporary and permanent penalties

Answer: C) Minor and major penalties
Explanation: Section 4(4) divides penalties into minor and major penalties. Minor penalties include censure and withholding promotions, while major penalties include dismissal from service and compulsory retirement.

What is one of the powers granted to the Inquiry Committee under Section 5 of t the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) To issue arrest warrants for the accused
B) To summon and enforce attendance of any person
C) To terminate employees directly
D) To conduct trials in a court of law

Answer: B) To summon and enforce attendance of any person
Explanation: Section 5(1)(a) the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act

grants the Inquiry Committee the power to summon and enforce attendance of any person and examine them under oath during the investigation.

If the Inquiry Committee finds that a complaint was filed with mala fide intentions, what action can it take?

A) Recommend penalties against the complainant to the Ombudsperson
B) Ignore the false complaint and dismiss the case
C) Automatically punish the complainant
D) Close the case without informing the Ombudsperson

Answer: A) Recommend penalties against the complainant to the Ombudsperson
Explanation: Section 5(3) the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act  states that if the Inquiry Committee finds that a complaint was filed falsely and with bad intent, it can recommend appropriate action against the complainant to the Ombudsperson.

How long does a party have to file an appeal against a penalty imposed by the Competent Authority?

A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days

Answer: C) 30 days
Explanation: Section 6(1) of the Act provides that an appeal against minor or major penalties must be filed with the Ombudsperson within 30 days from the written communication of the decision.

Who appoints the Ombudsperson under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Chief Justice of Pakistan
B) President of Pakistan
C) The Government
D) Federal Public Service Commission

Answer: C) The Government
Explanation: As per Section 7(1) of the Act, the Government is responsible for appointing the Ombudsperson on prescribed terms and conditions.

Which of the following is NOT a qualification requirement for appointment as an Ombudsperson?

A) Must be at least 45 years of age
B) Must be a retired Chief Justice of Pakistan
C) Must have been a Judge of a High Court or qualified to be one
D) Must have served in BS-20 or above in Pakistan’s civil service

Answer: B) Must be a retired Chief Justice of Pakistan
Explanation: According to Section 7(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, an Ombudsperson must be at least 45 years old and either:

A Judge of a High Court or qualified to be one, or A retired civil servant of BS-20 or above, or An eminent educationist with at least four years of administrative experience.
There is no requirement to be a Chief Justice of Pakistan.

What is the tenure of the Ombudsperson, and can it be extended or renewed?

A) 3 years, extendable for another term
B) 4 years, extendable for another term
C) 4 years, non-renewable
D) 5 years, extendable for one more term

Answer: C) 4 years, non-renewable
Explanation: According to Section 7(5) the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, the Ombudsperson serves for four years and cannot be reappointed or have the tenure extended.

Within how many days must the Ombudsperson issue a show cause notice to the accused after receiving a complaint?

A) 24 hours B) 3 days
C) 5 days D) 7 days

Answer: B) 3 days
Explanation: Section 8(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act states that after receiving a complaint, the Ombudsperson must issue a written show cause notice to the accused within three days.

What is the consequence if the accused fails to submit a written defense without reasonable cause?

A) The complaint is dismissed
B) The complainant is automatically declared the winner
C) The Ombudsperson proceeds ex-parte
D) The accused is fined immediately

Answer: C) The Ombudsperson proceeds ex-parte
Explanation: Section 8(2) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act specifies that if the accused does not submit a written defense within five days without a valid reason, the Ombudsperson can proceed with the case ex-parte (without the accused’s response).

Who has the final authority to decide on appeals against the Ombudsperson’s decision?

A) Supreme Court of Pakistan
B) High Court
C) Federal Public Service Commission
D) The Governor

Answer: D) The Governor
Explanation: Section 9 of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act states that any person aggrieved by the Ombudsperson’s decision may appeal to the Governor within 30 days, and the Governor’s decision is final.

Which of the following powers does the Ombudsperson NOT have under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) Summoning and enforcing attendance of any person
B) Issuing arrest warrants for the accused
C) Compelling the production of evidence
D) Issuing commissions for examination of witnesses

Answer: B) Issuing arrest warrants for the accused
Explanation: As per Section 10 of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, the Ombudsperson has judicial powers similar to a Civil Court, including summoning persons, compelling evidence, and issuing commissions. However, the Ombudsperson cannot issue arrest warrants, as that falls under the authority of criminal courts.

What is the responsibility of the employer under the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act?

A) To ensure implementation of the Act and form an Inquiry Committee
B) To refer all complaints directly to the police
C) To personally handle all harassment cases without involving the Ombudsperson
D) To terminate any employee accused of harassment immediately

Answer: A) To ensure implementation of the Act and form an Inquiry Committee
Explanation: Section 11(1) of the Act, states that the employer must ensure the proper implementation of the Act, including:

• Forming an Inquiry Committee
• Designating a competent authority
• Incorporating the Code of Conduct into management policy

 

Within how many months of the commencement of the Act must employers display copies of the Code of Conduct in the workplace?

A) 2 months B) 4 months
C) 6 months D) 12 months

Answer: C) 6 months
Explanation: According to Section 11(2), employers must display the Code of Conduct in English and the local language within six months of the Act’s commencement.

 

What penalty can be imposed on an employer who fails to comply with the Act?

A) Imprisonment for five years
B) A fine between Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 100,000
C) Permanent closure of the business
D) Cancellation of all work contracts

Answer: B) A fine between Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 100,000
Explanation: As per Section 11(3) of the protection against Harassment of Women at the Workplace Act, if an employer fails to comply with the Act, any employee can file a complaint before the Ombudsperson. If found guilty, the employer is liable to a fine ranging from Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000.

THE PUNJAB PROHIBITION OF EXPRESSING MATTERS ON WALLS ACT, 1995

(Act II of 1995)

What is the main objective of the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) To regulate advertisements in Punjab
B) To prohibit the expression of matters on walls in Punjab
C) To control the use of public property for business promotion
D) To regulate media content

Answer: B) To prohibit the expression of matters on walls in Punjab
Explanation: The Preamble clearly states that the Act aims to prohibit expressing matters on walls within the Punjab province.

 

What is the punishment for violating the Act by expressing matters on walls?

A) Fine up to Rs. 5,000
B) Imprisonment up to 1 year
C) Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine between Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000 or both
D) Only a warning

Answer: C) Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine between Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000 or both
Explanation: Section 2 of the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, specifies that violators can face imprisonment for up to six months or a fine ranging from Rs. 25,000 to Rs. 100,000, or both.

Which of the following actions is prohibited under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Writing on walls with chalk or paint
B) Affixing posters or placards on walls
C) Expressing any matter on walls to attract public attention
D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Section 2 prohibits writing, affixing posters, placards, bills, or any advertisements on walls with the intention of attracting public attention.

What is the exception to the prohibition under this the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Government agencies can express matters on walls
B) Businesses can advertise with a special permit
C) The owner or possessor of the wall can express particulars related to himself or his business
D) Political parties can use walls for election campaigns

Answer: C) The owner or possessor of the wall can express particulars related to himself or his business
Explanation: The Exception Clause under Section 2 allows wall owners to express information related to themselves or their businesses.

What is the territorial extent of the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Only in major cities of Punjab
B) Only in Lahore
C) The whole province of Punjab
D) Nationwide

Answer: C) The whole province of Punjab
Explanation: Section 1(2) of the act  states that the Act extends to the entire province of Punjab.

When did the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, come into force?

A) After 30 days of approval
B) On 1st January 1995
C) Immediately upon enactment
D) After being published in the Gazette

Answer: C) Immediately upon enactment
Explanation: Section 1(3) states that the Act came into force at once upon its enactment.

Who is responsible for removing existing wall expressions after the Act comes into effect?

A) The owner of the wall
B) The Police
C) The Local Council
D) The District Commissioner

Answer: C) The Local Council
Explanation: Section 3 mandates that every Local Council must remove existing unlawful expressions from walls within 30 days of the Act’s commencement.

What type of offence is considered a violation under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Non-cognizable and bailable
B) Cognizable and non-bailable
C) Civil offence
D) Compoundable offence

Answer: B) Cognizable and non-bailable
Explanation: Section 2A(1), inserted through the 2015 amendment, classifies the offence as cognizable and non-bailable.

Who is authorized to conduct a trial for offences under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) A Civil Judge
B) A Magistrate of the First Class
C) A Sessions Judge
D) The District Commissioner

Answer: B) A Magistrate of the First Class
Explanation: Section 2A(2) of the Act states that a Magistrate of the First Class will conduct trials under Chapter XXII of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898, following summary trial procedures.

What was the original maximum fine under this Act before the 2015 amendment?

A) Rs. 1,000
B) Rs. 5,000
C) Rs. 10,000
D) Rs. 50,000

Answer: B) Rs. 5,000
Explanation: The 2015 amendment increased the fine from the original Rs. 5,000 to Rs. 25,000 

 

In which year was the provision for cognizance and summary trial added to the Act?

A) 1995
B) 1998
C) 2010
D) 2015

Answer: D) 2015
Explanation: Section 2A was inserted through the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls (Amendment) Act, 2015.

 

Under which section does the Provincial Government have the power to make rules for the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) Section 2 B) Section 2A
C) Section 3 D) Section 4

Answer: D) Section 4
Explanation: Section 4 (added in 1998) grants the Provincial Government the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Act.

How was the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, introduced?

A) As an executive order
B) As a government bill
C) As a private member bill
D) As a Presidential Ordinance

Answer: C) As a private member bill
Explanation: The Act was moved as a private member bill by Mr. S.A. Hameed in the Punjab Assembly.

 

How many days does the Local Council have to remove unlawful wall expressions after the Act’s commencement?

A) 7 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 60 days

Answer: C) 30 days
Explanation: Section 3 the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995, requires all unlawful expressions on walls to be removed within 30 days.

Which amendment introduced the power for the Punjab Government to make rules under the Punjab Prohibition of Expressing Matters on Walls Act, 1995?

A) The 1998 amendment B) The 2005 amendment
C) The 2015 amendment D) The 2020 amendment

Answer: A) The 1998 amendment
Explanation: Section 4 of the Act, which allows the Provincial Government to make rules, was added through the 1998 amendment.

 

THE PUNJAB PROHIBITION OF KITE FLYING ORDINANCE, 2001

When was the Punjab Prohibition of Kite Flying Ordinance, 2001, promulgated?

A) 1st January 2001
B) 15th August 2001
C) 26th December 2001
D) 5th November 2001

Answer: C) 26th December 2001
Explanation: The ordinance was promulgated by the Governor of Punjab and published in the Punjab Gazette on 26th December 2001.

 

According to the ordinance, what does “kite flying” include?

A) Flying kites for recreational purposes
B) Flying kites with metallic wire or sharp maanjha
C) Selling paper kites without a permit
D) Using any material for kite flying

Answer: B) Flying kites with metallic wire or sharp maanjha
Explanation: The definition in Section 2(c) specifies that kite flying involves using metallic wire, nylon cord, or any coated thread that endangers human life or property.

Under the ordinance, which entity is authorized to allow kite flying for a limited period?

A) Chief Minister of Punjab
B) Deputy Commissioner
C) Nazim of the concerned district with Government approval
D) Superintendent of Police

Answer: C) Nazim of the concerned district with Government approval
Explanation: Section 4(2) states that the district Nazim may allow kite flying for up to 15 days during the spring season with prior approval from the Government.

What is the maximum imprisonment for violating Section 4(1) the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) 1 year B) 2 years
C) 3 years D) 5 years

Answer: C) 3 years

Explanation: Section 4(3) prescribes a maximum imprisonment of three years for committing or abetting an act of kite flying, manufacturing, storing, or selling dangerous kite-flying materials.

What is the maximum fine for violating the kite flying ban?

A) Rs. 10,000
B) Rs. 50,000
C) Rs. 100,000
D) Rs. 500,000

Answer: C) Rs. 100,000
Explanation: Section 4(3) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that violators can be fined up to Rs. 100,000.

 

What does “sharp maanjha” refer to in the ordinance?

A) A string used for normal kite flying
B) A thread coated with chemicals and glass
C) A decorative thread for kite designs
D) A biodegradable thread

Answer: B) A thread coated with chemicals and glass
Explanation: Section 2(f) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 defines sharp maanjha as a thread coated with chemicals, ground glass, or other harmful materials used for kite flying.

What is the legal status of an offence under this ordinance?

A) Non-cognizable and bailable
B) Cognizable and non-bailable
C) Non-cognizable but non-bailable
D) Cognizable but bailable

Answer: B) Cognizable and non-bailable
Explanation: Section 3 of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that an offence under this ordinance is cognizable and non-bailable, meaning police can arrest without a warrant, and bail is not granted easily.

Which legal procedure applies to trials under this ordinance?

A) Chapter VI of the CrPC
B) Chapter IX of the CrPC
C) Chapter XXII of the CrPC
D) Chapter XXV of the CrPC

Answer: C) Chapter XXII of the CrPC
Explanation: Section 3 specifies that offences under the ordinance will be tried summarily under Chapter XXII of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898.

 

Who is responsible for registering kite manufacturers and sellers?

A) Punjab Police
B) The District Government or City District Government
C) The Chief Secretary
D) The Home Department

Answer: B) The District Government or City District Government

Explanation: Section 4-A(1) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 mandates that kite manufacturers, traders, and sellers must register with the concerned District or City District Government.

 

What is the penalty for operating without registration under Section 4-A of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) Rs. 50,000 fine
B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
C) Rs. 10,000 fine
D) Life imprisonment

Answer: B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
Explanation: Section 4-A(2) states that non-registered manufacturers or sellers can face up to six months imprisonment, a fine of up to Rs. 100,000, or both.

 

What does the term “place” include under the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) Only public roads and streets
B) Only parks and playgrounds
C) Streets, roads, parks, houses, buildings, and open spaces
D) Only private properties

Answer: C) Streets, roads, parks, houses, buildings, and open spaces
Explanation: Section 2(d) defines “place” broadly, including public and private spaces such as roads, hotels, clubs, and even graveyards.

Can a person manufacture kites for sale without approval?

A) Yes, if they have a registered business
B) Yes, but only during the spring season
C) No, manufacturing kites without approval is prohibited
D) Yes, if they use only paper and cotton thread

Answer: C) No, manufacturing kites without approval is prohibited
Explanation: Section 4(1)(b) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 prohibits manufacturing, selling, or offering kites for sale unless permitted under the ordinance.

What action must an owner or possessor of a place take before allowing kite flying?

A) Obtain permission from the Union Nazim and inform the Station House Officer (SHO)
B) Apply for a business license
C) Pay a registration fee to the District Government
D) Sign an affidavit in court

Answer: A) Obtain permission from the Union Nazim and inform the Station House Officer (SHO)
Explanation: Section 4-B(1) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that an owner must obtain prior permission from the Union Nazim and notify the area SHO before allowing kite flying.

What is the punishment for violating Section 4-B(1) regarding permission for kite flying?

A) Rs. 50,000 fine
B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
C) Rs. 500,000 fine
D) 2 years imprisonment

Answer: B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
Explanation: Section 4-B(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, prescribes a maximum penalty of six months imprisonment, a fine of Rs. 100,000, or both for violating this requirement.

Who has the authority to establish a kite flying association?

A) Punjab Police
B) The Punjab Government
C) A District Government
D) The Home Ministry

Answer: C) A District Government
Explanation: Section 4-C(1) of the Ordinance states that a District Government may establish a kite flying association as per prescribed rules.

What functions does a kite flying association perform?

A) Organizing kite flying competitions
B) Regulating kite production and sales
C) Performing prescribed functions in the prescribed manner
D) Conducting safety awareness programs

Answer: C) Performing prescribed functions in the prescribed manner
Explanation: Section 4-C(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 states that a kite flying association performs functions as prescribed by law.

Under what circumstances can a police officer arrest a person without a warrant?

A) Only if caught flying a kite
B) Only if a complaint is filed
C) If they have reasonable suspicion of an offence under Section 4 or 4-A
D) Never, as a court order is required

Answer: C) If they have reasonable suspicion of an offence under Section 4 or 4-A
Explanation: Section 5(a) of the Ordinance authorizes a Sub-Inspector or higher-ranked officer to arrest any person suspected of violating kite flying laws without a warrant.

What authority does a police officer have under Section 5(b) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) Enter and search any place suspected of kite flying at any time
B) Only search a place with a court order
C) Confiscate only kites and not materials used
D) Conduct a search only in the presence of a witness

Answer: A) Enter and search any place suspected of kite flying at any time
Explanation: Section 5(b) gives a police officer the power to enter, search, and use necessary force to prevent violations of the ordinance.

 

Which court has jurisdiction to hear an appeal against a Magistrate’s order under this ordinance?

A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Court of Sessions
D) Anti-Terrorism Court

Answer: C) Court of Sessions
Explanation: Section 7 of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that appeals against a Magistrate’s order lie with the Court of Sessions, whose decision is final.

How does this ordinance affect other laws?

A) It operates alongside all other laws
B) It overrides any conflicting law
C) It is subordinate to the CrPC
D) It applies only if no other law exists

Answer: B) It overrides any conflicting law
Explanation: Section 8 of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 states that the ordinance has effect regardless of any other law in force.

What is the purpose of rules made under Section 8-A the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001?

A) To regulate and clarify the implementation of the ordinance
B) To introduce new penalties
C) To increase the punishment beyond the ordinance
D) To amend the Constitution

Answer: A) To regulate and clarify the implementation of the ordinance
Explanation: Section 8-A(1) allows the Government to make rules to carry out the purposes of the ordinance.

What is the punishment for violating the rules made under Section 8-A?

A) Rs. 10,000 fine
B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
C) 1-year imprisonment
D) Rs. 500,000 fine

Answer: B) 6 months imprisonment or Rs. 100,000 fine or both
Explanation: Section 8-A(2) prescribes imprisonment of up to six months, a fine up to Rs. 100,000, or both for violating the rules.

Which material is explicitly prohibited for kite flying?

A) Plastic strings
B) Woolen threads
C) Metallic wire and nylon cord (tandi)
D) Bamboo sticks

Answer: C) Metallic wire and nylon cord (tandi)
Explanation: Section 4(1)(c) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 prohibits using metallic wire, nylon cord, or any thread coated with sharp maanjha for kite flying.

 

Who has the power to issue a general or special order regarding kite manufacturing?

A) The Inspector General of Police
B) The Home Secretary
C) The Government of Punjab
D) The Supreme Court

Answer: C) The Government of Punjab
Explanation: Section 4(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, states that the Government may issue orders specifying periods for kite manufacturing.

Who can issue a notification allowing kite flying for a limited period?

A) The Chief Minister of Punjab
B) The Inspector General of Police
C) The Nazim of the concerned district with prior approval of the Government
D) The Deputy Commissioner

Answer: C) The Nazim of the concerned district with prior approval of the Government
Explanation: Section 4(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001, allows the Nazim, with Government approval, to issue a notification permitting kite flying for up to fifteen days during the spring season.

Can kite flying be permitted with metallic wire or sharp maanjha during the allowed period?

A) Yes, but only in open fields
B) No, it remains prohibited at all times
C) Yes, but only with a special permit
D) Yes, if conducted at night

Answer: B) No, it remains prohibited at all times
Explanation: The explanation in Section 4(2) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 clarifies that even if kite flying is temporarily allowed, the use of metallic wire, nylon cord, or sharp maanjha remains strictly prohibited.

What type of offence is a violation of the Punjab Prohibition of Kite Flying Ordinance, 2001?

A) Cognizable and non-bailable
B) Non-cognizable and bailable
C) Civil offence
D) Compoundable offence

Answer: A) Cognizable and non-bailable
Explanation: Section 3 of the ordinance,  states that offences under this ordinance are cognizable (police can arrest without a warrant) and non-bailable.

What is the maximum imprisonment for violating Section 4(1) of the Punjab prohibition of kite flying ordinance, 2001 (manufacturing, storing, selling, or offering prohibited kite flying materials)?

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years

Answer: C) 3 years
Explanation: Section 4(3) prescribes a maximum punishment of three years imprisonment or a fine of Rs. 100,000 or both for contravening Section 4(1).

 

What does the term “sharp maanjha” refer to under this ordinance?

A) A type of kite used in competitions
B) A thread coated with chemicals and ground glass or other dangerous material
C) A lightweight cotton thread used for kite flying
D) A type of string used for making musical instruments

Answer: B) A thread coated with chemicals and ground glass or other dangerous material
Explanation: Section 2(f) defines “sharp maanjha” as a mixture of chemicals and ground glass or any other injurious and dangerous material coated on thread for kite flying, making it hazardous.

 

CRIMINAL LAW

PAKISTAN PENAL CODE 1860

 

1. The year of enactment of Pakistan Penal Code is:
2. 1860 B. 1870
3. 1880 D. 1898

• Ans: A. 1860

 

2. Total sections of Pakistan Penal Code are:
3. 511 B. 565
4. 280 D. 411

• Ans: A. 511

 

3. Wrongful loss is:
4. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled
5. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is not legally entitled
6. All of them
7. None of these

• Ans: A. the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled

 

4. How many accused persons are required to establish common intention u/s 34? 
5. 5 B. More than one and less than five
6. 7 D. None of these

• Ans: B. More than one and less than five

 

5. How many accused persons are required to establish common object?
6. 4 B. Five or more than five persons 
7. 3 D. None of these

• Ans: B. Five or more than five persons

 

6. Punishment for rape according to section 376 PPC:
7. Death or life imprisonment B. Imprisonment for ten years
8. Imprisonment for 7 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. Death or life imprisonment

 

7. How many accused persons are required for the offence of “Dacoity”?
8. 4 B. 5 or more than 5
9. 2 or more than 2 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 5 or more than 5

 

8. Unlawful assembly comprises of:
9. At least 5 persons B. At least 6 persons
10. At least 4 persons D. None of these

• Ans: A. At least 5 persons

 

9. Which section provides punishment for common :
10. 149 B. 141 
11. 96 D. 151 

• Ans: A. 149 

10. Affray is:
11. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting
12. Disturbance of public peace by one person by fighting
13. Disturbance of public peace by five or more persons by fighting
14. None of these

• Ans: A. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting

 

11. Attempt to commit suicide is an offence according to PPC under section:
12. 322 B. 324 
13. 325 D. 327 

• Ans: C. 325

 

12. Imprisonment for life according to PPC is :
13. Imprisonment for 25 years B. Imprisonment till death
14. Imprisonment till old age D. None of these

• Ans: A. Imprisonment for 25 years

 

13. Imprisonment for life according to Hadood laws:
14. Imprisonment till death B. Imprisonment for 25 years 
15. Imprisonment till old age D. None of these

• Ans: A. Imprisonment till death

 

14. Imprisonment for theft may extend to :
15. 3 years B. 5 years
16. 2 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. 3 years

 

15. Punishment for giving false evidence is mentioned in PPC u/s: 
16. 192 B. 191
17. 190 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 192

 

16. Gratification u/s 161 includes :
17. Monitory gains 
18. pecuniary terms
19. Gratification estimable in money
20. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

17. The punishment for the exercise of personal influence with public servant is:
18. Death penalty
19. Life imprisonment
20. Rigorous imprisonment extendable to 2 years
21. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

• Ans: D. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

 

18. Shajjah is of following kinds:
19. 6 B. 9
20. 7 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 6

 

19. Life according to PPC is:
20. Life of men only B. Life of human being 
21. Life of Animal D. None of these

• Ans: B. Life of human being

 

20. A sentence of death awarded by way of “Qisas” or “Tazir” shall not be executed until:
21. Confirmed by High Court
22. Confirmed by Session Judge
23. Confirmed by Supreme Court
24. None of these

• Ans: A. Confirmed by High Court

 

21. The property, according to section 378 of PPC, in theft has to be:
22. Movable B. Immovable
23. Corporeal D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Movable

 

22. Theft has been defined u/s:
23. 376 B. 378
24. 377 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 378

 

23. A Robbery becomes a dacoity if committed by:
24. 6 or more than 6 persons B. 4 or more than 4 persons
25. 5 or more than 5 persons D. None of these

• Ans: C. 5 or more than 5 persons

 

24. Criminal breachof trust has been defined u/s:
25. 405 B. 406 
26. 407 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 405 of PPC

 

25. The word “death” denotes the death of:
26. An bird B. A human being
27. An Animal D. All of the above

• Ans: B. A human being

 

26. Kidnapping includes:
27. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship
28. Kidnapping from Pakistan
29. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship
30. None of these

• Ans: C. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship

 

27. The value of diyat under section 323 PPC is:
28. Discretion of the court 
29. Not less than the value of 30640 grams of silver
30. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver
31. None of these

• Ans: C. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver

 

28. Arsh denotes the compensation to be paid:
29. To the victim or his heirs B. To the accused or his heirs 
30. Both D. None of these

• Ans: A. To the victim or his heirs

 

29. Criminal intimidation is defined u/s:
30. 503 B. 505
31. 507 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 503

 

30. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab shall be:
31. Diyat B. Imprisonment for 2 years
32. Imprisonment upto 25 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. Diyat

 

31. Punishment for “Robbery” has been defined u/s :
32. 392 B. 391
33. 390 D. None to these

• Ans: C. 392

 

32. Punishment for robbery:
33. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than five years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine
34. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than two years nor more than five years and shall also be liable to fine
35. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine 
36. None of these

• Ans: C. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine

 

33. Qatl-i-amd has been defined u/s:
34. 299 B. 300,301 
35. 301,302 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 300,301

 

34. Punishment of qatl-i-amd under section 302 B. when proof of qatl-i-amd is not available under section 304 PPC:
35. Death as Ta’zir B. Death or imprisonment for life as ta’zir
36. Imprisonment for 5 years D. None of these

• Ans: B. Death or imprisonment for life as ta’zir

 

35. Punishment of qatl-i-amd under section 302 A. when proof of qatl-i-amd is available under section 304 PPC:
36. Death as qisas B. Death as ta’zir
37. Imprisonment for 5 years D. None of these

• Ans: A. Death as qisas

 

36. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd: 
37. Death
38. Diyat
39. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 7 years as Ta’zir

• Ans: C. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir

 

37. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd has been defined u/s:
38. 310 B. 316 
39. 312 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 316

 

38. Punishment for Qatl-i-Khata has been defined u/s:
39. 316 B. 318 
40. 320 D. 319

• Ans: D. 319

 

39. Punishment for Qatli-i-Khata by rash or negligent driving:
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years
41. Arsh and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years 
42. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 5 years
43. none of these

• Ans: A. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years

 

40. Attempt to commit qatl-i-amd is prescribed u/s:
41. 326 B. 325 
42. 324 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 324

 

41. Kinds of hurt u/s 332:
42. 4 B. 5
43. 6 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 5

42. Kinds of ghayr-jaifah under section 337 (E):
43. 6 B. 8
44. 10 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 6

 

43. Kinds of punishments u/s 53 :
44. 15 B. 13
45. 10 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 10

 

44. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
45. 7 years of age
46. 12 years of age 
47. 15 years of age
48. None of these

• Ans: A. 7 years of age

 

45. Nothing is an offence which is done in exercise of the right of private defence under sections:
46. 76-96 B. 96 to 106 
47. 80-100 D. 100-104

• Ans: B. 96 to 106 

 

46. Defamation has been defined u/s:
47. 499 B. 299 
48. 399 D. 199

• Ans: A. 499 PPC

 

47. Whoever uses derogatory remark etc, in respect of the Hazrat Mohammad (Peace Be Upon Him) shall be punished with: 
48. Death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(B) PPC
49. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC
50. Imprisonment for life
51. None of these

• Ans: B. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC

 

48. The word “Person includes”:
49. Any company B. Body of persons
50. Association D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

49. Public servant includes:
50. Member of National Assembly
51. Person who holds any office of the Government 
52. Member of WASA
53. None of these

• Ans: B. Person who holds any office of the Government

 

50. In a case of Qatl, the wali shall be:
51. The children of the victim, according to his family law
52. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law
53. The Nazim of the city
54. The Government 

• Ans: B. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law

 

51. Qatl-i-amad is not liable to Qisas:
52. If the offender is a close relative of the victim
53. If the offender is a husband of the victim
54. When the offender is minor or insane
55. All of the above

• Ans: C. When the offender is minor or insane

 

52. Arsh for causing itlaf of a tooth shall be:
53. One twentieth of diyat
54. One tenth of diyat
55. Equal to the value of the diyat
56. None of these

• Ans: A. One twentieth of diyat

 

53. U/S 209 Whoever fraudulently or dishonesty or with intent to injure or annoy any person makes in a court of justice any claim which he knows to be false:
54. Shall be punished with imprisonment for 5 years or fine or both
55. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall also be liable to fine
56. Shall be liable to fine only
57. All of above

• Ans: B. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall be liable to fine

 

54. Diyat means the compensation payable to the heirs of the victim specified u/s: 
55. 324 B. 338
56. 323 D. 330

• Ans: C. 323

 

55. The value of daman may be determined by the court keeping in view:
56. The expenses incurred on the treatment of the victim
57. The loss or disability caused in the functioning or power of any organ
58. The compensation for the anguish suffered by the victim
59. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

56. Qisas for qatl-i-amad shall not be conforced:
57. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas
58. When the offender is punished with Tazir.
59. When the offender has close relation with victim.
60. None of these

• Ans: A. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas

 

57. Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension is liable to be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both as given u/s:
58. 224 B. 225
59. 225-A D. 225-B

• Ans: A. 224

 

58. Whoever causes Jurh in which the injury extends to the body cavity of the trunk, is said to cause.
59. Hurt B. Jaifah
60. Shajjah D. None

• Ans: B. Jaifah

 

59. The president has the right to grant pardons reprieves, respites or remissions of Punishment u/s.
60. 58 B. 155
61. 55-A D. 160

• Ans: C. 55-A

 

60. Criminal conspiracy u/s 120-A means when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done.
61. An illegal act
62. Or an act, which is not illegal but done by illegal means
63. An act, which is illegal by law but not by tradition
64. A and B both

• Ans: D. A and B both

 

61. Whoever by force compels or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place.
62. Is said to abduct that person
63. Is said to kidnap that person
64. Is said to confine that person
65. Is said to abduct and kidnap that person

• Ans: A. Is said to abduct that person

 

62. Without exposing bone of the victim, the accused is said to cause: 
63. Shajjah-i-Khafifah B. Shajjah-i-Damighah
64. Shajjjah-i-Mudihah D. Shajjah-i-Hashimah 

• Ans: A. Shajjah-i-Khafifah

 

63. Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
64. Ten years or with fine or with both
65. Seven years
66. Seven years or with fine or with both
67. Life imprisonment

• Ans: C. Seven years or with fine or with both

 

64. Whoever kidnaps any person with intent to cause that person to be secretly and wrongfully confined shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to: 
65. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine
66. 10 years and shall also be liable to fine 
67. Life imprisonment and shall also be liable to fine
68. None of above

• Ans: A. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine

 

65. Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit:
66. Robbery B. Extortion 
67. Theft D. All of above

• Ans: C. Theft

 

66. The term “Court of Justice” denotes:
67. The chamber of the court
68. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially
69. A Bench of judge, which is empowered by law to act judicially
70. None of these

• Ans: B. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially

 

67. Special law denotes:
68. A law which is made by traditions
69. A law applicable to a particular subject 
70. A law applicable to a particular place
71. A law applicable to a special class of people

• Ans: B. A law applicable to a particular subject

 

68. Local law denotes:
69. A law applicable only to particular class of persons in Pakistan
70. A law applicable to the entire country
71. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan
72. None of these

• Ans: C. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan

 

69. When two or more person by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to:
70. Commit an affray
71. Create a public nuisance
72. Guilty of offence of being members of the unlawful assembly
73. None of these

• Ans: A. Commit an affray

 

70. When one act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable for the act done.
71. False B. True
72. A and B Both D. None 

• Ans: B. True

 

71. Whoever uses any false trade mark or any false property mark shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
72. One year or with fine or with both
73. Three years or with fine or with both
74. Four years or with fine or with both
75. None of these

• Ans: A. One year or with fine or with both

 

72. Punishment for jaifah is given u/s:
73. 337B B. 337C
74. 337D D. 337E

• Ans: C. 337D

 

73. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab is:
74. Diyat
75. Diyat and five year imprisonment
76. Diyat and 10 year imprisonment
77. None of the above

• Ans: A. diyat

 

74. “Mischief” is narrated u/s:
75. 425 B. 426
76. 428 D. 428

• Ans: A. 425

 

75. Punishment for criminal intimidation is provided u/s:
76. 503 B. 505
77. 506 D. 507

• Ans: C. 506

 

76. Whoever attempts to commit robbery shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
77. 3 years and shall be liable to fine
78. 5 years and shall be liable to fine
79. 7 years and shall be liable to fine
80. None of the above

• Ans: C. 7 years and shall be liable to fine

 

77. What is the relevant provision for isqat-i-janin?
78. 338 A B. 338 B
79. 338 C D. 338 D

• Ans: B. 338 B

 

78. Qatlshibh-i-amd is defined section/s:
79. 310 B. 311
80. 315 D. 318

• Ans: C. 315

 

79. Wrongful gain is discussed u/s:
80. 21 B. 22
81. 23 D. 24

• Ans: C. 23

 

80. Sec 53 deals with:
81. Punishments B. Fines
82. Vessels D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Punishments

 

81. What are the requisites of defamation?
82. Be defamatory B. Be false
83. Be published D. All of the above

• Ans: D. all of the above

 

82. Imprisonment in default of payment of fine worth exceeding Rs. 100 is:
83. 4 months B. 6 months
84. 1 year D. None of the above

• Ans: B. 6 months

 

83. Whoever commits criminal trespass shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
84. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both
85. 6 months or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees or with both
86. 1 year or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees
87. None of the above

• Ans: A. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both

 

84. Fornication is defined u/s:
85. 496 B. 496 A
86. 496 B D. 496 C

• Ans: C. 496 B

 

85. Sedition is discussed u/s:
86. 121 B. 122 A
87. 124 A D. 126 A

• Ans: C. 124 A

 

86. When violence is used by any member of an unlawful assembly it is called:
87. Affray B. Rioting
88. Intimidation D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Affray

 

87. Issuing or signing false certificate is a crime u/s:
88. 195 B. 196
89. 197 D. 198

• Ans: C. 197

 

88. Counterfeiting Pakistani coins is an offence u/s:
89. 232 B. 233
90. 234 D. 235

• Ans: A. 232

 

The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (CR.PC)

 

1. A private complaint can be filed u/s:
2. 200 B. 202
3. 203 D. 204

• Ans: A. 200

 

2. The Magistrate can acquit an accused u/s 249A. at any stage of trial:
3. Yes B. No

• Ans: A. Yes

 

3. A person arrested by Police can be discharged by a Magistrate u/s:
4. 63 B. 163
5. 263 D. 265

• Ans: A. 63

 

4. The Additional Sessions Judge can acquit an accused at any stage of trial u/s:
5. 249A. B. 265
6. 265(k) D. none of these

• Ans: C. 265(k)

 

5. After completion of investigation by Police, Challan is submitted u/s:
6. 173 B. 169
7. 154 D. 167

• Ans: A. 173

 

6. A Magistrate empowered under section 30 can award maximum sentence up to:
7. 5 years B. 7 years
8. 10 years D. none of these

• Ans: B. 7 years

 

7. Pre arrest Bail is granted u/s:
8. 103 B. 344 
9. 498 D. 497

• Ans: C. 498 

 

8. Pre arrest bail can be availed from : 
9. Magistrate B. Court of Session
10. High Court D. B and C both

• Ans: B. B and C both

 

9. Limitation to file Appeal against acquittal by aggrieved person before High Court:
10. 30 days B. 16 days
11. 60 days D. 90 days

• Ans: A. 30 days

 

10. Limitation of appeal against acquittal by Govt through Public Prosecutor:
11. 6 month under Article 157 Limitation Act 
12. 8 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
13. 10 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
14. None of these

• Ans: A. 6 months under Article 157 Limitation Act

 

11. Forum for appeal against acquittal:
12. High Court B. Magistrate
13. Court of session D. None of these

• Ans: A. High Court

 

12. Forum for cancellation of bail:
13. High Court B. Same Court 
14. Session Court D. All of the above

• Ans: B. All of the above

 

13. Every warrant of arrest shall be signed by:
14. The reader of the Court B. Complainant 
15. Police Officer D. Presiding Officer of the Court 

• Ans: D. Presiding Officer of the Court

 

14. A report, which is made u/s 174 is called:
15. Inquest Report B. Statement under Section 161
16. Challan D. First Information Report

• Ans: A. Inquest Report

 

15. Summons issued by a Court under this Code shall be served by:
16. Witnesses B. Police Officer
17. The complainant D. All above mentioned

• Ans: B. Police Officer

 

16. Appeal against the order of Magistrate u/s 30 lies before:
17. High Court B. Court of Session
18. Supreme Court D. None of these

• Ans: B. Court of Session

 

17. Remedy against the executive order of the Magistrate is:
18. Appeal only before the High Court
19. Revision only before the High Court
20. Writ only before the High Court
21. None of these

• Ans: C. Writ only before the High Court

 

18. Forum for cancellation of bail:
19. High Court B. Same Court 
20. Session Court D. All of the above

• Ans: B. All of the above

 

19. The accused is _____ after recording confessional statement:
20. Released on Bail B. Set free
21. Kept in judicial lock-up D. Discharged from investigation 

• Ans: C. Kept in judicial lock-up

 

20. Arrest how made:
21. By hand cuffing the accused B. By actually touching or confining
22. By spoken words D. By showing the warrant.

• Ans: B. By actually touching or confining

 

21. Court of Magistrate of the Third Class may pass the sentence of Imprisonment upto:
22. 1 month B. 6 months
23. 12 months D. None of these

• Ans: A. 1 month

 

22. Court of Magistrate of the Second Class may pass the sentence of imprisonment upto:
23. 10 years B. 01 year
24. 15 years D. None of these

• Ans: B. 01 year

 

23. After framing charge, it is read over to the:
24. Accused B. Complainant 
25. Public Prosecutor D. Witness

• Ans: A. Accused

 

24. An accused person may be declared absconder u/s:
25. 87 B. 61 
26. 167 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 87 

 

25. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
26. 164 B. 337
27. 366 D. 364

• Ans: C. 366

 

26. Post arrest bail is granted u/s:
27. 100 B. 491 
28. 497 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 497 

 

27. Bail means:
28. To discharge the accused
29. To release the accused after executing Bond
30. To acquit the accused
31. None of these

• Ans: B. To release the accused afterexecuting Bond

 

28. A revision shall lie to the High Court u/s:
29. 374 B. 417
30. 439 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 439

 

29. When the Court of Sessions passes sentence of Death, the time period for the appeal is:
30. 07 days B. 30 days
31. 60 days D. 90 days

• Ans: A. 07 days

 

30. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
31. 164 B. 337
32. 366 D. 364

• Ans: C. 366

 

31. An accomplice means any person who is:
32. Complainant B. Public Officer 
33. Police Officer D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime 

• Ans: D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime

 

32. Section 164 deals with the:
33. First Information Report B. Confessions and statements 
34. All of the above D. Challan

• Ans: B. Confessions and statements

 

33. Conditional order for the removal of nuisance is made by the Magistrate u/s:
34. 100 B. 103 
35. 133 D. None of these

• Ans: C. 133 

 

34. Investigation is conducted by:
35. Magistrate B. Session Judge
36. Police Officer D. None of these

• Ans: C. Police Officer

 

35. Inquiry includes one which is conducted by:
36. Magistrate or Court B. Police Officer
37. Advocate D. None of these

• Ans: A. Magistrate or Court

 

36. The Code of Criminal Procedure extends to the:
37. Punjab B. Sindh
38. Whole of Pakistan D. None of these

• Ans: C. Whole of Pakistan

 

37. Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been mentioned u/s:
38. 529 B. 530
39. 537 D. None of these

• Ans: A. 529

 

38. A case in which a police officer may not arrest without warrant is called:
39. Cognizable offence B. Non-cognizable offence
40. Non-cognizable case D. B & Care correct

• Ans: D. B &C are correct

 

39. Any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being in force is known as: 
40. Offence B. Cognizable offence 
41. Non-cognizable offence D. None of the above

• Ans: A. Offence

 

40. Place includes:
41. A House B. A tent & a vessel
42. A building D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

41. Magistrate may dispense with the personal attendance of accused u/s:
42. 204 B. 205 
43. 206 D. 221 

• Ans: B. 205 

 

42. Police inquiry on suicide etc. is conducted u/s:
43. 173 B. 174 
44. 175 D. 176 

• Ans: B. 174 

 

43. Challan is a report of the police officer submitted before the court under section:
44. 170 B. 171 
45. 172 D. 173 

• Ans: D. 173 

 

44. A police officer is empowered to conduct search u/s:
45. 162 B. 165 
46. 166 D. 164 

• Ans: B. 165 

 

45. Supply of statements and documents to the accused is made u/s:
46. 240 B. 242
47. 241-A D. 341

• Ans: C. 241-A

 

46. When a person is charged with one offence:
47. He may be convicted of another
48. He may not be convicted of another
49. Both of the above
50. None of the above

• Ans: A. He may be convicted of another

 

47. Table of the compoundable offences mentioned in PPC is given u/s:
48. 344 B. 345
49. 346 D. 347

• Ans: B. 345

 

48. Power to postpone or adjourn the procedure is vested in a Criminal Court u/s:
49. 344 B. 342
50. 345 D. 346

• Ans: A. 344

 

49. F.I.R (First Information Report) of a cognizable offence is recorded u/s: 
50. 155 of Cr.P.C B. 156 of Cr.P.C
51. 154 of Cr.P.C D. 200 of Cr.P.C

• Ans: C. 154 of Cr.P.C

 

50. Magistrate may acquit accused at any stage considering the charge groundless u/s:
51. 248 B. 249
52. 249-A D. 250

• Ans: C. 249-A

 

51. Chapter XXIV lays down general provisions as to:
52. Inquiries B. Trials
53. Investigations D. Inquiries and trials 

• Ans: D. Inquiries and trials

 

52. Section 265-L empowers the:
53. Advocate General to stay prosecution
54. Court to stay prosecution
55. Inspector legal to stay prosecution
56. Defence Counsel to stay prosecution

• Ans: A. Advocate General to stay prosecution

 

53. In a Court of Session, statement under section 164 is admissible u/s:
54. 265-K B. 265-E
55. 265-J D. 265-L

• Ans: C. 265-J

 

54. Application for acquittal of an accused is moved before a Court of Session u/s:
55. 265-A B. 265-D
56. 265-J D. 265-K

• Ans: D. 265-K

 

55. Procedure for trial before High Court and Court of Session is laid down in chapter:
56. XXII-A B. XXIII
57. XXII-B D. None of the above 

• Ans: A. XXII-A

 

56. No installments shall be allowed in the execution of sentence of:
57. Death B. Stoning to death
58. Whipping D. Imprisonment

• Ans: C. Whipping

 

57. Direction of warrant for execution of sentence of imprisonment shall be to:
58. Inspector General of Jails B. Inspector General of Police 
59. Officer of the Jail D. All of the above

• Ans: C. Officer of the Jail

 

58. In case of sentence of death on a pregnant woman, the High Court shall:
59. Forgive the woman B. Postpone the sentence
60. Execute the woman D. None of the above

• Ans: B. Postpone the sentence

 

59. If the death sentence is passed by Sessions Court, it will be executed:
60. Right away
61. After submission and confirmation by High Court
62. After confirmation and submission to Supreme Court
63. By High Court 

• Ans: B. After submission and confirmation by High Court

 

60. According to section 371 the copy of the judgment shall be given to the accused:
61. Free of cost B. For one hundred rupees
62. For fifty rupees D. For ten rupees

• Ans: A. Free of cost

 

61. A High Court may alter its judgment only in case of :
62. Appeal B. Discretion
63. Clerical error D. None of the above

• Ans: C. Clerical error

 

62. Describe the number of sections in Cr.P.C:
63. 562 B. 563
64. 564 D. 565

• Ans: D. 565

 

63. Offence of Defamation is :
64. Bailable and not compoundable
65. Bailable and compoundable 
66. A and B both
67. None of the above

• Ans: B. Bailable and compoundable

 

64. The offence u/s 489-F (P.P.C) is triable by:
65. Court of Session B. Magistrate 2nd class
66. Magistrate 3rd class D. Magistrate 1st class

• Ans: D. Magistrate 1st class

 

65. Unnatural offence is:
66. Bailable and compoundable 
67. Not bailable and not compoundable 
68. Both
69. None of these

• Ans: B. Not bailable and not compoundable

 

66. Kidnaping is tried by:
67. Court of Session B. Magistrate 1st class
68. Both of the above D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

67. Rape case is tried by:
68. Court of Session B. High Court
69. Magistrate of 1st class D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: A. Court of Session

 

68. Trial of Qatl bis-sabab is conducted by:
69. High Court B. Court of Session
70. Magistrate 1st class D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: B. Court of Session

 

69. Qatl-i-amd is tried by:
70. High Court B. Magistrate 1st class
71. Magistrate 2nd class D. Court of Session

• Ans: D. Court of Session

 

70. Who may try the case u/S. 241 P.P.C:
71. Magistrate 1st class B. Magistrate 2nd class
72. Magistrate 3rd class D. A and B both

• Ans: C. A and B both

 

71. Rioting is tried by:
72. Judicial Magistrate B. Executive Magistrate 
73. Magistrate 1st calss D. Magistrate 2nd class

• Ans: B. Executive Magistrate

 

72. Schedule II coulumn 6 of the Code deals with the offences whether:
73. Bailable or not B. Compoundable or not
74. Triable or not D. None of the above

• Ans: B. Compoundable or not

 

73. Column 8 of 2nd Schedule deals with:
74. Offences B. Warrants
75. Name of trial Court D. There is no 8th column is schedule II

• Ans: C. Name of trial Court

 

74. The power to appoint Public Prosecutor rests with the:
75. High Court B. Supreme Court
76. Provincial Govt D. Federal Govt

• Ans: C. Provincial Govt

 

75. 2nd Revision is competent before:
76. High Court B. Supreme Court
77. Shariat Court D. Session Court

• Ans: C. Shariat Court

 

76. Lunatic means:
77. Minor B. Insane
78. Insolvent D. All of the above

• Ans: B. Insane

 

77. Bail may not be granted to a person against whom security proceedings are taken u/s:
78. 1171 B. 1172
79. 1173 D. 1174

• Ans: C. 1173

 

78. What is the form number of bail bond?
79. Form 42 of Schedule 5 B. Form 43 of Schedule 5
80. Form 44 of Schedule 5 D. Form 45 of Schedule 5

• Ans: A. Form 42 of Schedule

 

79. Who may grant bail in bailable offences?
80. Court of law
81. An officer of Court
82. Officer Incharge of police station
83. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

80. Bail is a:
81. statutory concession B. Inherent right
82. Natural right D. All of the above

• Ans: A. statutory concession

 

81. Confession shall be recorded in:
82. Points B. Full
83. Parts D. All of the above

• Ans: B. Full

 

82. What is the value of evidence of an accomplice:
83. Conviction is based B. Corroboration is required 
84. Weak in status D. All of the above 

• Ans: A. Conviction is based

 

83. Who may grant pardon during trial?
84. High Court
85. Session Court
86. Officer Incharge of prosecution in district
87. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

84. What is the mode of amendment in charge:
85. Suo moto by Court B. On application by prosecution
86. Both of the above D. None of these

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

85. What is the mode of transfer of cases u/s 526:
86. Application by interested person
87. Application by lower Court
88. Suo moto
89. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

86. Section 439 and 439 A deal with:
87. Appeal B. Review
88. Revision D. None of the above

• Ans: C. Revision

 

87. When the judges of Court of Revision are equally divided u/s 439:
88. The case is dismissed 
89. The former sentence is confirmed
90. The case shall be laid before another Judge
91. None of the above

• Ans: C. The case shall be laid before another Judge

 

88. An Assistant Sessions Judge may pass sentence authorized by law except:
89. A sentence of imprisonment 
90. A sentence of death
91. Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
92. None of the above

• Ans: D. None of the above

 

89. Where the evidence is partly recorded by one Presiding Officer and partly by another, the procedure for conviction is given u/s:
90. 350 B. 3501
91. 3502, 3 D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

90. Trial of persons previously convicted of offences against coinage, stamp law or property is conducted u/s:
91. 347 B. 348
92. 349 D. 350

• Ans: B. 348

 

91. Police station means any post or place declared generally or specially to conduct investigation by the:
92. Federal Government B. Local Government 
93. Provincial Government D. A & C both

• Ans: C. Provincial Government

 

92. Copies of the statement u/s 161 and 164 and other necessary documents shall be supplied free of cost to the accused not less than:
93. 7 days before commencement of trial
94. 15 days before commencement of trial
95. 30 days before commencement of trial
96. None of these

• Ans: A. 7 days before commencement of trial

 

93. At any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, the Court may summon any person as a witness or re-call and re-examine any person already examined u/s:
94. 539 B. 540 
95. 540A D. None of these

• Ans: B. 540 

 

94. The Sessions Judge may exercise the same powers of Revision u/s ______ of the Cr.P.C as are conferred on the High Court:
95. 374 B. 417
96. 423 D. 439A

• Ans: D. 439A

 

95. Forum of protective bail:
96. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)
97. Court of session
98. Magistrate
99. None of these 

• Ans: A. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)

 

96. Who is authorized under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to take down the statements of the witnesses or the accused?
97. A Civil Judge B. A Session Judge
98. A Police Officer D. A Magistrate

• Ans: C. A Police Officer

 

97. Every information relating to the commission of an offence if given orally or in writing to the Officer Incharge of Police is called:
98. Complaint B. A news
99. First Information Report D. None of these

• Ans: C. First Information Report

 

98. The Powers of a Magistrate u/s 145 constitute the integral part of the Preventive Jurisdiction of the Magistrate:
99. Correct B. Incorrect
100. Partly correct, Partly incorrect D. None of these

• Ans: A. Correct

 

99. Power of a Magistrate to Sentence to imprisonment in default of fine is contained in Section ________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
100. 33 B. 60
101. 154 D. 221

• Ans: A. 33

 

100. A person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again for same offence under Section ______ of the Code:
101. 337 B. 403
102. 503 D. None of these

• Ans: B. 403

 

101. Which Section delegates powers to a private person to arrest any person who in his view commits a non-Bailable and cognizable offence or who is a proclaimed offender:
102. 190 B. 167 
103. 161 D. 59 

• Ans: D. 59 

 

102. A Challan of the accused under Section 173 of shall be forwarded to a Magistrate through:
103. The Public Prosecutor B. The complainant
104. The PoliceOfficer D. None of these

• Ans: A. The Public Prosecutor

 

103. Whether a PoliceOfficer may release the accused under Section 169 when evidence is deficient against him?
104. Yes
105. No
106. With the Permission of the Court
107. None of these

• Ans: A. Yes

 

104. An allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate for an action against a person who has committed an offence excluding the report of Police Officer is known as:
105. Complaint B. FIR (First Information Report)
106. Statement of allegation D. None of these

• Ans: A. Complaint

 

105. Any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath is known as:
106. Enquiry B. Investigation
107. Non-judicial proceedings D. Judicial proceedings 

• Ans: D. Judicial proceedings

 

106. The proceedings for the collection of evidence conducted by a Police Officer or by any person other than a Magistrate who is authorized by a Magistrate in this regard are known as:
107. Investigation B. Enquiry
108. Judicial Enquiry D. None of the above

• Ans: A. Investigation

 

107. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend, the amount of fine to which the offender is liable is unlimited but it shall not be:
108. Less than 20,000 Rupees. B. More than 20,000 Rupees
109. Excessive D. Deficient 

• Ans: C. Excessive

 

108. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment under Section 57 the imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for:
109. 12 – ½ years B. 15 years
110. 25 years D. Whole life

• Ans: C. 25 years

 

109. A confessional statement is recorded by a Magistrate especially empowered by the Provincial Government u/s:
110. 163 B. 164 
111. 165 D. 166 

• Ans: B. 164 

 

110. If a Magistrate upon taking evidence finds the accused not guilty:
111. He shall convict him B. He shall record an order of acquittal
112. He shall only record an order D. He shall transfer the case

• Ans: B. He shall record an order of acquittal

 

111. Right of a person, against whom proceedings are instituted to be defended and his competency to a witness is given u/s:
112. 339 B. 340
113. 341 D. 343

• Ans: B. 340

 

112. Where a person is guilty of one of several offences specified in the judgment, but that is doubtful that which of these offences he is guilty, the offender will be punished for the offence for which:
113. The lowest punishment is awarded if the same punishment is provided
114. The highest punishment is awarded if same punishment is provided for all
115. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all
116. None of the above

• Ans: C. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all

 

113. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
114. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
115. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
116. Both of the above
117. There is no limitation on revision

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

114. Besides the High Court and the courts constituted under any law other than Cr. P.C, for the time being in force, there shall be two classes of criminal courts in Pakistan, namely:
115. Supreme Court and Tribunals
116. Anti-Corruption Courts and Special Courts
117. Magisterial Courts and Anti-Terrorist Court 
118. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

• Ans: D. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

 

115. U/S 221 of the Cr.P.C, every charge shall state:
116. The history of the accused
117. Offence of the accused
118. Offence with which the accused is charged
119. Nature of the offence

• Ans: C. Offence with which the accused is charged

 

116. Section 160 enshrines:
117. Police Officer’s power to examine witnesses 
118. Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses
119. Police Officer’s power tosuspect
120. Police Officer’s power to hold investigation 

• Ans: B. Police officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses

 

117. At any time before a final order is passed in any case if a complainant satisfies the Magistrate for permission to withdraw his complaint:
118. The Magistrate shall permit him to with draw the case
119. Shall there upon acquit the accused
120. May permit him to withdraw the same
121. ‘B’ & ‘C’ are correct 

• Ans: D. B’ & ‘C’ are correct

 

118. If the summon has been issued on a complaint and upon the day appointed for the appearance of the accused, the complainant does not appear:
119. The magistrate shall acquit the accused
120. Unless for some reason he thinks proper to adjourn the hearing of the case till some other day.
121. A & B are correct
122. None of these

• Ans: C. A & B are correct

 

119. Where the Magistrate does not proceed in accordance with the provisions of section 349, he shall, if he finds the accused guilty:
120. Pass sentence upon him according to law
121. Acquit him
122. Refer the case to superior court
123. Shall proceed under section 349 of the Cr.P.C

• Ans: A. Pass sentence upon him according to law

 

120. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the commencement of trial:
121. The prosecutor shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witnesses
122. The accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness
123. The court shall summon any witness who may have been examined
124. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

• Ans: D. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

 

121. Section 343 says:
122. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge
123. Every influence is to be used to induce disclosure
124. A & B both are correct
125. All of the above

• Ans: A. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge

 

122. A warrant for execution of any sentence shall be issued by:
123. High Court
124. Session Court 
125. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence
126. A & C both

• Ans: C. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence

 

123. In case of sentence of death, according to section 368 , the sentence shall direct that:
124. A person be shot in the chest
125. A person be killed by knife
126. A person be slaughtered by neck for 5 minutes
127. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

• Ans: D. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

 

124. Section 357 speaks as to:
125. Memorandum when evidence is not taken down
126. Language of record of evidence 
127. Manner of record of evidence
128. Option with Magistrate in cases under section 335 

• Ans: B. Language of record of evidence

 

125. Section 364 lays down:
126. Procedure to record evidence in trial of certain cases
127. Procedure of recording inquiry
128. Manner of recording evidence
129. All of the above 

• Ans: C. Manner of recording evidence

 

126. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
127. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
128. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
129. Both of the above
130. There is no limitation on revision

• Ans: C. Both of the above

 

127. When incriminating questions may be asked u/s 342(2):
128. To prove offence with which the accused is charged 
129. Where the accused tries to establish his good character
130. Where the accused gives evidence for any other person
131. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

128. The duty of Court towards the acused u/s 340(2) :
129. To the accused may make a statement on oath
130. The accused may confess to any offence
131. Both of the above
132. The Court has no duty

• Ans: A. to the accused may make a statement on oath

 

129. Requirement for accused to appear as a witness:
130. When proceedings are instituted against him
131. When he does not plead guilty
132. When he is accused of some offence before Criminal Court
133. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

QANOON-E-SHAHADAT ORDER 1984

 

1. A person shall not be competent to testify if he has been convicted by a court for:
2. Perjury B. Giving false evidence 
3. Bad character D. A & B

• Ans: D. A & B

 

2. No Magistrate or Officer shall be competed to my whence he got any information as to the:
3. Planning of an offence B. Preparation of an offence 
4. Omission of an offence D. Commission of a offence

• Ans: D. Commission of a offence

 

3. The subject of “refreshing memory” is dealt within article:
4. 153 B. 154
5. 155 D. 156

• Ans: C. 155

 

4. Under article 148, the court shall forbid any question which appears to the court as intended to:
5. Annoy B. Offensive 
6. Insult D. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

5. Leading question is defined in article:
6. 134 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
7. 135 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 137 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

• Ans: C. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

6. Examination-in-chief has been defined in article:
7. 131 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 133 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
10. 143 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

• Ans: B. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

7. If no evidence at all were given in a suit or proceedings the burden of proof would be on:
8. The one who would fall as a result
9. The one who would rise as a result
10. Both the parties
11. None of them.

• Ans: A. The one who would fall as a result

 

8. Public document are defined in article:
9. 83 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
10. 94 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
11. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
12. 86 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

• Ans: C. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

 

9. The contents of documents may be proved by:
10. Primary evidence B. Secondary evidence 
11. Territory evidence D. a & b

• Ans: D. a & b

 

10. All accused persons, including an accomplice shall be liable to:
11. Hadd B. Criminal proceeding 
12. Cross-examination D. Imprisonment 

• Ans: C. Cross-examination

 

11. All facts may be proved by oral evidence except:
12. Contents of Re-written statements
13. Contents of an oral statement 
14. Contents of documents.
15. b & c

• Ans: D. b & c

 

12. Admission is defined in article:
13. 28 of Qanun-e-Shahadat B. 29 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
14. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat D. 31 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

• Ans: C. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

13. In suits for damages facts intending to enable the court to determine amount are:
14. Partly relevant and partly irrelevant
15. Relevant
16. Irrelevant
17. None of the above 

• Ans: B. Relevant

 

14. In civil cases, previous character taken into account for deciding damges,is:
15. Partly relevant partly irrelevant B. Relevant
16. Irrelevant D. All of the above

• Ans: B. Relevant

 

15. In criminal cases, previous good character is:
16. Irrelevant
17. Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant
19. All of the above

• Ans: B. Relevant

 

16. In civil ases, character to prove conduct imputed is:
17. IrrelevantB)Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Irrelevant

 

17. Article 9 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984” shall also apply to:
18. Interpreters B. Clerks of advocate in writing
19. Servants of advocates D. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

18. According to Article 21, any fact is relevant which shows or constitutes:
19. Any preparation for any fact B. Any motive for any fact
20. A relevant fact D. all of the above

• Ans: D. all of the above

 

19. A competent witness against an accused person except in case of Hadd is _______
20. Party of Suit B. Defendant
21. Accomplice D. None of them

• Ans: C. Accomplice

 

20. Facts which though not in issue are so connected with fact in issue are _______
21. Admitted facts B. Relevant facts
22. Related Facts D. General Facts\

• Ans: B. Relevant facts

 

21. The basic scheme of any action is _______
22. Intention B. Plan
23. Motive D. Preparation

• Ans: C. Motive

 

22.“ Inter alia” means ______

1. Previous judgment can be relevant
2. Judgment is relevant to fact
3. Facts are to be proved
4. Facts proved

• Ans: A. Previous judgment can be relevant

 

23. Article 20 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with ________
24. Admission B. Identification of Accused
25. Appreciation of evidence D. Admissibility of facts

• Ans: D. Admissibility of facts

 

24. A dealing which is carried on between two or more persons is _______
25. Transaction B. Business
26. Agreemen D. Contract

• Ans: A. Transaction

 

25. Article 30 of Qanoon e Shahadat 1984 defines _________
26. Admission B. Confession
27. Intention D. Common intention

• Ans: A. Admission

 

26. In criminal cases, parties may be called as ____________
27. plaintiff and defendant B. accused and complainant
28. accused and prosecution D. A and C

• Ans: B. accused and complainant

 

27. Any opinion which is held by a body of a man is ______.
28. Tenets B. Aggrieved opinion
29. Dogma D. Doctrine

• Ans: A. Tenets

 

28. Document itself produced before the court is _________ 
29. Direct evidence B. primary evidence
30. secondary evidence D. None of them

• Ans: B. primary evidence

 

29. Documents which are prepared by public officer are ________
30. official documents B. Public documents
31. fair documents D. legal documents

• Ans: B. Public documents

 

30. In order to vitiate document must have been committed in the execution of document.
31. In case of fraud B. in case of decified 
32. In case of ADR D. None of them

• Ans: A. In case of fraud

 

31. The lists of facts of which the court shall take notice, which shall be called as _____
32. Legislative notice B. Public notice
33. Judicial Notice D. official notice

• Ans: C. Judicial Notice

 

32. In which deed endorsement to the receipt of consideration/ possession is refundable?
33. Gift dee B. Sale deed
34. Marital deed D. Both a and b

• Ans: A. Gift dee

 

33. Mutual mistake in the working of an agreement is ________
34. Working mistake B. Agreement mistake
35. mistake of law D. Mistake of fact

• Ans: D. Mistake of fact

 

34. Facts which need not to be proved are __________
35. noticeable B. judicial noticeable facts
36. proved facts D. facts not admitted

• Ans: B. judicial noticeable facts

 

35. Grant of interest is prohibited directly under the injunctions of ________
36. Quran B. Sunnah
37. Constitution 1973 D. Qanoon e Shahadat Act

• Ans: A. Quran

 

36. Estoppel shuts the mouth of party, res judicata ousts the __________
37. successive litiatious B. offending act
38. violation of rights D. jurisdiction of court

• Ans: D. jurisdiction of court

 

37. In case of infringement of fundamental rights, one can enjoy _______
38. Right to sue B. right of estopel
39. right of life D. A and C

• Ans: B. right of estopel

 

38. One can enjoy right of estopel uner what article of Qanoon e Shahadat Order.
39. 25 B. 103
40. 112 D. 114

• Ans: D. 114

 

39. Secundum allegata at probate is _______.
40. Petition by bank for recovery of loan
41. execution of consent decree
42. Agreement to sell
43. Illegal contract

• Ans: A. Petition by bank for recovery of loan

 

40. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact is said ________
41. Burden of proof lies on him B. He is not liable to any act
42. He is judgment debtor D. None of them

• Ans: A. Burden of proof lies on him

 

41. Article 117 of Qanoon e Shahadat is about _______
42. Relevancy of fact B. trade marks
43. burden of proof D. Affirmative of issue.

• Ans: C. burden of proof

 

42. A documentary evidence is proved to be true by _______
43. Cross examination B. Confirmation of writer and witnesses
44. Verification D. None of them

• Ans: B. Confirmation of writer and witnesses

 

43. An oral evidence is proved to be true by ________.
44. Cross examination B. confirmation of writer of witnesses
45. Verification D. None of them

• Ans: A. Cross examination

 

44. Documentary evidence relates to documents whereas oral evidence relates to _____
45. incident B. persons
46. offence D. defendant

• Ans: B. persons

 

45. Hearsay evidence is an admissible evidence where it is about _______
46. civil matters B. custom
47. criminal matter D. ADR

• Ans: B. custom

 

46. It is mandatory to _________ accept or reject an admission.
47. discretionarily B. Partially
48. Completely D. None of them

• Ans: C. Completely

 

47. An admission is always made about ________
48. Facts B. Law
49. Parties D. Issues

• Ans: A. Facts

 

48. Admission can be made in _________
49. Criminal matters B. Civil matters
50. A & B D. None of them

• Ans: C. A & B

 

49. A confession is said to be void if it is ________.
50. extra judicial B. under threat
51. pressure D. All of them

• Ans: D. All of them

 

50. Judicial confession is _________ evidence.
51. admissible B. inadmissible
52. partially admissible D. partially inadmissible

• Ans: A. admissible

 

51. Extra judicial confession is ________ evidence.
52. Partially inadmissible B. partially admissible
53. admissible D. inadmissible

• Ans: B. partially admissible

 

52. There are _______types of estopple theory.
53. two B. three
54. four D. five

• Ans: B. three

 

53. If a person makes an admission through a document, this shall be called _______
54. estopple by conduct B. estopple by deed
55. estopple by judgment D. All of them

• Ans: B. estopple by deed

 

54. Theory of estopple is applied matter is about ________________.
55. Question of fact B. question of law
56. behaviour D. A and B

• Ans: A. Question of fact

 

55. _________ is such questions which are asked by party who calls him.
56. Leading question B. Re-examination
57. Examination in chiefC. Cross examination

• Ans: C. Examination in chief

 

56._______ question are asked after cross examination, by the party who calls him.

1. Leading question B. Re-examination
2. Cross examination D. Re-examination

• Ans: D. Re-examination

 

57. Answers of ___________ is always in form of “Yes” or “No” 
58. Cross examination B. leading question
59. Re-examination D. None of them

• Ans: B. leading question

 

58. Cross examination question are asked by _________.
59. Defendant B. Court
60. Prosecution D. All of them

• Ans: C. Prosecution

 

59. _______ is competent to declare whether any question is appropriate or not.
60. Court B. Prosecution
61. Complainant D. Defendant

• Ans: A. Court

 

60. This is discretionary power of __________ to allow counsel to ask question.
61. Court B. Defendant
62. Counsel D. None of them

• Ans: A. Court

 

61. Facts of which courts shall take judicial notice are ________.
62. All Pakistan Laws B. Proceedings of Legislature
63. Seal of the Court D. All of them

• Ans: D. All of them

 

62. Question of estopple is a question of ________
63. Law B. Fact
64. Ego D. Admissible

• Ans: B. Fact

 

63. The estopple by representation is know as _________
64. Estopple B. General Estopple
65. Promissory Estopple D. Equitable Estopple

• Ans: D. Equitable Estopple

 

64. The estopple cannot be allowed to defeat the provisions of ________
65. Statute B. Fact
66. Evidence D. All of them

• Ans: A. Statute

 

65. An expert may refresh his memory by reference to _________
66. Professional activities B. Professional Life
67. Professional treaties D. None of them

• Ans: C. Professional treaties

 

66. The court shall forbid any question which appears to it, to be intended to ______the witness.
67. insult or annoy B. permit
68. necessary D. ask

• Ans: A. insult or annoy

 

67.______ stages are provided for the purposes of recording evidence.

1. Twp B. Three
2. five D. Four

• Ans: B. Three

 

68. The estopple classified into _______ kinds.
69. one B. two
70. three D. four

• Ans: C. three

 

69. Audi Atteram Partem means _____
70. Condemned unheard B. Right of cross examination
71. Dismissal of appeal D. All of them

• Ans: A. Condemned unheard

 

70. Provisions of Qanoon-e-shahadat are not applied on proceedings before _______.
71. Sessions Judge B. Service Tribunal
72. Mohtasib D. High Court

• Ans: C. Mohtasib

 

71. Competence of witnesses is specifically determined in light of _______.
72. Court’s discretion B. relevant law
73. injunction of Islam D. None of them

• Ans: C. injunction of Islam

 

72. Court may allow a person to testify who is convicted for giving false evidence if he is ______
73. Minor B. Insane
74. Solvent D. Repented

• Ans: D. Repented

 

73. Court cannot compel an counsel to disclose his communication with _____
74. Prosecutor B. Police
75. Client D. Witnesses

• Ans: C. Client

 

74._______ has relevancy with facts and is a conclusive proof.

1. Matrimonial B. Expert opinion
2. hearsay evidence D. Oral evidence

• Ans: A. Matrimonial

 

75. When court requires opinion of an expert it is _____ fact in certain cases.
76. relevant B. irrelevant
77. admissible D. None of them

• Ans: A. relevant

 

76. Every accused shall be given right of _______ in non-cognizable offenses.
77. cross examination B. bail
78. re-examination D. None of them

• Ans: A. cross examination

 

77. While testifying, if an answer of witness criminates him, the court shall order _____ him.
78. to Arrest B. Remand
79. FIR D. None of them

• Ans: D. None of them

 

78. Extra Judicial confession can be proved as evidence against accused in _______ court.
79. High Court B. Sessions Court
80. Shairat Court D. None of them

• Ans: D. None of them

 

79. Admission is either ______ accepted or ______ rejected.
80. Completely B. partially
81. discretionarily D. None of them

• Ans: A. Completely

 

80. A valid admission can only be made before _________
81. Magistrate B. Police
82. Prosecutor D. Complainant

• Ans: A. Magistrate

 

81. Confession made before a person other than authorized authority is called _______.
82. Judicial B. Extra Judicial
83. Secondary D. Mandatory

• Ans: B. Extra Judicial

 

82. Court can compel _____ to disclose its source of information regarding commission of crime.
83. Police B. Magistrate
84. Prosecutor D. None of them

• Ans: D. None of them

 

83. It is decided by _______ whether evidence is admissible or inadmissible.
84. Police B. Prosecutor
85. Court D. Complainant

• Ans: C. Court

 

84. Dying declaration is hearsay evidence and it is _______ under law.
85. admissible B. inadmissible
86. rejected D. partially accepted

• Ans: A. admissible

 

85. Witness of a non-Muslim against a Muslim is ________ evidence in Hudood cases.
86. Secondary B. Mandatory
87. Admissible D. inadmissible

• Ans: D. inadmissible

 

86. Benefit of doubt goes in favour of _________.
87. Accused B. Complainant
88. Police D. None of them

• Ans: A. Accused

 

87. Qanoon-e-Shahadar Order, 1984 divides documents in _________ categories.
88. three B. one
89. two D. Four

• Ans: C. two

 

89. ______ are not considered to be public documents.
90. official notes B. certified copies
91. Dummy copies D. None of them

• Ans: A. official notes

 

90. Facts judicially noticeable need not to be _________
91. Solved B. declared
92. proved D. Reliance

• Ans: C. proved

 

91. ________ facts need not to be proved.
92. denied B. admitted
93. admission D. admitted

• Ans: B. admitted

 

92. Birth during marriage _________ proof of legitimacy.
93. conclusive B. conditional
94. uncertain D. doubtful

• Ans: A. conclusive

 

93. _________ has to decide as to admission bluntly of evidence.
94. lawyer B. judge
95. witness D. None of them

• Ans: B. judge

 

94. The order in which witnesses are produced and examined shall be regulated ______
95. Prescribed Law B. Judge
96. Lawyer D. Witness

• Ans: A. Prescribed Law

 

95. The examination of a witness by the party who calls him shall be called his _______
96. Examination in chief B. Prosecutor
97. Investigator D. None of them

• Ans: A. Examination in chief

 

96. The examination of witness by the adverse party shall be called _______
97. Admission B. re-examination
98. information D. Cross examination

• Ans: D.  Cross examination

 

97. _________ questions must not be asked.
98. confusing B. difficult
99. leaching D. easy

• Ans: C. leaching

 

98. Question not to be asked without __________ grounds.
99. Normal B. Reasonable
100. Specific D. unreasonable

• Ans: B. Reasonable

 

99. _________ may refresh his memory by reference to professional treaties.
100. Expert B. Judge
101. Lawyer D. Witness

• Ans: A. Expert

 

100. The complainant can support of his claim by __________.
101. Promise B. Statement
102. Oath D. All of them

• Ans: C. Oath

 

101. _______ power to discover or to obtain proper proof of relevant.
102. Judge B. Witness
103. Lawyer D. Prosecutor

• Ans: A. Judge

 

102. Questions tendering to corroborate evidence of relevant fact _______
103. denial B. inadmissible
104. admissible D. Secondary

• Ans: C. admissible

 

103. Statement not challenged in cross examination is considered as _________
104. admitted B. denied
105. false D. Partially accepted

• Ans: A. admitted

 

104. Agreement amongst two or more persons to do any illegal act that amount to any offence is ________
105. Conspiracy B. Pre planning
106. Common intention D. Malafide Intention 

• Ans: A. Conspiracy

 

105. The matter as to when a question shall be asked and when witness compiled to answer shall be decided by:
106. The Supreme Court B. The Provincial Government 
107. The Federal Government D. The concerned court

• Ans: D. The concerned court

 

106. Under Article 162, the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for:
107. Appeal B. A new trial
108. Reversal of any decision D. a & b

• Ans: A. Appeal

 

107. Under Article 158 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat”, the validity of any objection over the production of a document shall be decided by:
108. The Supreme Court B. The Federal Government
109. The Provincial Government D. The concerned court 

• Ans: A. The Supreme Court

 

108. Under article 46, the cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found etc, is:
109. Relevant B. Irrelevant
110. Partly D. All of the above

• Ans: A. Relevant

109. Under Article 48, entries in books of according in the normal course of business, are relevant whenever they refer to matter into which the court has to inquire, but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to:
110. Start proceedings against a person
111. Discharge any person form liability
112. Charge any person with liability 
113. End proceedings against a person

• Ans: C. Charge any person with liability

 

110. The competence of a person to testify, and the number of witnesses required in any case of Hadd shall be determined in accordance with:
111. Tazir B. Constitution
112. Quran & Sunnah D. Cr.P.C

• Ans: C. Quran & Sunnah

 

111. An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, except in the …. of offence punishable with:
112. Life imprisonment.
113. Hadd
114. Death penalty
115. Imprisonment of a term more than 10 years

• Ans: B. Hadd

 

112. In Section 6 “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984”, official record relating to the affairs of state” includes documents concerning industrial or commercial activities carried on directly or indirectly by the:
113. Provincial government B. Local government 
114. Federal government D. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

113. The proceedings in which a jural relation is to be determined between one person to another is _______
114. Judicial B. Court 
115. Tribunal D. ADR

• Ans: A. Judicial

 

114. Fact of presence elsewhere is essentially inconsistent with presence at the place and time alleged and therefore, with personal participation in the act.
115. Theory of presence in act B. Theory of Alibi
116. Plea of Alibi D. C and B

• Ans: D. C and B

 

115. What is substantive piece of evidence that the deceased had substituted an innocent person in place of real culprit?
116. Document B. Will
117. Dying Declaration D. A and B

• Ans: C. Dying Declaration

 

116. Any instrument empowering a specified person to act for an in the name of the person executing, it is _________
117. Agent B. Power of Attorney
118. Advocate D. pleader

• Ans: B. Power of Attorney

 

117. In which condition, no evidence of any oral agreement or instrument shall be admitted between parties __________
118. when one is real owner B. Representation in interest
119. In case of preemptor D. All are correct

• Ans: B. Representation in interest

 

118. Personal disqualification laid down upon a person peculiary circumstanced from proving peculiar fact is _______
119. Estoppel B. Acquiescence
120. Res Judicata D. Preemptive rights

• Ans: A. Estoppel

 

119. A person who remained quiet unreasonably long time without any objection for having full knowledge of violation of his right is _______
120. Fraud B. Fraudulent intention
121. Waiver D. Void Agreement

• Ans: C. Waiver

 

120. The abadon or to relinquish non-vested right by express declaration or conduct known as _______
121. Estopple by Conduct B. Estopple by waiver
122. Estopple by Judgment D. None of them

• Ans: B. Estopple by waiver

 

121. A witness may give _______ of statement made by other persons about the content of the document.
122. Oral evidence B. Written evidence
123. Evidence D. Documentary evidence

• Ans: A. Oral evidence

 

122. The court may allow to produce any evidence that may have become provided in the shape of ________
123. video film B. press clipping
124. email D. All of them

• Ans: D. All of them

 

123. If it is not in public interest, the court may not compel _______ to disclose any information which has not been published?
124. Counsel of accused B. Company
125. Trust D. Public Officer

• Ans: D. Public Officer

 

124. Previous bad character of an accused is not _______, except where accused is proving him of good character
125. irrelevant B. relevant
126. inadmissible D. accepted

• Ans: B. relevant

 

125. Where a person is able to be produces before court, his statement shall be relevant if it is about _______
126. Robbery B. Murder
127. Cause of his death D. Rape

• Ans: C. Cause of his death

 

126. Under Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, burden of proof is on _______ to prove allegation against accused.
127. Prosecution B. Police
128. Complainant D. None of them

• Ans: A. Prosecution

 

127. Decision of authority for determination of evidence whether it is admissible or inadmissible is _______.
128. Question of fact B. Question of law
129. framing of charge D. Prosecution

• Ans: B. Question of law

 

128. If an accused claims that his case falls in exception provided in PPC then burden of proof shall be transferred on _________
129. Prosecutor B. Complainant
130. Accused D. Police

• Ans: C. Accused

 

129.__________ of public document shall not be admissible unless it has been certified to be the true copy, by the officer concerned, who has the custody of original document.

1. Dummy copy B. Photostat
2. certified copy D. uncertified

• Ans: B. Photostat

 

130. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact it is said that ________ lies on that person.
131. legal rights B. burden of proof
132. admitted facts D. none of them

• Ans: B. burden of proof

 

131. The burden of proof in a proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no ______ at all were given on either side.
132. indication B. admission
133. denial D. evidence

• Ans: D. evidence

 

132. The examination of witness subsequent to the cross examination by the party who called him, shall be called his ________
133. Admission B. Confession
134. Re-examination D. Cross examination

• Ans: C. Re-examination

 

133. The court may ________ any question or inquiries which it regards as indecent or scandalous.
134. Forbid B. Allow
135. discretion D. None of them

• Ans: A. Forbid

 

134. The court may allow to be produced any evidence that may have become available because of _______.
135. Tradition B. Modern devices
136. Old techniques D. None of them

• Ans: B. Modern devices

 

135. The court shall, on the application of plaintiff call upon the ________ to deny the claim on oath.
136. Complainant B. Defendant
137. Judge D. Statement

• Ans: B. Defendant

 

136. Proof of former statement inconsistent with any past of his evidence which is liable to be contradicted is _______ of witness.
137. Impeaching credit B. Support
138. against D. None of them

• Ans: A. Impeaching credit

 

137. The Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order 1984 extends to whole of Pakistan an applies to all judicial proceedings before any forum, except: 
138. Court, including a Court Martial
139. Tribunal
140. Authority exercising judicial or quasi-judcial proceeding
141. Arbitrator

• Ans: D. Arbitrator

 

138. No judge or Magistrate shall be compelled to answer any question as to his own conduct in court as Judge or Magistrate except:
139. Upon the general order of his superior court
140. Upon the special order of this superior court 
141. Upon the orders provincial government.
142. All of the above 

• Ans: B. Upon the special order of this superior court

 

139. Article 161, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
140. Judge’s power to put question or order production
141. Production of document.
142. Refreshing memory.
143. None of the above

• Ans: A. Judge’s power to put question or order production

 

140. Article 133 deals with: 
141. Judge of decide as to admissibility of evidence 
142. The order of productions and examination of witnesses
143. Examination-in-chief
144. Order of examination

• Ans: B. The order of productions and examination of witnesses

 

141. The burden of proof shall be on the one:
142. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which any other person asserts.
143. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which the public asserts.
144. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.
145. None of the above 

• Ans: C. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.

 

142. The evidence of terms of contracts grants and other disposition of property, when reduced to a document, shall be:
143. The original terms of contracts, grants and other disposition of property
144. The document, itself
145. Secondary evidence of it’s contents
146. a & b

• Ans: D. a & b

 

143. When more than one persons are being tried jointly for the same offence, and a confession made by one of such persons is proved, then:
144. The court may take into consideration such confession as circumstantial evidence against such other person.
145. Such confession shall be proof against the persons making it.
146. Such confession shall be taken as abetment or an attempt to commit an offence.
147. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

144. A confession is considered irrelevant by a court in criminal proceedings if it is made:
145. Due to threat
146. Due to inducement
147. Under any promise to the …… Interest
148. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

145. Article 31 of The Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
146. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc
147. Admission by persons whose position must be proved as against party to suit.
148. Admission by person expressly referred to by party
149. Proof of admissions against persons making them.

• Ans: A. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc

 

146. According to Article 24, facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if:
147. By themselves, they make the existence or nonexistence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probably or improbable.
148. In connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable 
149. They are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact.
150. All of the above 

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

147. Article 22 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat deal with:
148. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts
149. Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct.
150. Relevancy of fact forming part of same transaction.
151. Things said or done by conspirator in reference to common design.

• Ans: A. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts

 

148. A witness shall not be excused from answering a question on ground that the answer will criminate him, provided that no such answer, shall:
149. Subject him to any prosecution
150. Subject him to any arrest 
151. Be proved against him in any criminal proceedings
152. All of the above

• Ans: D. All of the above

 

149. According to Article 14, no one shall be compelled to produce documents in his possession which any other person would be entitled any other person would be entitled to refuse to produce if they were in his possession, unless such last mentioned person. 
150. Is in a fear of getting sentenced for the non production of such documents
151. Is sentenced for the non-production of such documents
152. Has consented to their production 
153. None of the above 

• Ans: C. Has consented to their production

 

150. Article 9 does not impose any restriction on an advocate from disclosing any communication before the court which:
151. Is any observed fact that the client has committed the offence
152. Is against the interest of the client.
153. Is in furtherance of any illegal purpose
154. a & c

• Ans: D. a & c

PAKISTAN PENAL CODE 1860

1. The year of enactment of Pakistan Penal Code is:
2. 1860 B. 1870
3. 1880 D. 1898

Ans: A. 1860

 

2. Total sections of Pakistan Penal Code are:
3. 511 B. 565
4. 280 D. 411

Ans: A. 511

 

3. Wrongful loss is:
4. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled
5. The loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is not legally entitled
6. All of them
7. None of these

Ans: A. the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled

 

4. How many accused persons are required to establish common intention u/s 34? 
5. 5
6. More than one and less than five
7. 7
8. None of these

Ans: B. More than one and less than five

 

5. How many accused persons are required to establish common object?
6. 4
7. Five or more than five persons 
8. 3
9. None of these

Ans: B. Five or more than five persons

 

6. Punishment for rape according to section 376 PPC:
7. Death or life imprisonment
8. Imprisonment for ten years
9. Imprisonment for 7 years
10. None of these

Ans: A. Death or life imprisonment

 

7. How many accused persons are required for the offence of “Dacoity”?
8. 4
9. 5 or more than 5
10. 2 or more than 2
11. None of these

Ans: B. 5 or more than 5

 

8. Unlawful assembly comprises of:
9. At least 5 persons
10. At least 6 persons
11. At least 4 persons
12. None of these

Ans: A. At least 5 persons

 

9. Which section provides punishment for common :
10. 149 B. 141 
11. 96 D. 151 

Ans: A. 149 

10. Affray is:
11. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting
12. Disturbance of public peace by one person by fighting
13. Disturbance of public peace by five or more persons by fighting
14. None of these

Ans: A. Disturbance of public peace by two or more persons by fighting

 

11. Attempt to commit suicide is an offence according to PPC under section:
12. 322 B. 324 
13. 325 D. 327 

Ans: C. 325

 

12. Imprisonment for life according to PPC is :
13. Imprisonment for 25 years
14. Imprisonment till death
15. Imprisonment till old age
16. None of these

Ans: A. Imprisonment for 25 years

 

13. Imprisonment for life according to Hadood laws:
14. Imprisonment till death
15. Imprisonment for 25 years 
16. Imprisonment till old age
17. None of these

Ans: A. Imprisonment till death

 

14. Imprisonment for theft may extend to :
15. 3 years B. 5 years
16. 2 years
17. None of these

Ans: A. 3 years

 

15. Punishment for giving false evidence is mentioned in PPC u/s: 
16. 192 B. 191
17. 190 D. None of these

Ans: A. 192

 

16. Gratification u/s 161 includes :
17. Monitory gains 
18. pecuniary terms
19. Gratification estimable in money
20. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

17. The punishment for the exercise of personal influence with public servant is:
18. Death penalty
19. Life imprisonment
20. Rigorous imprisonment extendable to 2 years
21. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

Ans: D. Simple imprisonment extendable to one year with or /without fine

 

18. Shajjah is of following kinds:
19. 6 B. 9
20. 7
21. None of these

Ans: A. 6

 

19. Life according to PPC is:
20. Life of men only
21. Life of human being 
22. Life of Animal
23. None of these

Ans: B. Life of human being

 

20. A sentence of death awarded by way of “Qisas” or “Tazir” shall not be executed until:
21. Confirmed by High Court
22. Confirmed by Session Judge
23. Confirmed by Supreme Court
24. None of these

Ans: A. Confirmed by High Court

 

21. The property, according to section 378 of PPC, in theft has to be:
22. Movable B. Immovable
23. Corporeal
24. All of the above

Ans: A. Movable

 

22. Theft has been defined u/s:
23. 376 B. 378
24. 377
25. None of these

Ans: B. 378

 

23. A Robbery becomes a dacoity if committed by:
24. 6 or more than 6 persons
25. 4 or more than 4 persons
26. 5 or more than 5 persons
27. None of these

Ans: C. 5 or more than 5 persons

 

24. Criminal breachof trust has been defined u/s:
25. 405 B. 406 
26. 407
27. None of these

Ans: A. 405 of PPC

 

25. The word “death” denotes the death of:
26. An bird
27. A human being
28. An Animal
29. All of the above

Ans: B. A human being

 

26. Kidnapping includes:
27. Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship
28. Kidnapping from Pakistan
29. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship
30. None of these

Ans: C. Kidnapping from Pakistan and lawful Guardianship

 

27. The value of diyat under section 323 PPC is:
28. Discretion of the court 
29. Not less than the value of 30640 grams of silver
30. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver
31. None of these

Ans: C. Not less than the value of 30630 grams of silver

 

28. Arsh denotes the compensation to be paid:
29. To the victim or his heirs 
30. To the accused or his heirs 
31. Both
32. None of these

Ans: A. To the victim or his heirs

 

29. Criminal intimidation is defined u/s:
30. 503 B. 505
31. 507 D. None of these

Ans: A. 503

 

30. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab shall be:
31. Diyat B. Imprisonment for 2 years
32. Imprisonment upto 25 years D. None of these

Ans: A. Diyat

 

31. Punishment for “Robbery” has been defined u/s :
32. 392 B. 391
33. 390 D. None to these

Ans: C. 392

 

32. Punishment for robbery:
33. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than five years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine
34. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than two years nor more than five years and shall also be liable to fine
35. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine 
36. None of these

Ans: C. Rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than three years nor more than ten years and shall also be liable to fine

 

33. Qatl-i-amd has been defined u/s:
34. 299 B. 300,301 
35. 301,302
36. None of these

Ans: B. 300,301

 

35. Punishment of qatl-i-amd under section 302 when proof of qatl-i-amd is available under section 304 PPC:
36. Death as qisas
37. Death as ta’zir
38. Imprisonment for 5 years
39. None of these

Ans: A. Death as qisas

 

36. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd: 
37. Death
38. Diyat
39. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 7 years as Ta’zir

Ans: C. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 25 years as ta’zir

 

37. Punishment for Qatl Shibh-i-Amd has been defined u/s:
38. 310 B. 316 
39. 312
40. None of these

Ans: B. 316

 

38. Punishment for Qatl-i-Khata has been defined u/s:
39. 316 B. 318 
40. 320 D. 319

Ans: D. 319

 

39. Punishment for Qatli-i-Khata by rash or negligent driving:
40. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years
41. Arsh and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years 
42. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 5 years
43. none of these

Ans: A. Diyat and imprisonment which may extend to 10 years

 

40. Attempt to commit qatl-i-amd is prescribed u/s:
41. 326 B. 325 
42. 324
43. None of these

Ans: C. 324

 

41. Kinds of hurt u/s 332:
42. 4 B. 5
43. 6
44. None of these

Ans: B. 5

42. Kinds of ghayr-jaifah under section 337 (E):
43. 6 B. 8
44. 10
45. None of these

Ans: A. 6

 

43. Kinds of punishments u/s 53 :
44. 15 B. 13
45. 10
46. None of these

Ans: C. 10

 

44. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
45. 7 years of age
46. 12 years of age 
47. 15 years of age
48. None of these

Ans: A. 7 years of age

 

45. Nothing is an offence which is done in exercise of the right of private defence under sections:
46. 76-96 B. 96 to 106 
47. 80-100 D. 100-104

Ans: B. 96 to 106 

 

46. Defamation has been defined u/s:
47. 499 B. 299 
48. 399 D. 199

Ans: A. 499 PPC

 

47. Whoever uses derogatory remark etc, in respect of the Hazrat Mohammad (Peace Be Upon Him) shall be punished with: 
48. Death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(B) PPC
49. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC
50. Imprisonment for life
51. None of these

Ans: B. Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine under section 295(C) PPC

48. The word “Person includes”:
49. Any company
50. Body of persons
51. Association
52. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

49. Public servant includes:
50. Member of National Assembly
51. Person who holds any office of the Government 
52. Member of WASA
53. None of these

Ans: B. Person who holds any office of the Government

 

50. In a case of Qatl, the wali shall be:
51. The children of the victim, according to his family law
52. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law
53. The Nazim of the city
54. The Government 

Ans: B. The heirs of the victim, according to his personal law

 

51. Qatl-i-amad is not liable to Qisas:
52. If the offender is a close relative of the victim
53. If the offender is a husband of the victim
54. When the offender is minor or insane
55. All of the above

Ans: C. When the offender is minor or insane

 

52. Arsh for causing itlaf of a tooth shall be:
53. One twentieth of diyat
54. One tenth of diyat
55. Equal to the value of the diyat
56. None of these

Ans: A. One twentieth of diyat

 

53. U/S 209 Whoever fraudulently or dishonesty or with intent to injure or annoy any person makes in a court of justice any claim which he knows to be false:
54. Shall be punished with imprisonment for 5 years or fine or both
55. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall also be liable to fine
56. Shall be liable to fine only
57. All of above

Ans: B. Shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and shall be liable to fine

 

54. Diyat means the compensation payable to the heirs of the victim specified u/s: 
55. 324 B. 338
56. 323 D. 330

Ans: C. 323

 

55. The value of daman may be determined by the court keeping in view:
56. The expenses incurred on the treatment of the victim
57. The loss or disability caused in the functioning or power of any organ
58. The compensation for the anguish suffered by the victim
59. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

56. Qisas for qatl-i-amad shall not be conforced:
57. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas
58. When the offender is punished with Tazir.
59. When the offender has close relation with victim.
60. None of these

Ans: A. When the offender dies before the enforcement of Qisas

 

57. Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension is liable to be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both as given u/s:
58. 224 B. 225
59. 225-A D. 225-B

Ans: A. 224

 

58. Whoever causes Jurh in which the injury extends to the body cavity of the trunk, is said to cause.
59. Hurt B. Jaifah
60. Shajjah D. None

Ans: B. Jaifah

 

59. The president has the right to grant pardons reprieves, respites or remissions of Punishment u/s.
60. 58 B. 155
61. 55-A D. 160

Ans: C. 55-A

 

60. Criminal conspiracy u/s 120-A means when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done.
61. An illegal act
62. Or an act, which is not illegal but done by illegal means
63. An act, which is illegal by law but not by tradition
64. A and B both

Ans: D. A and B both

 

61. Whoever by force compels or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place.
62. Is said to abduct that person
63. Is said to kidnap that person
64. Is said to confine that person
65. Is said to abduct and kidnap that person

Ans: A. Is said to abduct that person

 

62. Without exposing bone of the victim, the accused is said to cause: 
63. Shajjah-i-Khafifah
64. Shajjah-i-Damighah
65. Shajjjah-i-Mudihah
66. Shajjah-i-Hashimah 

Ans: A. Shajjah-i-Khafifah

 

63. Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
64. Ten years or with fine or with both
65. Seven years
66. Seven years or with fine or with both
67. Life imprisonment

Ans: C. Seven years or with fine or with both

 

64. Whoever kidnaps any person with intent to cause that person to be secretly and wrongfully confined shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to: 
65. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine
66. 10 years and shall also be liable to fine 
67. Life imprisonment and shall also be liable to fine
68. None of above

Ans: A. Seven years and shall also be liable to fine

 

65. Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit:
66. Robbery B. Extortion 
67. Theft D. All of above

Ans: C. Theft

 

66. The term “Court of Justice” denotes:
67. The chamber of the court
68. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially
69. A Bench of judge, which is empowered by law to act judicially
70. None of these

Ans: B. A judge or a body of judges, which is empowered by the law to act judicially

 

67. Special law denotes:
68. A law which is made by traditions
69. A law applicable to a particular subject 
70. A law applicable to a particular place
71. A law applicable to a special class of people

Ans: B. A law applicable to a particular subject

 

68. Local law denotes:
69. A law applicable only to particular class of persons in Pakistan
70. A law applicable to the entire country
71. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan
72. None of these

Ans: C. A law applicable only to particular part of territories comprised in Pakistan

 

69. When two or more person by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to:
70. Commit an affray
71. Create a public nuisance
72. Guilty of offence of being members of the unlawful assembly
73. None of these

Ans: A. Commit an affray

 

70. When one act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable for the act done.
71. False B. True
72. A and B Both D. None 

Ans: B. True

 

71. Whoever uses any false trade mark or any false property mark shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
72. One year or with fine or with both
73. Three years or with fine or with both
74. Four years or with fine or with both
75. None of these

Ans: A. One year or with fine or with both

 

72. Punishment for jaifah is given u/s:
73. 337B B. 337C
74. 337D D. 337E

Ans: C. 337D

 

73. Punishment for qatl-bis-sabab is:
74. Diyat
75. Diyat and five year imprisonment
76. Diyat and 10 year imprisonment
77. None of the above

Ans: A. diyat

 

74. “Mischief” is narrated u/s:
75. 425 B. 426
76. 428 D. 428

Ans: A. 425

 

75. Punishment for criminal intimidation is provided u/s:
76. 503 B. 505
77. 506 D. 507

Ans: C. 506

 

76. Whoever attempts to commit robbery shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
77. 3 years and shall be liable to fine
78. 5 years and shall be liable to fine
79. 7 years and shall be liable to fine
80. None of the above

Ans: C. 7 years and shall be liable to fine

 

77. What is the relevant provision for isqat-i-janin?
78. 338 A B. 338 B
79. 338 C D. 338 D

Ans: B. 338 B

 

78. Qatlshibh-i-amd is defined section/s:
79. 310 B. 311
80. 315 D. 318

Ans: C. 315

 

79. Wrongful gain is discussed u/s:
80. 21 B. 22
81. 23 D. 24

Ans: C. 23

 

80. Sec 53 deals with:
81. Punishments B. Fines
82. Vessels
83. All of the above

Ans: A. Punishments

 

81. What are the requisites of defamation?
82. Be defamatory
83. Be false
84. Be published
85. All of the above

Ans: D. all of the above

 

82. Imprisonment in default of payment of fine worth exceeding Rs. 100 is:
83. 4 months B. 6 months
84. 1 year D. None of the above

Ans: B. 6 months

 

83. Whoever commits criminal trespass shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:
84. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both
85. 6 months or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees or with both
86. 1 year or with fine which may extend to 3000 rupees
87. None of the above

Ans: A. 3 months or with fine which may extend to 1500 rupees or with both

 

84. Fornication is defined u/s:
85. 496 B. 496 A
86. 496 B D. 496 C

Ans: C. 496 B

 

85. Sedition is discussed u/s:
86. 121 B. 122 A
87. 124 A D. 126 A

Ans: C. 124 A

 

86. When violence is used by any member of an unlawful assembly it is called:
87. Affray B. Rioting
88. Intimidation
89. All of the above

Ans: A. Affray

 

87. Issuing or signing false certificate is a crime u/s:
88. 195 B. 196
89. 197 D. 198

Ans: C. 197

 

88. Counterfeiting Pakistani coins is an offence u/s:
89. 232 B. 233
90. 234 D. 235

Ans: A. 232

 

THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1898 (CR.PC)

1. A private complaint can be filed u/s:
2. 200 B. 202
3. 203 D. 204

Ans: A. 200

 

2. The Magistrate can acquit an accused u/s 249A. at any stage of trial:
3. Yes B. No

Ans: A. Yes

 

3. A person arrested by Police can be discharged by a Magistrate u/s:
4. 63 B. 163
5. 263 D. 265

Ans: A. 63

 

4. The Additional Sessions Judge can acquit an accused at any stage of trial u/s:
5. 249A. B. 265
6. 265(k) D. none of these

Ans: C. 265(k)

 

5. After completion of investigation by Police, Challan is submitted u/s:
6. 173 B. 169
7. 154 D. 167

Ans: A. 173

 

6. A Magistrate empowered under section 30 can award maximum sentence up to:
7. 5 years B. 7 years
8. 10 years
9. none of these

Ans: B. 7 years

 

7. Pre arrest Bail is granted u/s:
8. 103 B. 344 
9. 498 D. 497

Ans: C. 498 

 

8. Pre arrest bail can be availed from : 
9. Magistrate B. Court of Session
10. High Court D. B and C both

Ans: B. B and C both

 

9. Limitation to file Appeal against acquittal by aggrieved person before High Court:
10. 30 days B. 16 days
11. 60 days D. 90 days

Ans: A. 30 days

 

10. Limitation of appeal against acquittal by Govt through Public Prosecutor:
11. 6 month under Article 157 Limitation Act 
12. 8 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
13. 10 months under Article 157 Limitation Act
14. None of these

Ans: A. 6 months under Article 157 Limitation Act

 

11. Forum for appeal against acquittal:
12. High Court B. Magistrate
13. Court of session
14. None of these

Ans: A. High Court

 

12. Forum for cancellation of bail:
13. High Court B. Same Court 
14. Session Court
15. All of the above

Ans: B. All of the above

 

13. Every warrant of arrest shall be signed by:
14. The reader of the Court
15. Complainant 
16. Police Officer
17. Presiding Officer of the Court 

Ans: D. Presiding Officer of the Court

 

14. A report, which is made u/s 174 is called:
15. Inquest Report
16. Statement under Section 161
17. Challan
18. First Information Report

Ans: A. Inquest Report

 

15. Summons issued by a Court under this Code shall be served by:
16. Witnesses
17. Police Officer
18. The complainant
19. All above mentioned

Ans: B. Police Officer

 

16. Appeal against the order of Magistrate u/s 30 lies before:
17. High Court
18. Court of Session
19. Supreme Court
20. None of these

Ans: B. Court of Session

 

17. Remedy against the executive order of the Magistrate is:
18. Appeal only before the High Court
19. Revision only before the High Court
20. Writ only before the High Court
21. None of these

Ans: C. Writ only before the High Court

 

18. Forum for cancellation of bail:
19. High Court B. Same Court 
20. Session Court
21. All of the above

Ans: B. All of the above

 

19. The accused is _____ after recording confessional statement:
20. Released on Bail
21. Set free
22. Kept in judicial lock-up
23. Discharged from investigation 

Ans: C. Kept in judicial lock-up

 

20. Arrest how made:
21. By hand cuffing the accused
22. By actually touching or confining
23. By spoken words D. By showing the warrant.

Ans: B. By actually touching or confining

 

21. Court of Magistrate of the Third Class may pass the sentence of Imprisonment upto:
22. 1 month B. 6 months
23. 12 months
24. None of these

Ans: A. 1 month

 

22. Court of Magistrate of the Second Class may pass the sentence of imprisonment upto:
23. 10 years B. 01 year
24. 15 years
25. None of these

Ans: B. 01 year

 

23. After framing charge, it is read over to the:
24. Accused B. Complainant 
25. Public Prosecutor
26. Witness

Ans: A. Accused

 

24. An accused person may be declared absconder u/s:
25. 87 B. 61 
26. 167
27. None of these

Ans: A. 87 

 

25. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
26. 164 B. 337
27. 366 D. 364

Ans: C. 366

26. Post arrest bail is granted u/s:
27. 100 B. 491 
28. 497
29. None of these

Ans: C. 497 

27. Bail means:
28. To discharge the accused
29. To release the accused after executing Bond
30. To acquit the accused
31. None of these

Ans: B. To release the accused afterexecuting Bond

 

28. A revision shall lie to the High Court u/s:
29. 374 B. 417
30. 439
31. None of these

Ans: C. 439

 

29. When the Court of Sessions passes sentence of Death, the time period for the appeal is:
30. 07 days B. 30 days
31. 60 days D. 90 days

Ans: A. 07 days

 

30. Mode of delivering Judgment is narrated u/s:
31. 164 B. 337
32. 366 D. 364

Ans: C. 366

 

31. An accomplice means any person who is:
32. Complainant B. Public Officer 
33. Police Officer D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime 

Ans: D. A guilty associate or a partner in crime

 

32. Section 164 deals with the:
33. First Information Report
34. Confessions and statements 
35. All of the above D. Challan

Ans: B. Confessions and statements

 

33. Conditional order for the removal of nuisance is made by the Magistrate u/s:
34. 100 B. 103 
35. 133
36. None of these

Ans: C. 133 

34. Investigation is conducted by:
35. Magistrate
36. Session Judge
37. Police Officer
38. None of these

Ans: C. Police Officer

 

35. Inquiry includes one which is conducted by:
36. Magistrate or Court
37. Police Officer
38. Advocate
39. None of these

Ans: A. Magistrate or Court

 

36. The Code of Criminal Procedure extends to the:
37. Punjab
38. Sindh
39. Whole of Pakistan
40. None of these

Ans: C. Whole of Pakistan

 

37. Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been mentioned u/s:
38. 529 B. 530
39. 537
40. None of these

Ans: A. 529

 

38. A case in which a police officer may not arrest without warrant is called:
39. Cognizable offence
40. Non-cognizable offence
41. Non-cognizable case
42. B & Care correct

Ans: D. B &C are correct

 

39. Any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being in force is known as: 
40. Offence
41. Cognizable offence 
42. Non-cognizable offence 
43. None of the above

Ans: A. Offence

 

40. Place includes:
41. A House
42. A tent & a vessel
43. A building
44. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

41. Magistrate may dispense with the personal attendance of accused u/s:
42. 204 B. 205 
43. 206 D. 221 

Ans: B. 205 

 

42. Police inquiry on suicide etc. is conducted u/s:
43. 173 B. 174 
44. 175 D. 176 

Ans: B. 174 

 

43. Challan is a report of the police officer submitted before the court under section:
44. 170 B. 171 
45. 172 D. 173 

Ans: D. 173 

 

44. A police officer is empowered to conduct search u/s:
45. 162 B. 165 
46. 166 D. 164 

Ans: B. 165 

 

45. Supply of statements and documents to the accused is made u/s:
46. 240 B. 242
47. 241-A D. 341

Ans: C. 241-A

 

46. When a person is charged with one offence:
47. He may be convicted of another
48. He may not be convicted of another
49. Both of the above
50. None of the above

Ans: A. He may be convicted of another

 

47. Table of the compoundable offences mentioned in PPC is given u/s:
48. 344 B. 345
49. 346 D. 347

Ans: B. 345

 

48. Power to postpone or adjourn the procedure is vested in a Criminal Court u/s:
49. 344 B. 342
50. 345 D. 346

Ans: A. 344

 

49. F.I.R (First Information Report) of a cognizable offence is recorded u/s: 
50. 155 of Cr.P.C B. 156 of Cr.P.C
51. 154 of Cr.P.C D. 200 of Cr.P.C

Ans: C. 154 of Cr.P.C

 

50. Magistrate may acquit accused at any stage considering the charge groundless u/s:
51. 248 B. 249
52. 249-A D. 250

Ans: C. 249-A

 

51. Chapter XXIV lays down general provisions as to:
52. Inquiries B. Trials
53. Investigations
54. Inquiries and trials 

Ans: D. Inquiries and trials

 

52. Section 265-L empowers the:
53. Advocate General to stay prosecution
54. Court to stay prosecution
55. Inspector legal to stay prosecution
56. Defence Counsel to stay prosecution

Ans: A. Advocate General to stay prosecution

 

53. In a Court of Session, statement under section 164 is admissible u/s:
54. 265-K B. 265-E
55. 265-J D. 265-L

Ans: C. 265-J

 

54. Application for acquittal of an accused is moved before a Court of Session u/s:
55. 265-A B. 265-D
56. 265-J D. 265-K

Ans: D. 265-K

55. Procedure for trial before High Court and Court of Session is laid down in chapter:
56. XXII-A B. XXIII
57. XXII-B
58. None of the above 

Ans: A. XXII-A

 

56. No installments shall be allowed in the execution of sentence of:
57. Death
58. Stoning to death
59. Whipping
60. Imprisonment

Ans: C. Whipping

 

57. Direction of warrant for execution of sentence of imprisonment shall be to:
58. Inspector General of Jails
59. Inspector General of Police 
60. Officer of the Jail
61. All of the above

Ans: C. Officer of the Jail

 

58. In case of sentence of death on a pregnant woman, the High Court shall:
59. Forgive the woman
60. Postpone the sentence
61. Execute the woman
62. None of the above

Ans: B. Postpone the sentence

 

59. If the death sentence is passed by Sessions Court, it will be executed:
60. Right away
61. After submission and confirmation by High Court
62. After confirmation and submission to Supreme Court
63. By High Court 

Ans: B. After submission and confirmation by High Court

 

60. According to section 371 the copy of the judgment shall be given to the accused:
61. Free of cost
62. For one hundred rupees
63. For fifty rupees
64. For ten rupees

Ans: A. Free of cost

 

61. A High Court may alter its judgment only in case of :
62. Appeal B. Discretion
63. Clerical error
64. None of the above

Ans: C. Clerical error

 

62. Describe the number of sections in Cr.P.C:
63. 562 B. 563
64. 564 D. 565

Ans: D. 565

 

63. Offence of Defamation is :
64. Bailable and not compoundable
65. Bailable and compoundable 
66. A and B both
67. None of the above

Ans: B. Bailable and compoundable

 

64. The offence u/s 489-F (P.P.C) is triable by:
65. Court of Session
66. Magistrate 2nd class
67. Magistrate 3rd class
68. Magistrate 1st class

Ans: D. Magistrate 1st class

 

65. Unnatural offence is:
66. Bailable and compoundable 
67. Not bailable and not compoundable 
68. Both
69. None of these

Ans: B. Not bailable and not compoundable

 

66. Kidnaping is tried by:
67. Court of Session
68. Magistrate 1st class
69. Both of the above
70. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

67. Rape case is tried by:
68. Court of Session
69. High Court
70. Magistrate of 1st class
71. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: A. Court of Session

 

68. Trial of Qatl bis-sabab is conducted by:
69. High Court
70. Court of Session
71. Magistrate 1st class
72. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: B. Court of Session

 

69. Qatl-i-amd is tried by:
70. High Court
71. Magistrate 1st class
72. Magistrate 2nd class
73. Court of Session

Ans: D. Court of Session

 

70. Who may try the case u/S. 241 P.P.C:
71. Magistrate 1st class
72. Magistrate 2nd class
73. Magistrate 3rd class
74. A and B both

Ans: C. A and B both

 

71. Rioting is tried by:
72. Judicial Magistrate
73. Executive Magistrate 
74. Magistrate 1st calss
75. Magistrate 2nd class

Ans: B. Executive Magistrate

 

72. Schedule II coulumn 6 of the Code deals with the offences whether:
73. Bailable or not
74. Compoundable or not
75. Triable or not
76. None of the above

Ans: B. Compoundable or not

 

73. Column 8 of 2nd Schedule deals with:
74. Offences B. Warrants
75. Name of trial Court
76. There is no 8th column is schedule II

Ans: C. Name of trial Court

 

74. The power to appoint Public Prosecutor rests with the:
75. High Court
76. Supreme Court
77. Provincial Govt
78. Federal Govt

Ans: C. Provincial Govt

 

75. 2nd Revision is competent before:
76. High Court
77. Supreme Court
78. Shariat Court D. Session Court

Ans: C. Shariat Court

 

76. Lunatic means:
77. Minor B. Insane
78. Insolvent
79. All of the above

Ans: B. Insane

 

77. Bail may not be granted to a person against whom security proceedings are taken u/s:
78. 1171 B. 1172
79. 1173 D. 1174

Ans: C. 1173

 

78. What is the form number of bail bond?
79. Form 42 of Schedule 5
80. Form 43 of Schedule 5
81. Form 44 of Schedule 5
82. Form 45 of Schedule 5

Ans: A. Form 42 of Schedule

 

79. Who may grant bail in bailable offences?
80. Court of law
81. An officer of Court
82. Officer Incharge of police station
83. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

80. Bail is a:
81. statutory concession
82. Inherent right
83. Natural right
84. All of the above

Ans: A. statutory concession

 

81. Confession shall be recorded in:
82. Points B. Full
83. Parts
84. All of the above

Ans: B. Full

 

82. What is the value of evidence of an accomplice:
83. Conviction is based
84. Corroboration is required 
85. Weak in status
86. All of the above 

Ans: A. Conviction is based

 

83. Who may grant pardon during trial?
84. High Court
85. Session Court
86. Officer Incharge of prosecution in district
87. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

84. What is the mode of amendment in charge:
85. Suo moto by Court
86. On application by prosecution
87. Both of the above
88. None of these

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

85. What is the mode of transfer of cases u/s 526:
86. Application by interested person
87. Application by lower Court
88. Suo moto
89. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

86. Section 439 and 439 A deal with:
87. Appeal B. Review
88. Revision
89. None of the above

Ans: C. Revision

87. When the judges of Court of Revision are equally divided u/s 439:
88. The case is dismissed 
89. The former sentence is confirmed
90. The case shall be laid before another Judge
91. None of the above

Ans: C. The case shall be laid before another Judge

 

88. An Assistant Sessions Judge may pass sentence authorized by law except:
89. A sentence of imprisonment 
90. A sentence of death
91. Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
92. None of the above

Ans: D. None of the above

 

89. Where the evidence is partly recorded by one Presiding Officer and partly by another, the procedure for conviction is given u/s:
90. 350 B. 3501
91. 3502, 3
92. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

90. Trial of persons previously convicted of offences against coinage, stamp law or property is conducted u/s:
91. 347 B. 348
92. 349 D. 350

Ans: B. 348

 

91. Police station means any post or place declared generally or specially to conduct investigation by the:
92. Federal Government
93. Local Government 
94. Provincial Government 
95. A & C both

Ans: C. Provincial Government

 

92. Copies of the statement u/s 161 and 164 and other necessary documents shall be supplied free of cost to the accused not less than:
93. 7 days before commencement of trial
94. 15 days before commencement of trial
95. 30 days before commencement of trial
96. None of these

Ans: A. 7 days before commencement of trial

 

93. At any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding, the Court may summon any person as a witness or re-call and re-examine any person already examined u/s:
94. 539 B. 540 
95. 540A
96. None of these

Ans: B. 540 

 

94. The Sessions Judge may exercise the same powers of Revision u/s ______ of the Cr.P.C as are conferred on the High Court:
95. 374 B. 417
96. 423 D. 439A

Ans: D. 439A

 

95. Forum of protective bail:
96. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)
97. Court of session
98. Magistrate
99. None of these 

Ans: A. Only High Court (after delivering judgment passed by Mr. Justice Rana Zahid Mahmood in Lahore High Court Lahore)

 

96. Who is authorized under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to take down the statements of the witnesses or the accused?
97. A Civil Judge
98. A Session Judge
99. A Police Officer
100. A Magistrate

Ans: C. A Police Officer

 

97. Every information relating to the commission of an offence if given orally or in writing to the Officer Incharge of Police is called:
98. Complaint
99. A news
100. First Information Report
101. None of these

Ans: C. First Information Report

 

98. The Powers of a Magistrate u/s 145 constitute the integral part of the Preventive Jurisdiction of the Magistrate:
99. Correct
100. Incorrect
101. Partly correct, Partly incorrect
102. None of these

Ans: A. Correct

 

99. Power of a Magistrate to Sentence to imprisonment in default of fine is contained in Section ________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure:
100. 33 B. 60
101. 154 D. 221

Ans: A. 33

 

100. A person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again for same offence under Section ______ of the Code:
101. 337 B. 403
102. 503
103. None of these

Ans: B. 403

 

101. Which Section delegates powers to a private person to arrest any person who in his view commits a non-Bailable and cognizable offence or who is a proclaimed offender:
102. 190 B. 167 
103. 161 D. 59 

Ans: D. 59 

 

102. A Challan of the accused under Section 173 of shall be forwarded to a Magistrate through:
103. The Public Prosecutor
104. The complainant
105. The Police Officer
106. None of these

Ans: A. The Public Prosecutor

 

103. Whether a PoliceOfficer may release the accused under Section 169 when evidence is deficient against him?
104. Yes
105. No
106. With the Permission of the Court
107. None of these

Ans: A. Yes

 

104. An allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate for an action against a person who has committed an offence excluding the report of Police Officer is known as:
105. Complaint
106. FIR (First Information Report)
107. Statement of allegation
108. None of these

Ans: A. Complaint

 

105. Any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath is known as:
106. Enquiry
107. Investigation
108. Non-judicial proceedings
109. Judicial proceedings 

Ans: D. Judicial proceedings

 

106. The proceedings for the collection of evidence conducted by a Police Officer or by any person other than a Magistrate who is authorized by a Magistrate in this regard are known as:
107. Investigation B. Enquiry
108. Judicial Enquiry
109. None of the above

Ans: A. Investigation

 

107. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend, the amount of fine to which the offender is liable is unlimited but it shall not be:
108. Less than 20,000 Rupees.
109. More than 20,000 Rupees
110. Excessive D. Deficient 

Ans: C. Excessive

 

108. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment under Section 57 the imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for:
109. 12 – ½ years B. 15 years
110. 25 years D. Whole life

Ans: C. 25 years

 

109. A confessional statement is recorded by a Magistrate especially empowered by the Provincial Government u/s:
110. 163 B. 164 
111. 165 D. 166 

Ans: B. 164 

 

110. If a Magistrate upon taking evidence finds the accused not guilty:
111. He shall convict him
112. He shall record an order of acquittal
113. He shall only record an order
114. He shall transfer the case

Ans: B. He shall record an order of acquittal

 

111. Right of a person, against whom proceedings are instituted to be defended and his competency to a witness is given u/s:
112. 339 B. 340
113. 341 D. 343

Ans: B. 340

112. Where a person is guilty of one of several offences specified in the judgment, but that is doubtful that which of these offences he is guilty, the offender will be punished for the offence for which:
113. The lowest punishment is awarded if the same punishment is provided
114. The highest punishment is awarded if same punishment is provided for all
115. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all
116. None of the above

Ans: C. The lowest punishment is provided if the same punishment is not provided for all

 

113. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
114. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
115. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
116. Both of the above
117. There is no limitation on revision

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

114. Besides the High Court and the courts constituted under any law other than Cr. P.C, for the time being in force, there shall be two classes of criminal courts in Pakistan, namely:
115. Supreme Court and Tribunals
116. Anti-Corruption Courts and Special Courts
117. Magisterial Courts and Anti-Terrorist Court 
118. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

Ans: D. Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates

 

115. U/S 221 of the Cr.P.C, every charge shall state:
116. The history of the accused
117. Offence of the accused
118. Offence with which the accused is charged
119. Nature of the offence

Ans: C. Offence with which the accused is charged

 

116. Section 160 enshrines:
117. Police Officer’s power to examine witnesses 
118. Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses
119. Police Officer’s power tosuspect
120. Police Officer’s power to hold investigation 

Ans: B. Police officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses

 

117. At any time before a final order is passed in any case if a complainant satisfies the Magistrate for permission to withdraw his complaint:
118. The Magistrate shall permit him to with draw the case
119. Shall there upon acquit the accused
120. May permit him to withdraw the same
121. ‘B’ & ‘C’ are correct 

Ans: D. B’ & ‘C’ are correct

 

118. If the summon has been issued on a complaint and upon the day appointed for the appearance of the accused, the complainant does not appear:
119. The magistrate shall acquit the accused
120. Unless for some reason he thinks proper to adjourn the hearing of the case till some other day.
121. A & B are correct
122. None of these

Ans: C. A & B are correct

 

119. Where the Magistrate does not proceed in accordance with the provisions of section 349, he shall, if he finds the accused guilty:
120. Pass sentence upon him according to law
121. Acquit him
122. Refer the case to superior court
123. Shall proceed under section 349 of the Cr.P.C

Ans: A. Pass sentence upon him according to law

 

120. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the commencement of trial:
121. The prosecutor shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witnesses
122. The accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness
123. The court shall summon any witness who may have been examined
124. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

Ans: D. The prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon any witness

 

121. Section 343 says:
122. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge
123. Every influence is to be used to induce disclosure
124. A & B both are correct
125. All of the above

Ans: A. No influence is to be used on accused person to induce disclosure or withhold any matter within his knowledge

 

122. A warrant for execution of any sentence shall be issued by:
123. High Court
124. Session Court 
125. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence
126. A & C both

Ans: C. Judge or Magistrate who passed the sentence

 

123. In case of sentence of death, according to section 368 , the sentence shall direct that:
124. A person be shot in the chest
125. A person be killed by knife
126. A person be slaughtered by neck for 5 minutes
127. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

Ans: D. A person be hanged by neck till he is dead

 

124. Section 357 speaks as to:
125. Memorandum when evidence is not taken down
126. Language of record of evidence 
127. Manner of record of evidence
128. Option with Magistrate in cases under section 335 

Ans: B. Language of record of evidence

 

125. Section 364 lays down:
126. Procedure to record evidence in trial of certain cases
127. Procedure of recording inquiry
128. Manner of recording evidence
129. All of the above 

Ans: C. Manner of recording evidence

 

126. What is the limitation on power of Revision? 
127. No revision against an order of Session Judge in revision
128. Where appeal was available as a remedy but not preferred
129. Both of the above
130. There is no limitation on revision

Ans: C. Both of the above

 

127. When incriminating questions may be asked u/s 342(2):
128. To prove offence with which the accused is charged 
129. Where the accused tries to establish his good character
130. Where the accused gives evidence for any other person
131. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

128. The duty of Court towards the acused u/s 340(2) :
129. To the accused may make a statement on oath
130. The accused may confess to any offence
131. Both of the above
132. The Court has no duty

Ans: A. to the accused may make a statement on oath

 

129. Requirement for accused to appear as a witness:
130. When proceedings are instituted against him
131. When he does not plead guilty
132. When he is accused of some offence before Criminal Court
133. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

QANOON-E-SHAHADAT ORDER 1984

1. A person shall not be competent to testify if he has been convicted by a court for:
2. Perjury
3. Giving false evidence 
4. Bad character
5. A & B

Ans: D. A & B

 

2. No Magistrate or Officer shall be competed to my whence he got any information as to the:
3. Planning of an offence
4. Preparation of an offence 
5. Omission of an offence
6. Commission of a offence

Ans: D. Commission of a offence

 

3. The subject of “refreshing memory” is dealt within article:
4. 153 B. 154
5. 155 D. 156

Ans: C. 155

 

4. Under article 148, the court shall forbid any question which appears to the court as intended to:
5. Annoy B. Offensive 
6. Insult
7. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

5. Leading question is defined in article:
6. 134 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
7. 135 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 137 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

Ans: C. 136 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

6. Examination-in-chief has been defined in article:
7. 131 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
8. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
9. 133 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
10. 143 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

Ans: B. 132 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

7. If no evidence at all were given in a suit or proceedings the burden of proof would be on:
8. The one who would fall as a result
9. The one who would rise as a result
10. Both the parties
11. None of them.

Ans: A. The one who would fall as a result

 

8. Public document are defined in article:
9. 83 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
10. 94 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
11. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
12. 86 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

Ans: C. 85 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

 

9. The contents of documents may be proved by:
10. Primary evidence
11. Secondary evidence 
12. Territory evidence D. a & b

Ans: D. a & b

 

10. All accused persons, including an accomplice shall be liable to:
11. Hadd
12. Criminal proceeding 
13. Cross-examination
14. Imprisonment 

Ans: C. Cross-examination

 

11. All facts may be proved by oral evidence except:
12. Contents of Re-written statements
13. Contents of an oral statement 
14. Contents of documents.
15. b & c

Ans: D. b & c

 

12. Admission is defined in article:
13. 28 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
14. 29 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
15. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat
16. 31 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

Ans: C. 30 of Qanun-e-Shahadat

 

13. In suits for damages facts intending to enable the court to determine amount are:
14. Partly relevant and partly irrelevant
15. Relevant
16. Irrelevant
17. None of the above 

Ans: B. Relevant

 

14. In civil cases, previous character taken into account for deciding damges,is:
15. Partly relevant partly irrelevant
16. Relevant
17. Irrelevant
18. All of the above

Ans: B. Relevant

 

15. In criminal cases, previous good character is:
16. Irrelevant
17. Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant
19. All of the above

Ans: B. Relevant

 

16. In civil ases, character to prove conduct imputed is:
17. IrrelevantB)Relevant 
18. Partly relevant. Partly irrelevant
19. All of the above

Ans: A. Irrelevant

 

17. Article 9 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984” shall also apply to:
18. Interpreters
19. Clerks of advocate in writing
20. Servants of advocates
21. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

18. According to Article 21, any fact is relevant which shows or constitutes:
19. Any preparation for any fact
20. Any motive for any fact
21. A relevant fact D. all of the above

Ans: D. all of the above

 

19. A competent witness against an accused person except in case of Hadd is _______
20. Party of Suit B. Defendant
21. Accomplice
22. None of them

Ans: C. Accomplice

20. Facts which though not in issue are so connected with fact in issue are _______
21. Admitted facts
22. Relevant facts
23. Related Facts
24. General Facts

Ans: B. Relevant facts

 

21. The basic scheme of any action is _______
22. Intention B. Plan
23. Motive D. Preparation

Ans: C. Motive

 

22.“ Inter alia” means ______

1. Previous judgment can be relevant
2. Judgment is relevant to fact
3. Facts are to be proved
4. Facts proved

Ans: A. Previous judgment can be relevant

 

23. Article 20 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with ________
24. Admission
25. Identification of Accused
26. Appreciation of evidence
27. Admissibility of facts

Ans: D. Admissibility of facts

24. A dealing which is carried on between two or more persons is _______
25. Transaction B. Business
26. Agreemen D. Contract

Ans: A. Transaction

 

25. Article 30 of Qanoon e Shahadat 1984 defines _________
26. Admission B. Confession
27. Intention
28. Common intention

Ans: A. Admission

 

26. In criminal cases, parties may be called as ____________
27. plaintiff and defendant
28. accused and complainant
29. accused and prosecution
30. A and C

Ans: B. accused and complainant

 

27. Any opinion which is held by a body of a man is ______.
28. Tenets
29. Aggrieved opinion
30. Dogma
31. Doctrine

Ans: A. Tenets

 

28. Document itself produced before the court is _________ 
29. Direct evidence
30. primary evidence
31. secondary evidence
32. None of them

Ans: B. primary evidence

 

29. Documents which are prepared by public officer are ________
30. official documents
31. Public documents
32. fair documents
33. legal documents

Ans: B. Public documents

 

30. In order to vitiate document must have been committed in the execution of document.
31. In case of fraud
32. in case of decified 
33. In case of ADR
34. None of them

Ans: A. In case of fraud

 

31. The lists of facts of which the court shall take notice, which shall be called as _____
32. Legislative notice
33. Public notice
34. Judicial Notice
35. official notice

Ans: C. Judicial Notice

 

32. In which deed endorsement to the receipt of consideration/ possession is refundable?
33. Gift dee B. Sale deed
34. Marital deed D. Both a and b

Ans: A. Gift dee

 

33. Mutual mistake in the working of an agreement is ________
34. Working mistake
35. Agreement mistake
36. mistake of law
37. Mistake of fact

Ans: D. Mistake of fact

 

34. Facts which need not to be proved are __________
35. noticeable
36. judicial noticeable facts
37. proved facts
38. facts not admitted

Ans: B. judicial noticeable facts

 

35. Grant of interest is prohibited directly under the injunctions of ________
36. Quran B. Sunnah
37. Constitution 1973
38. Qanoon e Shahadat Act

Ans: A. Quran

 

36. Estoppel shuts the mouth of party, res judicata ousts the __________
37. successive litiatious
38. offending act
39. violation of rights
40. jurisdiction of court

Ans: D. jurisdiction of court

 

37. In case of infringement of fundamental rights, one can enjoy _______
38. Right to sue
39. right of estopel
40. right of life
41. A and C

Ans: B. right of estopel

 

38. One can enjoy right of estopel uner what article of Qanoon e Shahadat Order.
39. 25 B. 103
40. 112 D. 114

Ans: D. 114

 

39. Secundum allegata at probate is _______.
40. Petition by bank for recovery of loan
41. execution of consent decree
42. Agreement to sell
43. Illegal contract

Ans: A. Petition by bank for recovery of loan

 

40. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact is said ________
41. Burden of proof lies on him
42. He is not liable to any act
43. He is judgment debtor
44. None of them

Ans: A. Burden of proof lies on him

 

41. Article 117 of Qanoon e Shahadat is about _______
42. Relevancy of fact
43. trade marks
44. burden of proof
45. Affirmative of issue.

Ans: C. burden of proof

 

42. A documentary evidence is proved to be true by _______
43. Cross examination
44. Confirmation of writer and witnesses
45. Verification
46. None of them

Ans: B. Confirmation of writer and witnesses

 

43. An oral evidence is proved to be true by ________.
44. Cross examination
45. confirmation of writer of witnesses
46. Verification
47. None of them

Ans: A. Cross examination

 

44. Documentary evidence relates to documents whereas oral evidence relates to _____
45. incident B. persons
46. offence D. defendant

Ans: B. persons

 

45. Hearsay evidence is an admissible evidence where it is about _______
46. civil matters B. custom
47. criminal matter
48. ADR

Ans: B. custom

 

46. It is mandatory to _________ accept or reject an admission.
47. discretionarily B. Partially
48. Completely
49. None of them

Ans: C. Completely

 

47. An admission is always made about ________
48. Facts B. Law
49. Parties D. Issues

Ans: A. Facts

 

48. Admission can be made in _________
49. Criminal matters
50. Civil matters
51. A & B
52. None of them

Ans: C. A & B

49. A confession is said to be void if it is ________.
50. extra judicial B. under threat
51. pressure D. All of them

Ans: D. All of them

 

50. Judicial confession is _________ evidence.
51. admissible
52. inadmissible
53. partially admissible
54. partially inadmissible

Ans: A. admissible

 

51. Extra judicial confession is ________ evidence.
52. Partially inadmissible
53. partially admissible
54. admissible
55. inadmissible

Ans: B. partially admissible

 

52. There are _______types of estopple theory.
53. two B. three
54. four D. five

Ans: B. three

 

53. If a person makes an admission through a document, this shall be called _______
54. estopple by conduct
55. estopple by deed
56. estopple by judgment
57. All of them

Ans: B. estopple by deed

 

54. Theory of estopple is applied matter is about ________________.
55. Question of fact
56. question of law
57. behaviour
58. A and B

Ans: A. Question of fact

 

55. _________ is such questions which are asked by party who calls him.
56. Leading question
57. Re-examination
58. Examination in chief
59. Cross examination

Ans: C. Examination in chief

 

56. _______ question are asked after cross examination, by the party who calls him.
57. Leading question
58. Re-examination
59. Cross examination
60. Re-examination

Ans: D. Re-examination

 

57. Answers of ___________ is always in form of “Yes” or “No” 
58. Cross examination
59. leading question
60. Re-examination
61. None of them

Ans: B. leading question

 

58. Cross examination question are asked by _________.
59. Defendant B. Court
60. Prosecution D. All of them

Ans: C. Prosecution

 

59. _______ is competent to declare whether any question is appropriate or not.
60. Court B. Prosecution
61. Complainant D. Defendant

Ans: A. Court

 

60. This is discretionary power of __________ to allow counsel to ask question.
61. Court B. Defendant
62. Counsel
63. None of them

Ans: A. Court

 

61. Facts of which courts shall take judicial notice are ________.
62. All Pakistan Laws
63. Proceedings of Legislature
64. Seal of the Court
65. All of them

Ans: D. All of them

 

62. Question of estopple is a question of ________
63. Law B. Fact
64. Ego D. Admissible

Ans: B. Fact

 

63. The estopple by representation is know as _________
64. Estopple
65. General Estopple
66. Promissory Estopple
67. Equitable Estopple

Ans: D. Equitable Estopple

 

64. The estopple cannot be allowed to defeat the provisions of ________
65. Statute B. Fact
66. Evidence D. All of them

Ans: A. Statute

 

65. An expert may refresh his memory by reference to _________
66. Professional activities
67. Professional Life
68. Professional treaties
69. None of them

Ans: C. Professional treaties

 

66. The court shall forbid any question which appears to it, to be intended to ______the witness.
67. insult or annoy
68. permit
69. necessary
70. ask

Ans: A. insult or annoy

 

67.______ stages are provided for the purposes of recording evidence.

1. Twp B. Three
2. five D. Four

Ans: B. Three

 

68. The estopple classified into _______ kinds.
69. one B. two
70. three D. four

Ans: C. three

 

69. Audi Atteram Partem means _____
70. Condemned unheard
71. Right of cross examination
72. Dismissal of appeal
73. All of them

Ans: A. Condemned unheard

 

70. Provisions of Qanoon-e-shahadat are not applied on proceedings before _______.
71. Sessions Judge
72. Service Tribunal
73. Mohtasib
74. High Court

Ans: C. Mohtasib

 

71. Competence of witnesses is specifically determined in light of _______.
72. Court’s discretion
73. relevant law
74. injunction of Islam
75. None of them

Ans: C. injunction of Islam

 

72. Court may allow a person to testify who is convicted for giving false evidence if he is ______
73. Minor B. Insane
74. Solvent D. Repented

Ans: D. Repented

 

73. Court cannot compel an counsel to disclose his communication with _____
74. Prosecutor B. Police
75. Client D. Witnesses

Ans: C. Client

 

74. _______ has relevancy with facts and is a conclusive proof.
75. Matrimonial
76. Expert opinion
77. hearsay evidence
78. Oral evidence

Ans: A. Matrimonial

 

75. When court requires opinion of an expert it is _____ fact in certain cases.
76. relevant B. irrelevant
77. admissible
78. None of them

Ans: A. relevant

 

76. Every accused shall be given right of _______ in non-cognizable offenses.
77. cross examination
78. bail
79. re-examination
80. None of them

Ans: A. cross examination

 

77. While testifying, if an answer of witness criminates him, the court shall order _____ him.
78. to Arrest B. Remand
79. FIR
80. None of them

Ans: D. None of them

 

78. Extra Judicial confession can be proved as evidence against accused in _______ court.
79. High Court
80. Sessions Court
81. Shairat Court
82. None of them

Ans: D. None of them

 

79. Admission is either ______ accepted or ______ rejected.
80. Completely B. partially
81. discretionarily
82. None of them

Ans: A. Completely

 

80. A valid admission can only be made before _________
81. Magistrate B. Police
82. Prosecutor D. Complainant

Ans: A. Magistrate

 

81. Confession made before a person other than authorized authority is called _______.
82. Judicial B. Extra Judicial
83. Secondary D. Mandatory

Ans: B. Extra Judicial

 

82. Court can compel _____ to disclose its source of information regarding commission of crime.
83. Police B. Magistrate
84. Prosecutor
85. None of them

Ans: D. None of them

 

83. It is decided by _______ whether evidence is admissible or inadmissible.
84. Police B. Prosecutor
85. Court D. Complainant

Ans: C. Court

 

84. Dying declaration is hearsay evidence and it is _______ under law.
85. admissible B. inadmissible
86. rejected
87. partially accepted

Ans: A. admissible

 

85. Witness of a non-Muslim against a Muslim is ________ evidence in Hudood cases.
86. Secondary B. Mandatory
87. Admissible D. inadmissible

Ans: D. inadmissible

 

86. Benefit of doubt goes in favour of _________.
87. Accused B. Complainant
88. Police
89. None of them

Ans: A. Accused

 

87. Qanoon-e-Shahadar Order, 1984 divides documents in _________ categories.
88. three B. one
89. two D. Four

Ans: C. two

 

89. ______ are not considered to be public documents.
90. official notes
91. certified copies
92. Dummy copies
93. None of them

Ans: A. official notes

 

90. Facts judicially noticeable need not to be _________
91. Solved B. declared
92. proved D. Reliance

Ans: C. proved

 

91. ________ facts need not to be proved.
92. denied B. admitted
93. admission D. admitted

Ans: B. admitted

 

92. Birth during marriage _________ proof of legitimacy.
93. conclusive B. conditional
94. uncertain D. doubtful

Ans: A. conclusive

93. _________ has to decide as to admission bluntly of evidence.
94. lawyer B. judge
95. witness
96. None of them

Ans: B. judge

 

94. The order in which witnesses are produced and examined shall be regulated ______
95. Prescribed Law
96. Judge
97. Lawyer D. Witness

Ans: A.  Prescribed Law

 

95. The examination of a witness by the party who calls him shall be called his _______
96. Examination in chief
97. Prosecutor
98. Investigator
99. None of them

Ans: A. Examination in chief

 

96. The examination of witness by the adverse party shall be called _______
97. Admission
98. re-examination
99. information
100. Cross examination

Ans: D.  Cross examination

 

97. _________ questions must not be asked.
98. confusing B. difficult
99. leaching D. easy

Ans: C. leaching

 

98. Question not to be asked without __________ grounds.
99. Normal B. Reasonable
100. Specific D. unreasonable

Ans: B. Reasonable

 

99. _________ may refresh his memory by reference to professional treaties.
100. Expert B. Judge
101. Lawyer D. Witness

Ans: A.  Expert

 

100. The complainant can support of his claim by __________.
101. Promise B. Statement
102. Oath D. All of them

Ans: C.  Oath

 

101. _______ power to discover or to obtain proper proof of relevant.
102. Judge B. Witness
103. Lawyer D. Prosecutor

Ans: A. Judge

 

102. Questions tendering to corroborate evidence of relevant fact _______
103. denial B. inadmissible
104. admissible D. Secondary

Ans: C. admissible

 

103. Statement not challenged in cross examination is considered as _________
104. admitted B. denied
105. false
106. Partially accepted

Ans: A. admitted

 

104. Agreement amongst two or more persons to do any illegal act that amount to any offence is ________
105. Conspiracy
106. Pre planning
107. Common intention
108. Malafide Intention 

Ans: A. Conspiracy

 

105. The matter as to when a question shall be asked and when witness compiled to answer shall be decided by:
106. The Supreme Court
107. The Provincial Government 
108. The Federal Government
109. The concerned court

Ans: D. The concerned court

 

106. Under Article 162, the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for:
107. Appeal
108. A new trial
109. Reversal of any decision
110. a & b

Ans: A. Appeal

 

107. Under Article 158 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat”, the validity of any objection over the production of a document shall be decided by:
108. The Supreme Court
109. The Federal Government
110. The Provincial Government
111. The concerned court 

Ans: A. The Supreme Court

 

108. Under article 46, the cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found etc, is:
109. Relevant B. Irrelevant
110. Partly
111. All of the above

Ans: A. Relevant

 

109. Under Article 48, entries in books of according in the normal course of business, are relevant whenever they refer to matter into which the court has to inquire, but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to:
110. Start proceedings against a person
111. Discharge any person form liability
112. Charge any person with liability 
113. End proceedings against a person

Ans: C. Charge any person with liability

 

110. The competence of a person to testify, and the number of witnesses required in any case of Hadd shall be determined in accordance with:
111. Tazir
112. Constitution
113. Quran & Sunnah
114. Cr.P.C

Ans: C. Quran & Sunnah

 

111. An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, except in the …. of offence punishable with:
112. Life imprisonment.
113. Hadd
114. Death penalty
115. Imprisonment of a term more than 10 years

Ans: B. Hadd

 

112. In Section 6 “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984”, official record relating to the affairs of state” includes documents concerning industrial or commercial activities carried on directly or indirectly by the:
113. Provincial government
114. Local government 
115. Federal government
116. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

113. The proceedings in which a jural relation is to be determined between one person to another is _______
114. Judicial B. Court 
115. Tribunal D. ADR

Ans: A. Judicial

 

114. Fact of presence elsewhere is essentially inconsistent with presence at the place and time alleged and therefore, with personal participation in the act.
115. Theory of presence in act
116. Theory of Alibi
117. Plea of Alibi
118. C and B

Ans: D. C and B

 

115. What is substantive piece of evidence that the deceased had substituted an innocent person in place of real culprit?
116. Document
117. Will
118. Dying Declaration D. A and B

Ans: C. Dying Declaration

 

116. Any instrument empowering a specified person to act for an in the name of the person executing, it is _________
117. Agent
118. Power of Attorney
119. Advocate
120. pleader

Ans: B. Power of Attorney

 

117. In which condition, no evidence of any oral agreement or instrument shall be admitted between parties __________
118. when one is real owner
119. Representation in interest
120. In case of preemptor
121. All are correct

Ans: B. Representation in interest

 

118. Personal disqualification laid down upon a person peculiary circumstanced from proving peculiar fact is _______
119. Estoppel B. Acquiescence
120. Res Judicata
121. Preemptive rights

Ans: A. Estoppel

 

119. A person who remained quiet unreasonably long time without any objection for having full knowledge of violation of his right is _______
120. Fraud
121. Fraudulent intention
122. Waiver
123. Void Agreement

Ans: C. Waiver

 

120. The abadon or to relinquish non-vested right by express declaration or conduct known as _______
121. Estopple by Conduct
122. Estopple by waiver
123. Estopple by Judgment
124. None of them

Ans: B. Estopple by waiver

 

121. A witness may give _______ of statement made by other persons about the content of the document.
122. Oral evidence
123. Written evidence
124. Evidence
125. Documentary evidence

Ans: A. Oral evidence

 

122. The court may allow to produce any evidence that may have become provided in the shape of ________
123. video film B. press clipping
124. email D. All of them

Ans: D. All of them

 

123. If it is not in public interest, the court may not compel _______ to disclose any information which has not been published?
124. Counsel of accused
125. Company
126. Trust D. Public Officer

Ans: D. Public Officer

 

124. Previous bad character of an accused is not _______, except where accused is proving him of good character
125. irrelevant B. relevant
126. inadmissible D. accepted

Ans: B. relevant

 

125. Where a person is able to be produces before court, his statement shall be relevant if it is about _______
126. Robbery B. Murder
127. Cause of his death D. Rape

Ans: C. Cause of his death

 

126. Under Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, burden of proof is on _______ to prove allegation against accused.
127. Prosecution B. Police
128. Complainant
129. None of them

Ans: A. Prosecution

 

127. Decision of authority for determination of evidence whether it is admissible or inadmissible is _______.
128. Question of fact
129. Question of law
130. framing of charge
131. Prosecution

Ans: B. Question of law

 

128. If an accused claims that his case falls in exception provided in PPC then burden of proof shall be transferred on _________
129. Prosecutor B. Complainant
130. Accused D. Police

Ans: C. Accused

 

129. __________ of public document shall not be admissible unless it has been certified to be the true copy, by the officer concerned, who has the custody of original document.
130. Dummy copy B. Photostat
131. certified copy D. uncertified

Ans: B. Photostat

 

130. When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact it is said that ________ lies on that person.
131. legal rights
132. burden of proof
133. admitted facts D. none of them

Ans: B. burden of proof

 

131. The burden of proof in a proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no ______ at all were given on either side.
132. indication B. admission
133. denial D. evidence

Ans: D. evidence

 

132. The examination of witness subsequent to the cross examination by the party who called him, shall be called his ________
133. Admission B. Confession
134. Re-examination
135. Cross examination

Ans: C. Re-examination

 

133. The court may ________ any question or inquiries which it regards as indecent or scandalous.
134. Forbid B. Allow
135. discretion
136. None of them

Ans: A. Forbid

 

134. The court may allow to be produced any evidence that may have become available because of _______.
135. Tradition
136. Modern devices
137. Old techniques
138. None of them

Ans: B. Modern devices

 

135. The court shall, on the application of plaintiff call upon the ________ to deny the claim on oath.
136. Complainant B. Defendant
137. Judge D. Statement

Ans: B.  Defendant

 

136. Proof of former statement inconsistent with any past of his evidence which is liable to be contradicted is _______ of witness.
137. Impeaching credit
138. Support
139. against
140. None of them

Ans: A. Impeaching credit

 

137. The Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order 1984 extends to whole of Pakistan an applies to all judicial proceedings before any forum, except: 
138. Court, including a Court Martial
139. Tribunal
140. Authority exercising judicial or quasi-judcial proceeding
141. Arbitrator

Ans: D. Arbitrator

 

138. No judge or Magistrate shall be compelled to answer any question as to his own conduct in court as Judge or Magistrate except:
139. Upon the general order of his superior court
140. Upon the special order of this superior court 
141. Upon the orders provincial government.
142. All of the above 

Ans: B. Upon the special order of this superior court

 

139. Article 161, of the Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
140. Judge’s power to put question or order production
141. Production of document.
142. Refreshing memory.
143. None of the above

Ans: A. Judge’s power to put question or order production

 

140. Article 133 deals with: 
141. Judge of decide as to admissibility of evidence 
142. The order of productions and examination of witnesses
143. Examination-in-chief
144. Order of examination

Ans: B. The order of productions and examination of witnesses

 

141. The burden of proof shall be on the one:
142. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which any other person asserts.
143. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which the public asserts.
144. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.
145. None of the above 

Ans: C. Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists.

 

142. The evidence of terms of contracts grants and other disposition of property, when reduced to a document, shall be:
143. The original terms of contracts, grants and other disposition of property
144. The document, itself
145. Secondary evidence of it’s contents
146. a & b

Ans: D. a & b

 

143. When more than one persons are being tried jointly for the same offence, and a confession made by one of such persons is proved, then:
144. The court may take into consideration such confession as circumstantial evidence against such other person.
145. Such confession shall be proof against the persons making it.
146. Such confession shall be taken as abetment or an attempt to commit an offence.
147. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

144. A confession is considered irrelevant by a court in criminal proceedings if it is made:
145. Due to threat
146. Due to inducement
147. Under any promise to the …… Interest
148. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

145. Article 31 of The Qanun-e-Shahadat deals with:
146. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc
147. Admission by persons whose position must be proved as against party to suit.
148. Admission by person expressly referred to by party
149. Proof of admissions against persons making them.

Ans: A. Admission by party to proceeding or his agent etc

 

146. According to Article 24, facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if:
147. By themselves, they make the existence or nonexistence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probably or improbable.
148. In connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable 
149. They are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact.
150. All of the above 

Ans: D. All of the above

 

147. Article 22 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat deal with:
148. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts
149. Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct.
150. Relevancy of fact forming part of same transaction.
151. Things said or done by conspirator in reference to common design.

Ans: A. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts

 

148. A witness shall not be excused from answering a question on ground that the answer will criminate him, provided that no such answer, shall:
149. Subject him to any prosecution
150. Subject him to any arrest 
151. Be proved against him in any criminal proceedings
152. All of the above

Ans: D. All of the above

 

149. According to Article 14, no one shall be compelled to produce documents in his possession which any other person would be entitled any other person would be entitled to refuse to produce if they were in his possession, unless such last mentioned person. 
150. Is in a fear of getting sentenced for the non production of such documents
151. Is sentenced for the non-production of such documents
152. Has consented to their production 
153. None of the above 

Ans: C. Has consented to their production

 

150. Article 9 does not impose any restriction on an advocate from disclosing any communication before the court which:
151. Is any observed fact that the client has committed the offence
152. Is against the interest of the client.
153. Is in furtherance of any illegal purpose
154. a & c

Ans: D. a & c

POLICE ORDER 2002 

RESPONSIBILITIES AND DUTIES OF THE POLICE

1. According to the Police Order 2002, a police officer must behave with the public with:
2. A) Strict authority
3. B) Due decorum and courtesy
4. C) Distant formal behavior
5. D) Caution and suspicion

Answer: B
Explanation: The Police Order 2002 mandates that every police officer must treat members of the public with decorum and courtesy, ensuring respectful and professional conduct in interactions.

 

2. Which of the following is NOT a duty of a police officer towards members of the public, as per the Police Order 2002?
3. A) Aid individuals in physical danger
4. B) Behave with decorum and courtesy
5. C) Punish citizens violating minor rules
6. D) Guide the helpless, such as children and the disabled

Answer: C
Explanation: Police officers are instructed to help, guide, and protect citizens, not to directly punish minor rule violations. Such actions are handled through proper legal processes.

 

3. Under the Police Order 2002, police officers are responsible for protecting:
4. A) Only public property
5. B) Only private property
6. C) Life, property, and liberty of citizens
7. D) Government property only

Answer: C
Explanation: The duties of police officers include safeguarding the life, property, and liberty of all citizens, ensuring comprehensive protection and peace within the community.

4. Which of the following actions is a duty of the police to prevent public nuisance?
5. A) Apprehending suspected criminals
6. B) Maintaining order on public roads and thoroughfares
7. C) Imposing fines on minor infractions
8. D) Conducting warrantless arrests without reason

Answer: B
Explanation: Police are tasked with preserving order in public spaces to prevent nuisance and disruptions, which includes managing crowds and traffic in public areas and thoroughfares.

 

5. What is the police duty when encountering lost or helpless children according to the Police Order 2002?
6. A) Leave them to find assistance on their own
7. B) Provide guidance and assistance to them
8. C) Hand them over to child protection agencies immediately
9. D) Only offer assistance if requested

Answer: B
Explanation: Police officers are required to guide and assist lost or helpless individuals, especially children, as part of their duty to ensure public safety and welfare.

 

6. In case of emergency services, the Police Order 2002 empowers the government to:
7. A) Declare specified services as essential
8. B) Increase police jurisdiction without limits
9. C) Allow police to impose martial law
10. D) Enable police to make arrests without warrants

Answer: A
Explanation: In emergencies, the government may declare certain services essential, obligating police officers to follow orders related to those essential services to maintain order and support public needs.

 

7. Which of the following is a duty of police towards persons taken into custody?
8. A) Ensuring their rights and privileges under the law
9. B) Withholding information about their arrest from others
10. C) Denying them access to basic needs
11. D) Imposing fines on them

Answer: A
Explanation: The Police Order mandates that the rights and privileges of individuals in custody must be protected, reflecting the commitment to legal and humane treatment.

 

8. Police officers are required to communicate intelligence affecting:
9. A) Political matters only
10. B) National security exclusively
11. C) Public peace and crime in general
12. D) International crime networks

Answer: C
Explanation: Gathering and sharing intelligence on issues impacting public peace and general crime are essential for proactive law enforcement and public safety.

 

9. As per the Police Order 2002, which of the following situations requires a police officer to enter a public place without a warrant?
10. A) If it is a suspected location for illegal weapons storage
11. B) If the officer suspects general misbehavior
12. C) If the place has a large crowd
13. D) Only when there is no other authority available

Answer: A
Explanation: Police officers may enter public places without a warrant if they receive credible information that such locations harbor illegal activities, like the storage of illegal weapons, in order to prevent crime.

 

10. What is the duty of police in terms of assisting accident victims under the Police Order 2002?
11. A) To escort them to a hospital if convenient
12. B) To provide assistance and necessary documents for compensation claims
13. C) Only to report the accident to higher authorities
14. D) Not to interfere and allow medical services to handle the case

Answer: B
Explanation: Police officers must assist accident victims by providing necessary information and documents that could aid in compensation claims, highlighting their role in supporting victims’ rights

CONSTITUTION AND ORGANIZATION OF THE POLICE

1. Which Article in the Police Order 2002 mandates that a separate police establishment be maintained for each general police area?

1. Article 6 B. Article 7
2. Article 8 D. Article 9

Answer: A. Article 6

Explanation: Article 6 specifies that the government must maintain a separate police establishment for each general police area.

 

2. Under Article 7, which ranks are eligible for direct recruitment in the police?

1. Constable and Inspector
2. Assistant Sub-Inspector and Superintendent of Police
3. Constable, Assistant Sub-Inspector, and Assistant Superintendent of Police
4. Deputy Superintendent of Police and Inspector

Answer: C. Constable, Assistant Sub-Inspector, and Assistant Superintendent of Police

Explanation: Article 7(3) outlines that recruitment in the police (other than ministerial and specialist cadres) is in the ranks of Constable, Assistant Sub-Inspector, and Assistant Superintendent of Police.

 

3. According to Article 8, which of the following is NOT a branch within the functional organization of the police?

1. Investigation
2. Legal Affairs
3. Crime Management
4. Education and Training

Answer: C. Crime Management

Explanation: Crime Management is not listed as a branch; however, “Crime Prevention” is included as one of the functional branches under Article 8(2).

 

4. Who is responsible for the superintendence of police throughout a general police area?

1. Provincial Public Safety Commission
2. Federal Government
3. Appropriate Government
4. Inspector General of Police

Answer: C. Appropriate Government

Explanation: Article 9(1) states that the superintendence of the police throughout a general police area is vested in the appropriate government.

 

5. What is the tenure for the Provincial Police Officer according to Article 12?

1. 2 years B. 3 years
2. 4 years D. No fixed tenure

Answer: B. 3 years

Explanation: Article 12(1) defines the term of office for the Provincial Police Officer as three years from the date of posting.

 

6. Under Article 11, who recommends the panel of police officers for the position of Provincial Police Officer?

1. Federal Public Service Commission
2. Provincial Public Safety Commission
3. National Public Safety Commission
4. Local Government Commission

Answer: C. National Public Safety Commission

Explanation: Article 11(1) states that the National Public Safety Commission recommends a panel of three officers for the post of Provincial Police Officer.

7. What document must every member of the police subscribe to upon appointment?

1. Police Code of Conduct
2. Police Constitution
3. Oath or Affirmation
4. Employment Contract

Answer: C. Oath or Affirmation

Explanation: Article 24(1) mandates that every police member must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation upon appointment.

 

8. Which Article allows the appointment of special police officers for specific purposes?

1. Article 27
2. Article 29
3. Article 30
4. Article 28

Answer: B. Article 29

Explanation: Article 29 provides for the appointment of special police officers for special purposes or occasions.

 

9. What is the rank required for the head of investigation in a general police area outside Capital City Districts?

1. Inspector
2. Superintendent of Police
3. Additional Inspector General
4. Deputy Superintendent

Answer: C. Additional Inspector General

Explanation: Article 18(1) specifies that the head of investigation must be of the rank of Additional Inspector General in general police areas.

 

10. Which Article allows for the posting of additional police officers for specific duties?

1. Article 22
2. Article 28
3. Article 30
4. Article 31

Answer: C. Article 30

Explanation: Article 30 permits the appointment of additional police officers for specified purposes and duties.

 

11. Who has the authority to appoint experts to assist Provincial or City Police Officers?

1. Federal Public Safety Commission
2. Head of District Police
3. Government, based on Public Service Commission’s recommendation
4. Inspector General of Police

Answer: C. Government, based on Public Service Commission’s recommendation

Explanation: Article 14(1) authorizes the government to appoint experts on the Public Service Commission’s recommendation.

 

12. Which Article permits the Federal Government to recall a Provincial Police Officer?

1. Article 12
2. Article 15
3. Article 9
4. Article 11

Answer: A. Article 12

Explanation: Article 12(6) allows the Federal Government, with the agreement of the National Public Safety Commission, to recall a Provincial Police Officer.

 

13. Under which Article can a police officer be appointed as Director of Police Communications?

1. Article 19
2. Article 16
3. Article 25
4. Article 22

Answer: A. Article 19

Explanation: Article 19 enables the appointment of a Director of Police Communications, including roles for wireless and motor transport.

 

14. Which Article empowers the Provincial Police Officer to create police regions?

1. Article 20
2. Article 21
3. Article 22
4. Article 17

Answer: B. Article 21

Explanation: Article 21(1) grants the Provincial Police Officer authority to constitute police regions with government approval.

 

15. How are ministerial staff for the police appointed?

1. By the Inspector General of Police
2. By the Federal Government
3. By the Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer
4. Through the Provincial Public Safety Commission

Answer: C. By the Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer

Explanation: Article 31(1) provides that ministerial staff may be appointed by these officers as per the rules.

16. Which rank is needed to lead a police division?

1. Assistant Superintendent
2. Deputy Superintendent
3. Superintendent of Police
4. Inspector

Answer: C. Superintendent of Police

Explanation: Article 21(4) states that a police division is led by an officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police.

 

17. Who issues the certificate of appointment to junior officers?

1. Head of District Police
2. Inspector General of Police
3. Federal Government
4. Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer

Answer: D. Provincial Police Officer, Capital City Police Officer, or City Police Officer

Explanation: Article 25(1) provides for the issuance of a certificate of appointment under their seal.

 

18. In which Article is the role of Provincial Police Officer in policing accounts specified?

1. Article 26
2. Article 29
3. Article 28
4. Article 30

Answer: C. Article 28

Explanation: Article 28 assigns authority over police accounts to the Provincial Police Officer, among others.

 

19. Under which Article can the District Police Officer appoint special police officers?

1. Article 26
2. Article 30
3. Article 29
4. Article 31

Answer: C. Article 29

Explanation: Article 29(1) empowers the District Police Officer to appoint special police officers as needed.

 

20. According to Article 10, who prepares the annual policing plan for review?

1. National Public Safety Commission
2. Federal Government
3. Provincial Police Officer
4. Inspector General of Police

Answer: C. Provincial Police Officer

Explanation: Article 10(4) mandates that the Provincial Police Officer prepares the annual policing plan for review by the Provincial Public Safety Commission.

 

RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE HEAD OF DISTRICT POLICE AND DISTRICT PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

1: Who is responsible for preparing the annual Policing Plan for a district?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Head of District Police

(C) Provincial Public Safety Commission

(D) Federal Government

Answer: (B) Head of District Police

Explanation: The Head of District Police is required to prepare an annual Policing Plan in consultation with the Zila Nazim, consistent with the Provincial Policing Plan.

 

2: The Policing Plan must include all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) Objectives of policing

(B) Financial resources available during the year

(C) International assistance programs

(D) Mechanism for achieving targets

Answer: (C) International assistance programs

Explanation: The Policing Plan includes objectives, financial resources, targets, and mechanisms for achieving targets but does not involve international assistance programs.

 

3: To whom must the Head of District Police submit the annual report on district policing?

(A) Federal Government

(B) Provincial Police Officer

(C) District Public Safety Commission

(D) Zila Nazim only

Answer: (C) District Public Safety Commission

Explanation: The Head of District Police is required to submit an annual report on district policing to the District Public Safety Commission by the end of August.

 

4. If the Zila Nazim finds a person in unlawful detention at a police station, they may:

(A) Release the individual immediately

(B) Direct the police station to take appropriate action according to the law

(C) Order an internal investigation

(D) Transfer the case to the District Court

Answer: (B) Direct the police station to take appropriate action according to the law

Explanation: The Zila Nazim may visit police stations to check for unlawful detentions and, if necessary, direct actions as per the law.

 

5. Who has the final authority in case of a difference of opinion between the Zila Nazim and the Provincial Government regarding district police matters?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Provincial Government

(C) District Public Safety Commission

(D) Head of District Police

Answer: (B) Provincial Government

Explanation: The Provincial Government’s decision will prevail if there is a disagreement between the Zila Nazim and the Provincial Government on district police matters.

 

6. In the District Public Safety Commission, how are independent members selected?

(A) By the Zila Nazim

(B) Through a public election

(C) By the Governor from recommendations by the District Selection Panel

(D) By the Provincial Police Officer

Answer: (C) By the Governor from recommendations by the District Selection Panel

Explanation: Independent members are appointed by the Governor based on a list recommended by the District Selection Panel.

 

7: What is the term of office for a member of the District Public Safety Commission?

(A) One year

(B) Two years

(C) Three years

(D) Four years

Answer: (C) Three years

Explanation: The term of office for a District Public Safety Commission member is three years.

 

8: What proportion of the District Public Safety Commission members must be women?

(A) One fourth

(B) One third

(C) Half

(D) None

Answer: (B) One third

Explanation: One third of the members, both elected and independent, must be women.

 

9: The quorum for a meeting of the District Public Safety Commission is:

(A) Half of the total membership

(B) Two-thirds of the total membership

(C) Three-fourths of the total membership

(D) The full membership

Answer: (B) Two-thirds of the total membership

Explanation: For a District Public Safety Commission meeting, the quorum is two-thirds of its total membership.

 

10: If a District Public Safety Commission member is found guilty of misconduct, who can remove them from office?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) District Public Safety Commission itself

(C) Governor

(D) Provincial Government

Answer: (C) Governor

Explanation: The Governor can remove a member from office based on their own decision or a recommendation from the District Public Safety Commission if the member is guilty of misconduct.

 

11: Who is responsible for coordinating police support for the District Government during emergencies threatening law and order?

(A) Head of District Police

(B) District Coordination Officer

(C) Zila Nazim

(D) Provincial Government

Answer: (B) District Coordination Officer

Explanation: During emergencies, the District Coordination Officer is responsible for coordinating police support with the District Government and other local bodies.

 

1. What action must the Head of District Police take if a complaint is received about a police officer’s neglect or excess?

(A) Refer it to the Federal Police Complaints Authority

(B) Take remedial measures, possibly including suspension

(C) Report it directly to the Provincial Public Safety Commission

(D) Issue a warning only

Answer: (B) Take remedial measures, possibly including suspension

Explanation: The Head of District Police is required to take immediate remedial action, which may include suspending the concerned officer and initiating an inquiry.

 

1. What authority has the final decision if the Head of District Police and an officer disagree on whether a request for police support is unnecessary or unlawful?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Provincial Government

(C) District Public Safety Commission

(D) Federal Government

Answer: (C) District Public Safety Commission

Explanation: If there is a disagreement on a police support request’s legitimacy, the District Public Safety Commission’s decision prevails.

 

1. How are the elected members of the District Public Safety Commission chosen?

(A) By the Zila Nazim

(B) Through secret ballot by the Zila Council members

(C) By the District Selection Panel directly

(D) Appointed by the Provincial Government

Answer: (B) Through secret ballot by the Zila Council members

Explanation: The elected members of the District Public Safety Commission are chosen by the Zila Council through a secret ballot.

 

1. What is the minimum number of meetings the District Public Safety Commission must hold each month?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

Answer: (A) One

Explanation: The District Public Safety Commission is required to hold a minimum of one meeting each month, though emergency meetings may be called on short notice.

 

CAPITAL CITY DISTRICT PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

• Who is responsible for establishing the Capital City District Public Safety Commission in each district?

(A) Federal Government

(B) Provincial Government

(C) District Government

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (B) Provincial Government

Explanation: According to Article 49, the Provincial Government is tasked with establishing a Capital City District Public Safety Commission in each district based on its area and population.

 

• How are independent members of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission selected?

(A) By the Zila Council through secret ballot

(B) By the Governor based on the list recommended by the Capital City District Selection Panel

(C) By the Provincial Assembly

(D) Through public elections

Answer: (B) By the Governor based on the list recommended by the Capital City District Selection Panel

Explanation: Article 50(3) specifies that the six independent members are appointed by the Governor from a list of recommended names provided by the Capital City District Selection Panel.

 

• Who serves as the Chairperson of the Selection Panel for independent members of the Commission?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Provincial Government’s nominee

(C) Chief Justice of the High Court

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (C) Chief Justice of the High Court

Explanation: Article 53(1) states that the Chief Justice of the High Court serves as the Chairperson of the Selection Panel, which also includes a nominee from both the Provincial Government and the District Government.

 

• How long is the term of office for members of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Two years

(B) Three years

(C) Four years

(D) Five years

Answer: (B) Three years

Explanation: Article 57(1) clarifies that members serve a term of three years unless they resign or lose eligibility.

• What is the minimum quorum required for a meeting of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) One-third of its members

(B) Half of its members

(C) Two-thirds of its members

(D) All members present

Answer: (C) Two-thirds of its members

Explanation: Article 59(3) specifies that the quorum for a Commission meeting is two-thirds of its total membership.

 

• Who has the authority to remove a member of the Commission for reasons such as misconduct or conflict of interest?

(A) Zila Nazim

(B) Governor

(C) Chief Justice of the High Court

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (B) Governor

Explanation: Article 58 states that the Governor can remove a member based on specific grounds, including misconduct or conflict of interest, either on his own initiative or on the Commission’s recommendation.

 

• What is the role of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission regarding the Local Policing Plan?

(A) To prepare the Local Policing Plan

(B) To approve the Local Policing Plan and evaluate its performance targets

(C) To execute the Local Policing Plan directly

(D) To finance the Local Policing Plan

Answer: (B) To approve the Local Policing Plan and evaluate its performance targets

Explanation: Article 56(a) states that the Commission approves the Local Policing Plan prepared by the Capital City Police Officer and evaluates its performance targets.

 

• Which of the following is a disqualification for becoming an independent member of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Serving in the education sector

(B) Holding a representative office within six months prior to appointment

(C) Being a retired public servant

(D) Having experience in social work

Answer: (B) Holding a representative office within six months prior to appointment

Explanation: Article 55(a) disqualifies individuals who have held a representative office or been public servants within six months of appointment.

 

• What action can the Commission take if it believes the Capital City Police Officer has unjustifiably refused to register a First Information Report (FIR)?

(A) File the FIR directly

(B) Conduct an inquiry and direct the officer to register the FIR if warranted

(C) Refer the matter to the Federal Government

(D) Penalize the officer directly

Answer: (B) Conduct an inquiry and direct the officer to register the FIR if warranted

Explanation: Article 56(g) empowers the Commission to direct an inquiry if a refusal to register an FIR is deemed unjustified and to order the registration of the FIR if a cognizable case is made.

 

• What is the maximum number of meetings the Capital City District Public Safety Commission must hold each month?

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four

Answer: (A) One

Explanation: Article 59(4) specifies that the Commission is required to hold at least one meeting each month, though additional emergency meetings can be called with 24-hour notice.

 

11. How many members of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission are elected by the Zila Council?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Six

Answer: (B) Three

Explanation: Article 50(1) specifies that three members are elected by the Zila Council from among its councillors through a secret ballot.

 

12. Who is eligible to preside over a meeting of the Capital City District Public Safety Commission in the absence of the Chairperson?

(A) The Capital City Police Officer

(B) The most senior independent member

(C) Any member chosen by the Commission

(D) The Naib Zila Nazim

Answer: (C) Any member chosen by the Commission

Explanation: Article 52 allows the Commission to elect any one of its members to preside over a meeting if the Chairperson is absent.

 

13. Who can initiate the process to remove a member from the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) The Chairperson of the Commission

(B) The Governor

(C) The Provincial Public Safety Commission

(D) The Zila Nazim

Answer: (B) The Governor

Explanation: Article 58 states that the Governor can initiate the removal of a member either independently or based on the Commission’s recommendation if certain conditions are met.

 

14. What is the primary role of the permanent secretariat established for the Capital City District Public Safety Commission?

(A) To handle administrative tasks and support the Commission’s functions

(B) To oversee the local policing plan

(C) To conduct fact-finding investigations

(D) To manage the finances of the Commission

Answer: (A) To handle administrative tasks and support the Commission’s functions

Explanation: Article 60(1) states that a permanent secretariat is established by the Provincial Government to manage the administrative responsibilities of the Commission.

 

15. Who is responsible for nominating members to the Capital City District Public Safety Commission from the Provincial Assembly?

(A) The Chief Minister

(B) The Speaker of the Provincial Assembly

(C) The Zila Nazim

(D) The Governor

Answer: (B) The Speaker of the Provincial Assembly

Explanation: Article 50(2) indicates that the Speaker of the Provincial Assembly nominates three members from among the Assembly’s members, with two from the treasury and one from the opposition.

 

ISLAMABAD DISTRICT PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

 

1. What is the total number of members in the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) 10 (B) 12

(C) 14 (D) 15

Answer: (B) 12

Explanation: Article 61 specifies that the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission shall consist of 12 members.

 

2. How many members of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission are elected by the District Council?

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) Four (D) Six

Answer: (B) Three

Explanation: Article 62(1) states that three members are elected by the District Council from among its councillors.

 

3. Who nominates members of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission from the National Assembly?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President

(C) Speaker of National Assembly

(D) Federal Government

Answer: (C) Speaker of National Assembly

Explanation: According to Article 62(2), the Speaker nominates three members from the National Assembly in consultation with the Leader of the House and Leader of the Opposition.

• Who appoints the six independent members of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) President (B) Prime Minister

(C) Zila Nazim

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (A) President

Explanation: Article 62(3) clarifies that the six independent members are appointed by the President from a list recommended by the Islamabad District Selection Panel.

 

5. How often must the Chairperson of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission be elected?

(A) Monthly (B) Annually

(C) Every two years

(D) Every five years

Answer: (B) Annually

Explanation: Article 63(1) states that the Chairperson is elected annually, alternating between independent and elected members.

 

6. What is the minimum percentage of women required among both elected and independent members of the Commission?

(A) 10% (B) 25%

(C) 33% (D) 50%

Answer: (C) 33% (One third)

Explanation: Article 62(4) mandates that one-third of both elected and independent members shall be women.

 

7. What authority does the selection panel for independent members NOT include?

(A) Chief Justice of the High Court

(B) Federal Government nominee

(C) District Government nominee

(D) Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (D) Capital City Police Officer

Explanation: Article 65(1) states that the selection panel includes the Chief Justice of the High Court and nominees from the Federal and District Governments.

 

8. Which of the following disqualifies a person from becoming an independent member of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Being a recent public servant

(B) Having a minor illness

(C) Possessing dual nationality

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Answer: (D) Both (A) and (C)

Explanation: Article 67 lists disqualifications, including recent public service and lack of Pakistani citizenship.

 

9. Which body must approve the annual Local Policing Plan?

(A) Islamabad District Public Safety Commission

(B) Federal Government

(C) District Government

(D) National Assembly

Answer: (A) Islamabad District Public Safety Commission

Explanation: Article 68(a) specifies that the Commission approves the annual Local Policing Plan prepared by the Capital City Police Officer.

 

10. What action can the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission take if the Capital City Police Officer receives an unlawful order?

(A) Submit a formal complaint to the Zila Nazim

(B) File a report with the Federal Government

(C) Provide recourse and give a decision on the matter

(D) Request a meeting with the District Council

Answer: (C) Provide recourse and give a decision on the matter

Explanation: Article 68(d) allows the Commission to provide recourse for the Capital City Police Officer against any unlawful or mala fide order.

 

11. Who has the authority to remove a member of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) Federal Government

(B) Zila Nazim

(C) President

(D) Speaker of the National Assembly

Answer: (C) President

Explanation: Article 70 allows the President to remove a member for specific reasons listed in the article.

 

12. What is the quorum required for meetings of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) One-third of the members

(B) Half of the members

(C) Two-thirds of the members

(D) Three-fourths of the members

Answer: (C) Two-thirds of the members

Explanation: Article 71(3) states that two-thirds of the members are required for a quorum.

 

13. How often must the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission hold meetings?

(A) Weekly

(B) Bi-weekly

(C) Monthly

(D) Quarterly

Answer: (C) Monthly

Explanation: Article 71(4) specifies that there shall be a minimum of one meeting each month, with emergency meetings allowed with shorter notice.

 

14. What is the maximum duration within which the selection of independent members must be completed once the process begins?

(A) 10 days (B) 15 days

(C) 30 days (D) 45 days

Answer: (C) 30 days

Explanation: Article 65(3) mandates that the selection process must be completed within 30 days.

 

15. Who heads the permanent secretariat of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission?

(A) A Federal Government officer

(B) The Chairperson of the Commission

(C) An officer of BPS 17

(D) The Capital City Police Officer

Answer: (C) An officer of BPS 17

Explanation: Article 72(2) specifies that the secretariat is headed by an officer of BPS 17 appointed in consultation with the Commission by the Government

 

THE PROVINCIAL PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

 

1. Who serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
2. A) Provincial Police Officer
3. B) Chief Minister
4. C) Provincial Home Minister
5. D) Speaker of the Provincial Assembly

Answer: C) Provincial Home Minister

Explanation: As per the Police Order 2002, the Provincial Home Minister is designated as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Provincial Public Safety Commission.

 

2. How many members, excluding the Chairperson, does the Provincial Public Safety Commission have?
3. A) 10 B) 12
4. C) 14 D) 15

Answer: B) 12

Explanation: The Police Order specifies that the Provincial Public Safety Commission consists of twelve members in addition to the ex-officio Chairperson.

 

3. How are the independent members of the Provincial Public Safety Commission selected?
4. A) By the Provincial Assembly
5. B) By the Provincial Home Minister
6. C) By the Governor from a list recommended by the Provincial Selection Panel
7. D) By the National Assembly

Answer: C) By the Governor from a list recommended by the Provincial Selection Panel

Explanation: Independent members are appointed by the Governor based on recommendations from the Provincial Selection Panel, ensuring they meet specific integrity and competence criteria.

 

4. What is the quorum requirement for meetings of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
5. A) One-third of the membership
6. B) Simple majority
7. C) Two-thirds of the membership
8. D) Half of the members

Answer: C) Two-thirds of the membership

Explanation: The Police Order mandates that a quorum of two-thirds of the Commission’s membership is required to conduct official meetings.

 

5. Which entity is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Provincial Policing Plan?
6. A) National Public Safety Commission
7. B) Provincial Assembly
8. C) Provincial Public Safety Commission
9. D) Zila Council

Answer: C) Provincial Public Safety Commission

Explanation: The Provincial Public Safety Commission monitors and oversees the implementation of the Provincial Policing Plan, as outlined in the Police Order 2002.

 

6. How is the selection panel for independent members of the Provincial Public Safety Commission composed?
7. A) Members of the Provincial Assembly
8. B) Chief Justice of the High Court, a nominee of the Governor, and a nominee of the Chief Minister
9. C) District Council Members
10. D) Provincial Police Officers

Answer: B) Chief Justice of the High Court, a nominee of the Governor, and a nominee of the Chief Minister

Explanation: The selection panel comprises the Chief Justice of the High Court as the Chairperson and nominees from both the Governor and Chief Minister, ensuring independence and impartiality in the selection of members.

 

7. Which of the following is a function of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
8. A) Appointing police officers
9. B) Directing the operations of the police force
10. C) Recommending reforms for modernization of police-related laws and procedures
11. D) Providing security to government officials

Answer: C) Recommending reforms for modernization of police-related laws and procedures

Explanation: One of the Provincial Public Safety Commission’s functions is to recommend reforms in police, prosecution, and related areas, aiming to modernize and improve law enforcement services.

 

8. What is the maximum allowable term for members of the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
9. A) Two years
10. B) Three years
11. C) Same as the term of the Provincial Assembly
12. D) Four years

Answer: C) Same as the term of the Provincial Assembly

Explanation: Members serve for a term equivalent to the Provincial Assembly’s duration, ensuring alignment with the province’s legislative cycle.

9. Under what condition can a member of the Provincial Public Safety Commission be removed?
10. A) If they change their political affiliation
11. B) If they miss three consecutive meetings without reasonable cause
12. C) If they are older than 65 years
13. D) If they serve in a public office

Answer: B) If they miss three consecutive meetings without reasonable cause

Explanation: Absence from three consecutive meetings without a valid reason can lead to a member’s removal from the Provincial Public Safety Commission, ensuring active participation.

 

10. Who is responsible for establishing the Secretariat for the Provincial Public Safety Commission?
11. A) Federal Government
12. B) National Public Safety Commission
13. C) Provincial Government
14. D) District Council

Answer: C) Provincial Government

Explanation: The Police Order 2002 mandates that the Provincial Government establish a permanent Secretariat for the Provincial Public Safety Commission to handle its administrative needs.

 

THE NATIONAL PUBLIC SAFETY COMMISSION

 

1. What is the total number of members in the National Public Safety Commission, excluding the ex officio Chairperson?
2. A) 10 B) 12
3. C) 15 D) 18

Answer: B) 12

Explanation: The National Public Safety Commission consists of 12 members along with an ex officio Chairperson, as specified in Article 85 of the Police Order 2002.

 

2. Who nominates half of the members of the National Public Safety Commission?
3. A) The Prime Minister
4. B) The President
5. C) The Speaker of the National Assembly
6. D) The Chief Justice of Pakistan

Answer: C) The Speaker of the National Assembly

Explanation: Article 86(1) states that half of the members of the National Public Safety Commission are nominated by the Speaker of the National Assembly.

 

3. How many independent members of the National Public Safety Commission must be women?
4. A) One B) Two
5. C) Three D) Four

Answer: B) Two

Explanation: According to Article 86(2), at least two independent members of the National Public Safety Commission must be women.

 

4. Who serves as the ex officio Chairperson of the National Public Safety Commission?
5. A) The Chief Justice of Pakistan
6. B) The Speaker of the National Assembly
7. C) The President
8. D) The Federal Interior Minister

Answer: D) The Federal Interior Minister

Explanation: Article 87(1) specifies that the Federal Interior Minister is the ex officio Chairperson of the National Public Safety Commission.

 

5. What is the main criterion for disqualifying a candidate from becoming an independent member of the National Public Safety Commission?
6. A) Being an activist of a political party
7. B) Having a family member in law enforcement
8. C) Being an advocate of police reforms
9. D) Serving in a public office over 10 years ago

Answer: A) Being an activist of a political party

Explanation: Article 91(a) states that individuals who are activists of any political party or have held a representative office within the past six months are disqualified from becoming independent members of the Commission.

 

6. Which federal law enforcement agencies are overseen by the National Public Safety Commission?
7. A) Only the Federal Investigation Agency
8. B) Only the Pakistan Motorway and Highway Police
9. C) The Federal Investigation Agency, Pakistan Railways Police, and Pakistan Motorway and Highway Police
10. D) All law enforcement agencies in Pakistan

Answer: C) The Federal Investigation Agency, Pakistan Railways Police, and Pakistan Motorway and Highway Police

Explanation: Article 92(1) lists these agencies as part of the law enforcement agencies overseen by the National Public Safety Commission.

 

7. What is the National Public Safety Commission’s role in regard to the Capital City Police Officer for Islamabad?
8. A) Approve appointment and promotion
9. B) Oversee all duties of the officer
10. C) Recommend a panel of three officers for appointment
11. D) Approve the officer’s annual budget

Answer: C) Recommend a panel of three officers for appointment

Explanation: Article 92(3)(a) states that the Commission recommends a panel of three officers for the appointment of the Capital City Police Officer for Islamabad.

 

8. What is the minimum quorum for a meeting of the National Public Safety Commission?
9. A) Simple majority of members
10. B) Half of the membership
11. C) Two-thirds of its membership
12. D) Three-fourths of the membership

Answer: C) Two-thirds of its membership

Explanation: Article 95(3) specifies that the quorum for the meeting of the Commission shall be two-thirds of its membership.

 

9. Which of the following is a function of the National Public Safety Commission?
10. A) Establish Citizen Police Liaison Committees nationwide
11. B) Conduct federal police training programs
12. C) Provide funding to all provincial police
13. D) Dissolve the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission if needed

Answer: D) Dissolve the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission if needed

Explanation: Article 92(3)(j) gives the Commission authority to recommend the dissolution of the Islamabad District Public Safety Commission based on performance.

 

10. Which body acts as the Secretariat of the National Public Safety Commission?
11. A) The National Police Management Board
12. B) The Ministry of Law and Justice
13. C) The National Police Bureau
14. D) The Federal Investigation Agency

Answer: C) The National Police Bureau

Explanation: Article 96 states that the National Police Bureau serves as the Secretariat for the National Public Safety Commission.

 

POLICE COMPLAINTS AUTHORITIES

 

1. What is the primary function of the Federal Police Complaints Authority as per the Police Order 2002?

1. A) Oversee all police training activities
2. B) Enquire into complaints against Federal Law Enforcement Agency members
3. C) Manage funding for law enforcement agencies
4. D) Direct the day-to-day activities of Federal Law Enforcement Agencies

Answer: B) Enquire into complaints against Federal Law Enforcement Agency members
Explanation: The Federal Police Complaints Authority is responsible for investigating serious complaints against members of Federal Law Enforcement Agencies.

 

2. Who appoints the Chairperson of the Federal Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Prime Minister 
2. B) Chief Justice
3. C) President
4. D) Federal Public Service Commission

Answer: C) President
Explanation: According to the Police Order 2002, the Chairperson of the Federal Police Complaints Authority is appointed by the President.

 

3. How long is the term for members of the Federal Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Two years B) Four years
2. C) Three years D) Five years

Answer: C) Three years
Explanation: Members of the Federal Police Complaints Authority are appointed for a term not exceeding three years, and they are not eligible for a second term.

 

4. What type of complaints does the Federal Police Complaints Authority handle?
5. A) Financial misconduct by police officers
6. B) Minor disciplinary issues
7. C) Complaints of neglect, excess, or misconduct by Federal Law Enforcement members
8. D) Complaints related to promotions and transfers

Answer: C) Complaints of neglect, excess, or misconduct by Federal Law Enforcement members
Explanation: The authority deals specifically with complaints of neglect, excess, or misconduct by officers within Federal Law Enforcement Agencies.

 

5. What action can the Federal Police Complaints Authority take in the case of a frivolous complaint?

1. A) Issue a warning to the complainant
2. B) Refer the complaint to another department
3. C) Initiate legal action against the complainant
4. D) Ignore the complaint

Answer: C) Initiate legal action against the complainant
Explanation: The authority is empowered to take legal action if a complaint is found to be frivolous, false, or vexatious.

 

6. Who has the authority to appoint the members of the Provincial Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Governor
2. B) Chief Justice of the High Court
3. C) Provincial Public Service Commission
4. D) President

Answer: A) Governor
Explanation: The Governor appoints the Chairperson of the Provincial Police Complaints Authority, while other members are appointed by the government on the recommendation of the Provincial Public Service Commission.

 

7. What report must the Federal Police Complaints Authority submit annually to the government?

1. A) Crime statistics for the year
2. B) A report on serious complaints against Federal Law Enforcement officers
3. C) Annual law enforcement budget report
4. D) Annual personnel performance review

Answer: B) A report on serious complaints against Federal Law Enforcement officers
Explanation: The Federal Police Complaints Authority is required to send an annual report to the government covering matters related to its functions and any notable complaints.

 

8. Under which condition may the Provincial Police Complaints Authority request a judicial inquiry?

1. A) In cases of police promotions
2. B) For minor misconduct cases
3. C) In cases of death, rape, or serious injury in police custody
4. D) For reviewing departmental policy

Answer: C) In cases of death, rape, or serious injury in police custody
Explanation: The Provincial Police Complaints Authority can request a judicial inquiry if there is a report of death, rape, or serious injury in police custody.

 

9. How are the Secretariat’s staff and officers’ roles in the Federal Police Complaints Authority determined?

1. A) By the Federal Government in consultation with the Authority
2. B) By the Chairperson alone
3. C) By the President
4. D) By the Federal Public Service Commission

Answer: A) By the Federal Government in consultation with the Authority
Explanation: The roles of the Secretariat’s staff and officers are determined through consultation between the Federal Government and the Federal Police Complaints Authority.

 

10. What is the quorum requirement for a meeting of the Federal Police Complaints Authority?

1. A) Simple majority
2. B) Half of the members
3. C) One-third of the members
4. D) Two-thirds of the members

Answer: D) Two-thirds of the members
Explanation: To conduct a meeting, the quorum for the Federal Police Complaints Authority must be two-thirds of its total membership, as per the Police Order 2002.

 

CRIMINAL JUSTICE COORDINATION COMMITTEE

 

1. Who serves as the Chairperson of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee at the district level?

1. A) District Public Prosecutor
2. B) Head of District Police
3. C) District and Sessions Judge
4. D) District Superintendent Jail

Answer: C) District and Sessions Judge
Explanation: The Criminal Justice Coordination Committee is chaired by the District and Sessions Judge, who leads the coordination and review of the criminal justice system at the district level.

 

2. What is one of the main functions of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee?

1. A) To handle individual criminal cases directly
2. B) To supervise police investigations across all districts
3. C) To promote understanding, cooperation, and coordination in the administration of the criminal justice system
4. D) To investigate corruption within the police department

Answer: C) To promote understanding, cooperation, and coordination in the administration of the criminal justice system
Explanation: The Criminal Justice Coordination Committee works to promote coordination and cooperation between various criminal justice entities to improve the system’s overall functioning.

 

3. How often must the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee meet, according to the Police Order 2002?

1. A) Once a year
2. B) Once every six months
3. C) Once a month
4. D) Once every two months

Answer: C) Once a month
Explanation: The Criminal Justice Coordination Committee is required to meet at least once a month to review the operations and improvements in the criminal justice system.

 

4. Which of the following members does NOT belong to the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee?

1. A) District Superintendent Jail
2. B) District Parole Officer
3. C) District Police Officer (Head of District Police)
4. D) District Magistrate

Answer: D) District Magistrate
Explanation: The District Magistrate is not part of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee. The committee includes the District and Sessions Judge, Head of District Police, District Public Prosecutor, District Superintendent Jail, District Probation Officer, and others as specified.

 

5. What is the role of the Secretary in the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee?

1. A) To represent the committee in court
2. B) To manage the district’s police department
3. C) To record the minutes of the meetings
4. D) To oversee the probation and parole systems

Answer: C) To record the minutes of the meetings
Explanation: The Secretary of the Criminal Justice Coordination Committee is responsible for recording the minutes of the meetings, ensuring accurate documentation of decisions and discussions.

 

REGULATION, CONTROL AND DISCIPLINE OF THE POLICE

 

1. Who is authorized to make rules for the implementation of provisions in the Police Order 2002?

1. A) District Police Officer
2. B) Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer
3. C) Head of District Police
4. D) The Chief Justice

Answer: B) Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer
Explanation: The Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer, with prior approval from the government, can make rules to implement the provisions of the Police Order 2002.

2. What kind of punishments can be imposed on a police officer according to Article 113 of the Police Order 2002?

1. A) Reprimanding and transferring to another department
2. B) Suspension, dismissal, reduction in rank or pay, fines, censure, or other prescribed punishments
3. C) Jail time and fines
4. D) Removal from office and permanent disqualification

Answer: B) Suspension, dismissal, reduction in rank or pay, fines, censure, or other prescribed punishments
Explanation: A police officer can face a range of disciplinary actions including suspension, dismissal, reduction in rank or pay, fines, censure, or any other punishment outlined in the rules.

 

3. What is one of the key areas covered by the Code of Conduct issued by the Provincial Police Officer or Islamabad Capital City Police Officer?

1. A) The recruitment process of police officers
2. B) The identification of persons by police officers
3. C) The number of police officers in each district
4. D) The funding of police departments

Answer: B) The identification of persons by police officers
Explanation: The Code of Conduct specifically covers police practices related to the identification of persons by officers, along with other areas such as search and seizure, detention, and questioning of individuals.

 

4. Under the Police Order 2002, what is required for a police officer to resign from their position?

1. A) Verbal permission from the District Police Officer
2. B) Submission of a resignation letter with immediate effect
3. C) Written notice of at least two months to a superior officer
4. D) No notice is required

Answer: C) Written notice of at least two months to a superior officer
Explanation: A police officer must submit a written notice of at least two months before resigning from their office, according to the rules set out in the Police Order 2002.

 

5. Can a police officer engage in private employment while serving in the police force?

1. A) Yes, with prior approval from the government
2. B) Yes, if they are off-duty
3. C) No, a police officer cannot engage in private employment at any time
4. D) Yes, but only in a different field unrelated to law enforcement

Answer: C) No, a police officer cannot engage in private employment at any time
Explanation: A police officer is prohibited from engaging in any private employment while they are a member of the police establishment, ensuring their full commitment to their police duties.

 

POWERS TO ISSUE ORDERS

 

1. What is the primary purpose of the Head of District Police issuing orders under Section 118?
2. a) To grant licenses for public assemblies
3. b) To maintain public order or prevent public nuisance in an emergency
4. c) To conduct searches of vehicles
5. d) To regulate the distribution of public resources

Answer: b) To maintain public order or prevent public nuisance in an emergency

Explanation: Section 118 grants the Head of District Police the power to issue orders in emergencies to maintain public order or prevent public nuisance by enforcing municipal laws, rules, or bye-laws.

 

2. Which police officer is authorized to give directions for maintaining order during public assemblies, according to Section 119?
3. a) A police officer of any rank
   b) A police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
   c) A constable
   d) Any officer appointed by the Head of District Police

Answer: b) A police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector

Explanation: Section 119 empowers police officers of at least Sub-Inspector rank to give directions regarding the conduct of persons in processions, assemblies, and on public streets to prevent obstructions and maintain order.

 

3. According to Section 120, who has the authority to prescribe routes and times for processions or assemblies?
4. a) The Assistant Superintendent of Police
5. b) The Head of District Police, Assistant or Deputy Superintendent of Police
6. c) The Sub-Inspector in charge
7. d) The police station officer

Answer: b) The Head of District Police, Assistant or Deputy Superintendent of Police

Explanation: Section 120 gives the Head of District Police or Assistant or Deputy Superintendent of Police the authority to regulate the conduct of assemblies and processions by specifying routes and timings.

 

4. What does Section 121 empower the Head of District Police or other officers to do regarding processions or assemblies violating the conditions of a license?
5. a) Arrest the leaders of the assembly
6. b) Disperse the assembly or stop the procession
7. c) Fine the organizers
8. d) Allow the assembly to continue under supervision

Answer: b) Disperse the assembly or stop the procession

Explanation: Section 121 grants powers to police officers to stop any procession violating the terms of a license and to disperse any assembly that does not comply with the license conditions.

 

5. Under Section 122, what items may the Head of District Police prohibit the carrying of in an urban or rural area to prevent disorder?
6. a) Only firearms
7. b) Firearms, sharp objects, and corrosive substances
8. c) Only explosives and bludgeons
9. d) All items including flags and banners

Answer: b) Firearms, sharp objects, and corrosive substances

Explanation: Section 122 allows the Head of District Police to prohibit the carrying of weapons, sharp objects, corrosive substances, and missiles, when deemed necessary to prevent disorder.

 

6. What is the purpose of the directions given by a police officer under Section 123 at places of public amusement or assemblies?
7. a) To control ticket sales
8. b) To maintain public safety and lawful conduct during the event
9. c) To enforce traffic laws
10. d) To monitor the financial transactions of the event

Answer: b) To maintain public safety and lawful conduct during the event

Explanation: Section 123 allows police officers to give directions for maintaining public safety and lawful conduct during assemblies or events open to the public, preventing disorder.

 

7. What power does Section 124 grant to a police officer in an emergency situation involving streets or public places?
8. a) To issue a fine for parking violations
   b) To arrest individuals causing public disturbances
   c) To temporarily close streets or public places by erecting barriers
   d) To search and seize vehicles entering the area

Answer: c) To temporarily close streets or public places by erecting barriers

Explanation: Section 124 allows a police officer to temporarily close streets or public places in an emergency by erecting barriers to prevent unauthorized entry.

 

8. According to Section 125, when may a police officer search a person or vehicle in a street or public place?
9. a) If the person or vehicle is blocking the road
10. b) On reasonable grounds of suspicion that an unlawful article is being carried
11. c) During routine patrols
12. d) When the person is acting suspiciously but not carrying any item

Answer: b) On reasonable grounds of suspicion that an unlawful article is being carried

Explanation: Section 125 authorizes police officers to search individuals or vehicles on reasonable grounds of suspicion that they are carrying unlawful or dangerous articles. If the account given by the person is suspicious, the officer may detain the article and report it for legal action.

 

SPECIAL MEASURES FOR MAINTENANCE OF PUBLIC ORDER AND SECURITY

 

1. Under Section 126, who can request the deployment of additional police to maintain public order?
2. a) Only government officials
   b) Any person, with approval from the Provincial Police Officer
   c) The general public
   d) Only the Provincial Police Officer

Answer: b) Any person, with approval from the Provincial Police Officer

Explanation: Section 126 allows any person to apply for additional police deployment to maintain order, subject to the approval of the Provincial Police Officer.

 

2. Who bears the cost for the additional police deployed under Section 126?
3. a) The government
4. b) The police department
5. c) The person making the application
6. d) The person causing the public disturbance

Answer: c) The person making the application

Explanation: Under Section 126(2), the cost of employing additional police is borne by the person who applies for the police deployment.

 

3. How can the person who requested additional police withdraw them according to Section 126?
4. a) By giving two weeks’ notice
   b) By giving one week’s notice
   c) By requesting verbally
   d) By notifying the local police station

Answer: b) By giving one week’s notice

Explanation: Section 126(3) states that the person who requested the additional police can withdraw them by providing one week’s notice.

 

4. If there is a payment dispute regarding the cost of additional police, to whom can the matter be referred?
5. a) The Chief Minister
   b) The Provincial Police Officer
   c) The Head of District Police or the Government
   d) The local magistrate

Answer: c) The Head of District Police or the Government

Explanation: Section 126(4) allows the Head of District Police to refer the payment dispute to the Government for a final decision.

 

5. Under Section 127, when may the Head of District Police deploy additional police?
6. a) Only for public safety events
7. b) When large public events or works might impede traffic or attract large crowds
8. c) Only during national emergencies
9. d) For all public events regardless of size

Answer: b) When large public events or works might impede traffic or attract large crowds

Explanation: Section 127(1) allows the Head of District Police to deploy additional police when large works or public events might create disturbances or attract large crowds.

 

6. Who is responsible for the cost of additional police deployed for public events under Section 127?
7. a) The police department
8. b) The organizers of the event or employers
9. c) The provincial government
10. d) The general public

Answer: b) The organizers of the event or employers

Explanation: Section 127(2) states that the cost of additional police is borne by the organizers of the events or employers of works or concerns that require police deployment.

 

7. How are amounts payable under Sections 126 and 127 recovered?
8. a) By issuing fines
   b) As arrears of land revenue
   c) Through public donations
   d) Through tax deductions

Answer: b) As arrears of land revenue

Explanation: Section 129 outlines that amounts payable under Sections 126 and 127 are recovered in the same manner as arrears of land revenue.

 

8. What happens to the recovered amount under Sections 126 and 127?
9. a) It is returned to the person who paid
   b) It is credited to the treasury
   c) It is used to fund police activities
   d) It is distributed among the police officers involved

Answer: b) It is credited to the treasury

Explanation: According to Section 130, the amounts recovered under Sections 126 and 127 are credited to the treasury.

 

9. Under Section 131, who can prohibit the use of dress resembling police or armed forces uniforms?
10. a) Any police officer
    b) The Provincial Police Officer or the Capital City Police Officer
    c) The Head of District Police
    d) The President of the country

Answer: b) The Provincial Police Officer or the Capital City Police Officer

Explanation: Section 131 empowers the Provincial Police Officer or the Capital City Police Officer to prohibit the wearing of clothing resembling police or armed forces uniforms if it threatens public order or security.

 

10. What can the Head of District Police do under Section 132 in relation to camps or parades?
11. a) Prohibit the training of arms in the district
    b) Allow all meetings and assemblies for training in the use of arms
    c) Restrict meetings for training with arms only during emergencies
    d) Restrict or prohibit assemblies for training with arms to maintain public order

Answer: d) Restrict or prohibit assemblies for training with arms to maintain public order

Explanation: Section 132 allows the Head of District Police to prohibit or restrict meetings or assemblies for training in the use of arms to maintain public order

 

 

 

RESPONSIBILITIES OF POLICE IN RELATION TO UNCLAIMED

PROPERTY

 

1. What is the first responsibility of a police officer regarding unclaimed property according to Section 134?
2. a) Sell the property to recover costs
   b) Report the property to the local magistrate
   c) Take charge and make an inventory of the property
   d) Wait for the owner to claim the property

Answer: c) Take charge and make an inventory of the property

Explanation: Under Section 134, it is the duty of every police officer to take charge of unclaimed property, make an inventory of it, and send a copy of the inventory to the Head of District Police without delay.

 

2. According to Section 135, within what time frame must a proclamation be issued after police take charge of unclaimed property?
3. a) One week
   b) Fifteen days
   c) One month
   d) Three months

Answer: b) Fifteen days

Explanation: Section 135(1) states that the Head of District Police must issue a proclamation within fifteen days of taking charge of the unclaimed property, specifying the items and requiring anyone with a claim to appear and establish their ownership.

 

3. What happens if a claimant does not appear within the specified period to claim the property under Section 137?
4. a) The property is returned to the original owner
   b) The property is kept in storage indefinitely
   c) The property is disposed of with the approval of the appropriate Public Safety Commission
   d) The property is handed over to the police officer in charge

Answer: c) The property is disposed of with the approval of the appropriate Public Safety Commission

Explanation: Section 137 specifies that if no claimant appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property will be disposed of with the approval of the appropriate Public Safety Commission, and the proceeds will be deposited in the treasury.

 

4. In case of multiple claimants to the same unclaimed property, what is the procedure according to Section 136?
5. a) The property is sold and proceeds are divided among the claimants
   b) The Head of District Police delivers the property to the first claimant
   c) The matter is referred to a competent court for resolution
   d) The property is retained by the police department

Answer: c) The matter is referred to a competent court for resolution

Explanation: Section 136(2) states that if there are multiple claimants to the same property, the Head of District Police will refer the matter to a competent court to resolve the issue.

 

5. According to Section 135, how should property that is subject to speedy decay or is of low value be handled?
6. a) It should be kept for a year to allow claims
   b) It can be disposed of immediately under the orders of the Head of District Police
   c) It should be returned to the original owner
   d) It should be transferred to the government

Answer: b) It can be disposed of immediately under the orders of the Head of District Police

Explanation: Section 135(2) provides that if the property is subject to speedy decay or is valued at less than one thousand rupees, it may be disposed of immediately by the Head of District Police, and the net proceeds will be dealt with as specified in Articles 136 and 137.

 

OFFENCES AND PUNISHMENTS

 

1. What is the penalty for causing mischief in the street or public place by reckless or negligent driving under Article 138?
2. a) Imprisonment for up to six months
3. b) A fine of up to ten thousand rupees
4. c) Imprisonment for up to three months
5. d) A fine of up to fifty thousand rupees

Answer: b) A fine of up to ten thousand rupees

Explanation: According to Article 141, anyone causing mischief in a street or public place through reckless or negligent driving is liable for a fine that may extend to ten thousand rupees, or imprisonment for up to thirty days.

 

2. Under Article 139, which of the following actions would lead to an obstruction in a street or public place?
3. a) Parking a vehicle for more than the necessary time
   b) Stopping a vehicle to check for vehicle damage
   c) Allowing vehicles to park in a designated parking lot
   d) Using a private driveway for parking

Answer: a) Parking a vehicle for more than the necessary time

Explanation: Article 139 prohibits causing an obstruction by allowing a vehicle to remain or stand longer than necessary for loading, unloading, or taking up or setting down passengers.

 

3. What is the punishment for a person who negligently lets loose a dog causing danger or injury under Article 140?
4. a) Fine of up to ten thousand rupees
   b) Imprisonment for up to one year
   c) Fine of up to fifty thousand rupees
   d) Imprisonment for up to six months

Answer: a) Fine of up to ten thousand rupees

Explanation: Article 141 specifies that anyone who negligently lets loose a dog that causes danger, injury, or alarm can be punished with a fine of up to ten thousand rupees or imprisonment for up to thirty days.

 

4. What penalty is prescribed for the first offender under Articles 138 to 140, as per Article 147?
5. a) Warning in writing
   b) Imprisonment for up to six months
   c) A fine of up to ten thousand rupees
   d) Imprisonment for up to one year

Answer: a) Warning in writing

Explanation: Under Article 147, for the first commission of offences under Articles 138 to 140, the Head of District Police may request the court to issue a written warning in lieu of prosecution.

 

5. What is the punishment for defiling water in a public well, tank, or other water source under Article 148?
6. a) Imprisonment for up to three months
   b) A fine of up to thirty thousand rupees
   c) Imprisonment for up to six months or fine up to thirty thousand rupees
   d) Imprisonment for up to one year and fine

Answer: c) Imprisonment for up to six months or fine up to thirty thousand rupees

Explanation: Article 148 prescribes a punishment of imprisonment for up to six months, a fine of up to thirty thousand rupees, or both, for defiling a public water source.

 

6. What is the penalty for causing a false alarm of fire, as per Article 149?
7. a) A fine of up to fifteen thousand rupees
   b) Imprisonment for up to three months or a fine
   c) Imprisonment for up to one year
   d) A fine of up to twenty thousand rupees

Answer: b) Imprisonment for up to three months or a fine

Explanation: Article 149 punishes anyone who knowingly gives a false alarm of fire with imprisonment for up to three months or a fine up to fifteen thousand rupees, or both.

 

7. What is the punishment for obtaining employment as a police officer through fraudulent means under Article 146?
8. a) Imprisonment for up to six months
   b) Fine up to fifty thousand rupees or imprisonment for one year
   c) Imprisonment for three years
   d) Imprisonment for five years or fine

Answer: b) Fine up to fifty thousand rupees or imprisonment for one year

Explanation: Article 146 states that anyone who fraudulently obtains police employment by making false statements or using false documents is subject to imprisonment for up to one year, a fine up to fifty thousand rupees, or both.

 

8. According to Article 153, which offences under this chapter are considered cognizable?
9. a) Offences under Articles 138-140
   b) Offences under Articles 151-152
   c) Offences under Articles 148-152
   d) All offences under this chapter

Answer: c) Offences under Articles 148-152

Explanation: Article 153 states that offences under Articles 148 to 152 are cognizable, meaning the police can arrest the accused without a warrant.

 

9. What is the punishment for unauthorized use of a police uniform under Article 151?
10. a) Imprisonment for up to three years, fine, or both
    b) Fine of up to twenty thousand rupees
    c) Imprisonment for up to one year
    d) Fine of up to one hundred thousand rupees

Answer: a) Imprisonment for up to three years, fine, or both

Explanation: Article 151 punishes the unauthorized use of a police uniform with imprisonment for up to three years, a fine up to one hundred thousand rupees, or both.

 

10. How does the court handle offences under this chapter according to Article 154?
11. a) They are tried by a District Court
    b) They are triable summarily according to the procedure in the Code
    c) They are handled by the police directly
    d) They are referred to the High Court

Answer: b) They are triable summarily according to the procedure in the Code

Explanation: Article 154 grants the court the power to try offences under this chapter summarily, following the procedure laid down for summary trials in the Criminal Procedure Code (Code).

 

 

OFFENCES BY AND PUNISHMENTS FOR POLICE OFFICERS

 

1. Which of the following actions by a police officer would result in punishment under Section 155 of the Police Rules?
2. a) Submitting a false document to obtain a transfer
3. b) Resigning from his post without permission due to personal reasons
4. c) Failing to report to duty due to illness without providing a medical certificate
5. d) Reporting a crime in a misleading manner

Answer: b) Resigning from his post without permission due to personal reasons

Explanation:
Under Section 155(a), a police officer who resigns without permission or withdraws from his duties is guilty of misconduct and may face punishment. This section specifically addresses resignation or withdrawal without authorization, constituting an offense for which a police officer may be punished.

2. Which of the following offenses is punishable under Section 156 of the Police Order 2002?
3. a) Vexatiously and unnecessarily seizing property
4. b) Engaging in unauthorized demonstrations or strikes
5. c) Failure to follow superior officers’ orders
6. d) Taking an unauthorized leave of absence

Answer:
a) Vexatiously and unnecessarily seizing property

Explanation:
Section 156 specifically penalizes police officers who, without lawful authority, unnecessarily seize property from a person. This includes actions such as entering or searching properties or detaining individuals without reasonable cause.

 

3. What is the maximum penalty for a police officer found guilty under Section 155 for gross insubordination or use of criminal force against a superior officer?
4. a) Three years imprisonment and a fine
5. b) One year imprisonment and a fine
6. c) Five years imprisonment and a fine
7. d) Dismissal from service with no penalty

Answer:
a) Three years imprisonment and a fine

Explanation:
According to Section 155(g), a police officer found guilty of gross insubordination or using criminal force against a superior officer can face imprisonment for up to three years, along with a fine.

 

4. Which of the following actions could lead to a police officer being punished under Section 157 of the Police Order 2002?
5. a) Delaying a criminal investigation
   b) Unnecessarily delaying the forwarding of an arrested person to court
   c) Taking a bribe from a suspect
   d) Refusing to provide information to a superior officer

Answer:
b) Unnecessarily delaying the forwarding of an arrested person to court

Explanation:
Section 157 deals with the unnecessary delay in forwarding arrested persons to the court or any other authority. A police officer who causes such a delay may be punished with imprisonment for up to one year and a fine.

 

5. A police officer is found intoxicated while on duty. What penalty can he face under Section 155 of the Police Order 2002?
6. a) Dismissal from service
   b) Imprisonment for up to three years and a fine
   c) Suspension for a specified period
   d) Warning from superior officers

Answer:
b) Imprisonment for up to three years and a fine

Explanation:
Section 155(e) specifically penalizes a police officer found in a state of intoxication while on duty. The officer can face up to three years of imprisonment along with a fine. This punishment aims to maintain discipline and professionalism within the police force.

NATIONAL POLICE MANAGEMENT BOARD

 

1. Who is responsible for establishing the National Police Management Board according to Section 158?
2. a) Provincial Governments
   b) Federal Government
   c) Local Police Authorities
   d) National Police Bureau

Answer:
b) Federal Government

Explanation:
As per Section 158, the Federal Government is tasked with establishing the National Police Management Board, which is responsible for overseeing various police-related matters at the national level.

 

2. Which of the following individuals is part of the composition of the National Police Management Board as per Section 159?
3. a) Chief Minister
   b) Director General of the Anti Narcotics Force
   c) President of Pakistan
   d) Head of the National Police Bureau

Answer:
b) Director General of the Anti Narcotics Force

Explanation:
Section 159 outlines the composition of the National Police Management Board, which includes individuals such as the Director General of the Anti Narcotics Force and other heads of police establishments and federal law enforcement agencies.

 

3. What is one of the key functions of the National Police Management Board under Section 160?
4. a) To provide promotions for police officers
   b) To recommend steps for inter-agency cooperation for crime control
   c) To draft laws for the judicial system
   d) To conduct criminal trials

Answer:
b) To recommend steps for inter-agency cooperation for crime control

Explanation:
Section 160(e) describes that the National Police Management Board is responsible for recommending steps to secure inter-governmental and inter-agency assistance, ensuring a coordinated approach to crime control and internal security.

 

4. How often are meetings of the National Police Management Board held as per Section 161?
5. a) Once every month
   b) Twice a year
   c) Once every quarter
   d) Annually

Answer:
b) Twice a year

Explanation:
According to Section 161(1), the National Police Management Board generally holds two meetings a year, though additional meetings may be convened if requested by a majority of the members.

 

5. What is the quorum required for a meeting of the National Police Management Board under Section 161?
6. a) One-half of the total membership
   b) Two-thirds of the total membership
   c) Three-quarters of the total membership
   d) Full membership

Answer:
c) Three-quarters of the total membership

Explanation:
Section 161(2) specifies that three-quarters of the total membership of the National Police Management Board is required for a meeting to have a quorum. No proxy participation is allowed.

 

6. Who presides over the meetings of the National Police Management Board as per Section 161(4)?
7. a) The Director General of the National Police Bureau
   b) The Secretary of the Board
   c) The Senior-most Member Present
   d) The Federal Minister for Law

Answer:
c) The Senior-most Member Present

Explanation:
Section 161(4) specifies that the senior-most member present at the meeting of the National Police Management Board will preside over the meeting.

 

7. Which organization is tasked with functioning as the permanent secretariat for the National Police Management Board?
8. a) Federal Investigation Agency
   b) National Police Bureau
   c) Anti Narcotics Force
   d) Provincial Police Department

Answer:
b) National Police Bureau

Explanation:
Section 162(2) states that the National Police Bureau will serve as the permanent secretariat for both the National Police Management Board and the National Public Safety Commission.

 

8. Who is the head of the National Police Bureau according to Section 162?
9. a) The President of Pakistan
   b) The Director General, not below the rank of Additional Inspector General of Police
   c) The Secretary of the Board
   d) The Chief Justice

Answer:
b) The Director General, not below the rank of Additional Inspector General of Police

Explanation:
Section 162(1) states that the National Police Bureau shall be headed by a Director General who holds at least the rank of Additional Inspector General of Police.

 

 

MISCELLANEOUS

 

1. Under which circumstances may the police provide advice and assistance to international organizations as per Section 163?
2. a) Without government permission
   b) Only with the permission of the Provincial Government
   c) With the permission of the Federal Government
   d) Upon court order

Answer:
c) With the permission of the Federal Government

Explanation:
Section 163 specifies that the police can provide advice and assistance to international organizations or other bodies involved in investigating criminal cases outside Pakistan, but this must be done with the permission of the Federal Government.

 

2. Who is responsible for coordinating police administration efficiency between federal and provincial areas according to Section 164?
3. a) Provincial Police Officers
   b) Federal Government
   c) National Police Bureau
   d) Local Police Authorities

Answer:
b) Federal Government

Explanation:
Section 164 mandates that the Federal Government is responsible for coordinating police administration across both federal and provincial police areas to ensure efficiency.

 

3. Who should head the departmental promotion committees for police promotions to the rank of Head Constable, as per Section 165?
4. a) Deputy Inspector General of Police
   b) Assistant Superintendent of Police or Deputy Superintendent of Police
   c) Superintendent of Police
   d) Inspector General of Police

Answer:
b) Assistant Superintendent of Police or Deputy Superintendent of Police

Explanation:
According to Section 165, departmental promotion committees for promotions to the rank of Head Constable must be headed by an officer not below the rank of Assistant Superintendent of Police or Deputy Superintendent of Police.

 

4. Which of the following reports is required by the Federal Government as per Section 166?
5. a) Annual reports on police funding
   b) Reports on criminal proceedings and law and order
   c) Reports on police officer promotions
   d) Reports on police training programs

Answer:
b) Reports on criminal proceedings and law and order

Explanation:
Section 166(1) outlines that the Provincial Governments must transmit statistics and reports to the Federal Government concerning officers, offenders, criminal proceedings, and the state of law and order.

 

5. Who may inspect the Daily Diary maintained at a police station under Section 167?
6. a) The District Magistrate
   b) The District and Sessions Judge
   c) The Chief of Police
   d) The Federal Government

Answer:
b) The District and Sessions Judge

Explanation:
Section 167(2) allows the District and Sessions Judge to call for and inspect the Daily Diary maintained at every police station, which records details of complaints, arrests, offences, and witnesses.

 

6. What is the purpose of Citizen Police Liaison Committees as stated in Section 168?
7. a) To assist in police recruitment
   b) To promote liaison between citizens and police for relief and assistance
   c) To establish new police stations
   d) To handle police officer complaints only

Answer:
b) To promote liaison between citizens and police for relief and assistance

Explanation:
Section 168 describes Citizen Police Liaison Committees as voluntary bodies aimed at building capacity, improving communication between citizens and police, and assisting in the work of Public Safety Commissions.

 

7. Where are grants for the Public Safety Fund credited as per Section 169?
8. a) To the National Police Bureau
   b) To the Provincial and District Public Safety Fund
   c) To the police pension fund
   d) To the national treasury

Answer:
b) To the Provincial and District Public Safety Fund

Explanation:
Section 169 outlines that grants from the Federal, Provincial, and District Governments, as well as contributions from the public, are credited to the Provincial and District Public Safety Funds.

 

8. What is the purpose of the Public Safety Fund according to Section 169(7)?
9. a) To increase the police force
   b) To fund police stations, improve traffic police, and reward good performance
   c) To build new police infrastructure
   d) To provide salaries for police officers

Answer:
b) To fund police stations, improve traffic police, and reward good performance

Explanation:
Section 169(7) specifies that the Public Safety Fund is applied to improve facilities at police stations, enhance traffic police services, and reward officers for exemplary performance.

 

9. What powers do officers holding charge of a vacant District Police Head post have as per Section 170?
10. a) Limited powers based on temporary appointment
    b) Full powers to exercise all functions of the District Police Head
    c) Only administrative powers
    d) Only the power to oversee investigations

Answer:
b) Full powers to exercise all functions of the District Police Head

Explanation:
Section 170 grants officers who hold charge of or succeed to a vacant District Police Head post the full powers and duties of the District Police Head, whether temporary or permanent.

 

10. According to Section 171, when is a police officer not liable to any penalty or damages?
11. a) When acting in good faith within the scope of duty
    b) When a mistake is made during investigation
    c) When acting under superior orders
    d) When performing illegal acts in service

Answer:
a) When acting in good faith within the scope of duty

Explanation:
Section 171 states that no police officer shall be liable for penalties or damages for acts done in good faith in the performance of duty.

 

11. Under Section 172, how long does one have to file a suit or prosecution in respect of acts done by a police officer under color of duty?
12. a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 1 year
    d) 2 years

Answer:
b) 6 months

Explanation:
Section 172 specifies that suits or prosecutions against police officers for acts done under the color of duty must be filed within 6 months from the date of the action complained of.

 

12. What must be included in a notice of an intended suit against a police officer under Section 173?
13. a) Detailed personal information of the officer
    b) A two-month notice and sufficient description of the wrong complained of
    c) Details of the police officer’s duties
    d) Witness statements

Answer:
b) A two-month notice and sufficient description of the wrong complained of

Explanation:
Section 173(1) requires a person intending to sue a police officer to give a two-month notice with a sufficient description of the wrong being complained of.

 

13. What is specified in any license or written permission granted under this Order according to Section 174?
14. a) Only the signature of the police officer
    b) Period, locality, conditions, and restrictions
    c) Only the name of the licensee
    d) Duration of the investigation

Answer:
b) Period, locality, conditions, and restrictions

Explanation:
Section 174 requires that any license or written permission issued under this Order specifies the period, locality, conditions, and restrictions associated with it.

 

14. When can a license or permission be revoked under Section 175?
15. a) Only after a court order
    b) When any of its conditions or restrictions are violated
    c) When the licensee applies for revocation
    d) When the license expires

Answer:
b) When any of its conditions or restrictions are violated

Explanation:
Section 175 allows the competent authority to revoke or suspend a license or written permission if its conditions or restrictions are violated or if the holder is convicted of an offence related to the license or permission.

 

15. What is required for a public notice to be valid under Section 178?
16. a) The signature of the Police Officer
    b) Publication in the local newspapers
    c) The signature of a competent authority and publication in conspicuous places or by other means
    d) A court order

Answer:
c) The signature of a competent authority and publication in conspicuous places or by other means

Explanation:
Section 178 specifies that public notices must be signed by a competent authority and published in a manner deemed appropriate, such as posting in public places or through other media. 

 

Police Ranks

 

1. Which of the following ranks is the highest in the Police?
   A) Deputy Inspector General
   B) Additional Inspector General
   C) Inspector-General
   D) Superintendent

Answer: C) Inspector-General
Explanation: The highest rank in the Police hierarchy is the Inspector-General. This officer heads the entire provincial police force.

 

2. What is the rank immediately below the Inspector-General in the Police?
   A) Superintendent
   B) Additional Inspector General
   C) Deputy Inspector General
   D) Assistant Superintendent

Answer: B) Additional Inspector General
Explanation: The Additional Inspector General is the rank just below the Inspector-General and is a senior officer in the police force.

 

3. Which rank is directly above the Head Constable in the Police?
   A) Sub-Inspector
   B) Assistant Sub-Inspector
   C) Constable
   D) Inspector

Answer: B) Assistant Sub-Inspector
Explanation: The Assistant Sub-Inspector is the rank immediately above the Head Constable.

 

4. Who holds the responsibility of leading a police district at the highest rank?
   A) Deputy Superintendent
   B) Assistant Superintendent
   C) Superintendent
   D) Assistant Inspector General

Answer: C) Superintendent
Explanation: The Superintendent is responsible for leading a district-level police force, overseeing its functioning and operations.

 

5. In the Police, which rank is responsible for managing a police station or area?
   A) Deputy Inspector General
   B) Head Constable
   C) Inspector
   D) Assistant Superintendent

Answer: C) Inspector
Explanation: An Inspector is responsible for managing the police station or a specific area, including overseeing operations and investigations.

 

6. What is the rank immediately below the Deputy Inspector General in the Police?
   A) Assistant Superintendent
   B) Deputy Superintendent
   C) Inspector
   D) Senior Superintendent

Answer: B) Deputy Superintendent
Explanation: The Deputy Superintendent is a lower rank compared to the Deputy Inspector General and oversees police officers at a sub-district level.

 

7. Which rank in the Police is responsible for the highest-level supervision of a police force at the district level?
   A) Assistant Superintendent
   B) Senior Superintendent
   C) Assistant Inspector General
   D) Deputy Superintendent

Answer: B) Senior Superintendent
Explanation: The Senior Superintendent holds the highest supervisory rank within the district-level police force, providing leadership and management.

 

8. Which rank is directly above the Constable in the Police hierarchy?
   A) Assistant Sub-Inspector
   B) Head Constable
   C) Sub-Inspector
   D) Inspector

Answer: B) Head Constable
Explanation: A Head Constable is the rank immediately above a Constable, and typically has more responsibilities and authority.

 

9. Which of the following ranks is directly responsible for the management of a police station’s operation and administration in a specific area?
   A) Sub-Inspector
   B) Assistant Superintendent
   C) Deputy Superintendent
   D) Superintendent

Answer: A) Sub-Inspector
Explanation: The Sub-Inspector is the officer in charge of day-to-day operations at a police station or area, below the rank of Inspector.

 

10. What is the rank immediately above the Assistant Sub-Inspector in the Police?
    A) Head Constable
    B) Sub-Inspector
    C) Constable
    D) Assistant Superintendent

Answer: B) Sub-Inspector
Explanation: The Sub-Inspector rank comes immediately after the Assistant Sub-Inspector, and it carries higher responsibilities, often involving leadership of teams and investigation units.

GENERAL SCIENCE CLASS-7

Unit-1

Plant System

Introduction: 

Plant Organ Systems. Vascular plants have two distinct organ systems: a shoot system, and a root systerr. The shoot system consists stems, leaves, and the reproductive parts of the plant (flowers and fruits). 

1) How many systems are present in plants? 

1. a) two 
2. b) three 
3. c) four 
4. d) many 

Explanation: 1. Root system and 2. Shoot system 

Root System: 

2) Why the whole plant does not blow away with the wind? This is due to…….. 

1. a) stem 
2. b) roots 
3. c) shoot 
4. d) leaves 

 

3) The root of the plant is spread in the……..and anchor it.

1. a) water 
2. b) soil 
3. c) air 
4. d) none 

 

4) Which of the following function/s is/are performed by the roots of plant? 

1. a) anchor the plant in soil 
2. b) absorb water
3. c) absorb minerals and salts 
4. d) all of these 

 

5) Which of the following process is used by plants to absorb water and minerals? 

1. a) sedimentation 
2. b) precipitation 
3. c) diffusion 
4. d) all of these 

Explanation: Diffusion is defined as the  movement of individual molecules of a substance through a semipermeable barrier from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower  concentration 

 

6) Which of the following is present on the epidermis of root?

1. a) leave 
2. b) pores 
3. c) hairs 
4. d) none of these 

 

7) Which of the following is/are included in vascular bundle? 

1. a) xylem 
2. b) phloem 
3. c) epidermis
4. d) both a and b 

 

8) Where the vascular bundles (xylem and phloem) are present in the root of the plant? 

1. a) on top 
2. b) in the center 
3. c) in the sides 
4. d) in the peripheral region 

 

9. Which of the following is present between epidermis and vascular bundles? 
10. a) pith 
11. b) xylem 
12. c) vascular bundles 
13. d) phloem 

Explanation: A vascular bundle is a part of the transport system in vascular plants. The transport itself happens in the stem, which exists in two forms: xylem and phloem. Both these tissues are present in a vascular bundle, which in addition will include supporting and protective tissues.

10) How types of roots are present in plants?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many
   Explanation: Taproots and 2. Fibrous roots

 

11) Which of the following roots have one main root called primary root?

1. a) taproots
   b) fibrous roots
   c) both
   d) none of them
   Explanation: Taproot, main root of a primary root system, growing vertically downward. Most dicotyledonous plants (see cotyledon), such as dandelions, produce taproots, and some, such as the edible roots of carrots and beets, are specialized for food storage.

 

12) Taproots are the main roots that grow…

1. a) upward
   b) downward
   c) sidewise
   d) everywhere

 

13) The branches of root which arise from the side of the main root is…

1. a) primary root
   b) secondary root
   c) tertiary root
   d) taproot

 

14) The branches of secondary roots are called…

1. a) primary root
   b) fibrous root
   c) tertiary root
   d) taproot

 

15) Which of the following plants have tap roots?

1. a) herbs
   b) shrubs
   c) trees
   d) all of these

 

16) Which of the following roots is thread-like structures that spread out from the base of a stem of a plant?

1. a) primary root
   b) secondary root
   c) fibrous root
   d) taproot
   Explanation: A fibrous root system is the opposite of a taproot system. It is usually formed by thin, moderately branching roots growing from the stem. A fibrous root system is universal in monocotyledonous plants and ferns. The fibrous root systems look like a mat made out of roots when the tree has reached full maturity.

 

17) Which of the following plants have fibrous roots?

1. a) wheat
   b) grasses
   c) Banyan
   d) both a and b

 

18) The roots that grow on the parts of plants above the ground are called…

1. a) primary roots
   b) aerial roots
   c) fibrous roots
   d) taproots
   Explanation: Aerial roots are roots above the ground. They are almost always adventitious. They are found in diverse plant species, including epiphytes such as orchids, tropical coastal swamp trees such as mangroves, banyan figs, the warm-temperate rainforest – rata, and pohutukawa trees of New Zealand.

 

19) Which of the following plant/s has/have aerial roots?

1. a) wheat
   b) grasses
   c) Banyan
   d) all shrubs

 

20) Which of the following parts of the Banyan tree helps it in spreading over a wide region?

1. a) main roots
   b) aerial roots
   c) stem
   d) leaves

 

Shoot System:

Shoot system is an aerial and erect part of the plant body which grows upwards. It is usually above the soil and develops from the plumule of the embryo. It consists of stem, branches, leaves, flowers, fruits, and seeds.

21) Which of the following is/are included in the shoot system of a plant?

1. a) stem
   b) leaves
   c) fruit and flowers
   d) all of these

 

22) Which part of the plant gives support to the plant?

1. a) leaves
   b) stem
   c) roots
   d) fruit and flowers

23) Which of the following part of the plant helps in exchanging gases between the aerial parts of the plant?

1. a) roots
   b) leaves
   c) fruit and flowers
   d) stem

24) How many types of stems are found in plants?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many
   Explanation: Herbaceous stem and 2. Woody stem

25) Which of the following stems is herbaceous?

1. a) green stem
   b) flexible stem
   c) strong stem
   d) both a and b

26) Which of the following stems are herbaceous stems?

1. a) grass and aerials
   b) trees and shrubs
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

27) Which of the following stems have the woody stem?

1. a) spread strong stem
   b) flexible stem
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

28) Which of the following has/have the woody stems?

1. a) grass and aerials
   b) trees and shrubs
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

29) Among the vascular bundle, the strong and gives support to the plant?

1. a) inside the pith
   b) beneath the epidermis
   c) above the epidermis
   d) none of these

30) Which of the following is present in the center side of the leaf base and may resemble scales?

1. a) vascular bundles
   b) epidermis
   c) pith
   d) all of these

31) Which of the following is/are included in vascular bundles?

1. a) pith
   b) epidermis
   c) vascular bundles & both a and b
   d) none of these

32) Which of the following performs the storage function?

1. a) plants
   b) epidermis
   c) vascular bundles
   d) none of these

33) Which of the following is/are desert plants?

1. a) wheat
   b) mango
   c) cacti
   d) banyan
   Explanation: Cactus (plural: cacti, cactuses, or less commonly cactus) is a member of the plant family Cactaceae, a family comprising about 127 genera with some 1750 known species of the order Caryophyllales.

34) Which of the following store water in their thick stems which are green and perform photosynthesis?

1. a) wheat
   b) mangrove
   c) cacti
   d) banyan

35) Where is the largest Banyan tree in Pakistan?

1. a) Morial
   b) Quetta
   c) Thatta
   d) Karachi

36) Banyan tree is covered by which largest area?

1. a) Thatta in Sindh, Pakistan
   b) Karachi
   c) 3 acres
   d) 5 acres

37) Leaf consists of…

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

38) The flat green portion of the leaf is called…

1. a) leaf stalk
   b) midrib
   c) leaf blade
   d) veins

39) Which of the following structure/s is/are found in the leaf blade?

1. a) leaf stalk
   b) midrib
   c) veins
   d) both b and c

40) Which of the following is/are an extension of the leaf stalk?

1. a) xylem
   b) midrib
   c) leaf blade
   d) veins

41) Which of the following gives support to the leaf?

1. a) leaf blade
   b) midrib
   c) veins
   d) both b and c

42) Which of the following transports substances to and from the leaves?

1. a) leaf stalk
   b) midrib
   c) vascular bundles
   d) leaf blade

43) The process of photosynthesis is responsible for the preparation of glucose (food) for plants. Which of the following parts perform it?

1. a) roots
   b) stem
   c) leaves
   d) vascular bundles

44) The process of photosynthesis takes in……… of the leaves.

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) all of these
   Explanation: Mesophylls are the internal ground tissue present in leaves. There are two types of mesophyll cells in the leaves, namely palisade mesophyll and spongy mesophyll. Mesophyll cells are provided with a large number of chloroplasts.

45) Which of the following is the outermost layer of the leaf?

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) none of these

46) Which of the following parts of the leaf is waterproof and present over the epidermis of the leaf?

1. a) cuticle
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) phloem

47) Where are the small pores (stomata) present in the leaf?

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) mesophyll
   d) leaf stalk

48) Gaseous exchange in plants takes place through which of the following parts of the leaf?

1. a) stomata
   b) xylem
   c) phloem
   d) mesophyll

49) Pair of guard cells surrounds…

1. a) pith
   b) each stoma
   c) phloem
   d) mesophyll

50) Which of the following is/are responsible for the closing and opening of stomata?

1. a) stomata
   b) xylem
   c) guard cells
   d) mesophyll

51) When do the stomata open?

1. a) during the night time
   b) during the daytime
   c) during day and night
   d) during dawn and dusk time

52) When are the stomata of the leaves closed?

1. a) during the night time
   b) during the daytime
   c) during day and night
   d) during dawn and dusk time

Transport:

Plants have two transport systems – xylem and phloem. Xylem transports water and minerals. Phloem transports sugars and amino acids dissolved in water.

 

53) Transportation is the movement of ______ from one place to another.

1. a) food
   b) minerals
   c) water
   d) all of these

54) Which of the following parts of the plant are responsible for the transport of materials?

1. a) roots
   b) xylem
   c) phloem
   d) both b and c

55) Xylem and phloem are collectively known as ______.

1. a) vascular bundles
   b) mesophyll
   c) epidermis
   d) dissolved minerals

56) What do xylem tissues transport?

1. a) food
   b) water
   c) water and dissolved minerals
   d) none of these

57) The food moves to leaves through ______.

1. a) xylem
   b) phloem
   c) vascular bundles
   d) both a and b

58) Which of the following has thick walls and supports the plant?

1. a) epidermis
   b) xylem
   c) phloem
   d) mesophyll

59) Which of the following is dead tissue?

1. a) epidermis
   b) phloem
   c) mesophyll
   d) xylem

60) Which of the following is transported by the phloem?

1. a) water
   b) dissolved minerals
   c) food
   d) both a and b

61) The food prepared in leaves is transported by ______.

1. a) phloem
   b) xylem
   c) stem
   d) root

62) What is the direction of sugar solution in the phloem?

1. a) upward
   b) downward
   c) both up and down
   d) none of these

63) The loss of water from the stomata in the leaf is called ______.

1. a) sublimation
   b) respiration
   c) evaporation
   d) transpiration

64) As the water evaporates from the leaves, more water is pulled up through it by ______.

1. a) xylem
   b) mesophyll
   c) guard cells
   d) epidermis

65) Which of the following is the major force to pull the water from the roots?

1. a) evaporation
   b) transpiration pull
   c) respiration
   d) photosynthesis

66) What will happen to the plant when water loss is more than water intake?

1. a) the plant will grow better
   b) the plant will remain fresh
   c) the plant will wilt
   d) none of these

Explanation:

Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves, stems, and flowers. Water is necessary for plants, but only a small amount of water taken up by the roots is used for growth and metabolism. The remaining 97-99% is lost by transpiration. The non-woody parts of plants wilt when the turgor pressure in the cells falls towards zero as a result of diminished water availability.

 

Water in the cells. Wilting also serves to reduce water loss, as it makes the leaves expose less surface area.

68) When does the wilting of plants occur?

1. a) on hot day
   b) on dry day
   c) on sunny day
   d) all of these

69) Which of the following affects the rate of transpiration?

1. a) light intensity
   b) temperature
   c) humidity and wind
   d) all of these

70) Which of the following affects the rate of transpiration?

1. a) water supply
   b) height of plant
   c) amount of oxygen
   d) all of these

71) Which of the following is/are used to check transpiration from leaves?

1. a) litmus paper
   b) pH paper
   c) cobalt chloride paper
   d) all of these

Photosynthesis:

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create oxygen and energy in the form of sugar.

6CO2+6H2O→sunlightC6H12O6+6O26CO_2 + 6H_2O \xrightarrow{\text{sunlight}} C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 

72) Why are leaves and some other parts of plants green?

1. a) they have cell walls
   b) they have chlorophyll
   c) they have green cytoplasm
   d) they have plasma membrane

73) Which of the following absorbs sunlight?

1. a) protein
   b) fats
   c) chlorophyll
   d) vitamin A

74) Where is chlorophyll present in the plant cell?

1. a) mitochondria
   b) chloroplast
   c) ribosomes
   d) nucleus

75) Which of the following energy is/are used by plants to prepare food?

1. a) light
   b) heat
   c) chemical energy
   d) all of these

76) Which of the following gases is used during photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) methane

77) Which of the following gases is produced during photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) methane

78) Which of the following is a byproduct of photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) methane

79) Which of the following structures is used by plants to get carbon dioxide?

1. a) xylem
   b) phloem
   c) cuticle
   d) stomata

80) Which of the following structures is used by plants to get water for photosynthesis?

1. a) xylem
   b) phloem
   c) cuticle
   d) stomata

81) Which of the following is/are produced during photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) glucose
   d) both a and c

82) Which of the following is/are used during photosynthesis?

1. a) water
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) glucose
   d) both a and b

83) What happens to oxygen produced during photosynthesis?

1. a) some is used in respiration by the plant itself
   b) extra oxygen moves out through stomata
   c) some oxygen is stored in fruit and seeds
   d) both a and b

84) All forms of life depend on the process of photosynthesis for ______.

1. a) oxygen
   b) food
   c) shelter
   d) both a and b

85) Which of the following processes is the only source of oxygen on planet Earth?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

 

Leaves As Best Photosynthesis Sites

Cells in the mesophyll of the leaf have numerous chloroplasts. In leaves, cells in the mesophyll (the tissue between the upper and lower epidermis) are uniquely suited to carry out photosynthesis on a large scale. This is due to their high concentration of chloroplasts, which are the sites of photosynthesis.

86) Which of the following adaptations make the leaf structure suitable for the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) broad and flat shape of leaf
   b) large air spaces for gaseous exchange
   c) thin structure of leaf
   d) all of these

87) Which of the following adaptations make the leaf structure suitable for the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) network of veins to supply water
   b) transparent epidermis to allow entry of light
   c) waxy cuticle to slow water loss and large number of chloroplasts
   d) all of these

 

Minerals For Plant Growth

The three main nutrients are nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K). Together, they make up the trio known as NPK. Other important nutrients are calcium, magnesium, and sulfur.

88) Which of the following is/are required to grow a healthy plant?

1. a) sunlight
   b) air
   c) minerals
   d) all of these

89) Which of the following is required to prepare proteins by plants?

1. a) nitrates
   b) water
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) oxygen

90) Which of the following is required to make chlorophyll by plants?

1. a) nitrates
   b) magnesium
   c) iron
   d) oxygen

Explanation:

Magnesium is the central core of the chlorophyll molecule in plant tissue. Thus, if Mg is deficient, the shortage of chlorophyll results in poor and stunted plant growth. Magnesium also helps to activate specific enzyme systems.

91) Compost is a type of fertilizer that is made from…

1. a) cow dung
   b) rotting plants
   c) nitrates
   d) phosphates

92) What is/are the benefit of compost in growing plants?

1. a) it is easy
   b) it is cheap
   c) it damages the plant
   d) both a and b

 

Respiration:

Respiration is defined as a metabolic process wherein the living cells of an organism obtain energy (in the form of ATP) by taking in oxygen and liberating carbon dioxide from the oxidation of complex organic substances.

The release of energy during cellular respiration:

glucose+oxygen→energy released+carbon dioxide+water\text{glucose} + \text{oxygen} \rightarrow \text{energy released} + \text{carbon dioxide} + \text{water} C6H12O6+6O2→6CO2+6H2OC_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightarrow 6CO_2 + 6H_2O 

93) Which of the following processes is used by organisms to get energy from food?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

94) In plant cells, glucose reacts with oxygen to form…

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) water
   c) energy
   d) all of these

95) Which of the following is/are the waste products of respiration?

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) water
   c) energy
   d) both a and b

96) Where the process of respiration takes place in the cell of organisms?

1. a) mitochondria
   b) chloroplast
   c) ribosomes
   d) nucleus

97) Plant cells respire…

1. a) during the daytime
   b) during the night time
   c) during dawn and dusk time
   d) all the time

98) When plants get oxygen and give out carbon dioxide?

1. a) during the daytime
   b) during the night time
   c) never get oxygen
   d) all the time

99) Respiration occurs in…

1. a) animals
   b) plants
   c) fungi
   d) all of these

100) Photosynthesis occurs in…

1. a) animals
   b) fungi
   c) green parts of plants
   d) all of these

101) Which of the following is/are reactant/s in the process of respiration?

1. a) oxygen
   b) food
   c) water
   d) both a and b

102) Which of the following is/are reactant/s in the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) food
   c) water
   d) both a and c

103) Which of the following is/are product/s in the process of respiration?

1. a) carbon dioxide
   b) water
   c) oxygen
   d) both a and b

104) Which of the following is/are product/s in the process of photosynthesis?

1. a) oxygen
   b) food
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) both a and b

105) In which of the following energy is released?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

106) In which of the following energy is absorbed?

1. a) evaporation
   b) photosynthesis
   c) transpiration
   d) respiration

Exercise:

107) The root system which can get water from deep underground sources is…

1. a) fibrous root
   b) tap roots
   c) storage roots
   d) root nodules

108) Which of the following is not an organ of a plant?

1. a) epidermis
   b) root
   c) stem
   d) leaf

109) Vascular bundles are present in every part of the plant. They are made up of…

1. a) xylem only
   b) phloem only
   c) xylem and phloem
   d) xylem, phloem, and root hair cells

110) Amna liked to grow plants on her terrace. The plants were getting light and water every day but they were not growing properly. What suggestion can you give her to improve plant growth?

1. a) add sugar to plant pots
   b) give water once a week
   c) add compost fertilizer to plant pots
   d) shift them indoor

111) If water available to plants becomes less, then stomata are closed even at daytime. This protects plants from…

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) respiration
   c) transport of water
   d) wilting

112) The protective around plant part is…

1. a) epidermis
   b) cortex
   c) vascular bundles
   d) mesophyll

113) If the concentration of carbon dioxide increases in the air during daytime the process of…

1. a) photosynthesis will decrease
   b) respiration will decrease
   c) photosynthesis will increase
   d) respiration will increase

114) Plants perform respiration all the time. The purpose of respiration in plants is to…

1. a) prepare food
   b) release energy
   c) absorb energy
   d) maintain healthy growth

115) If you stay under trees at night, you can feel dizziness due to…

1. a) high level of oxygen and low level of carbon dioxide
   b) low level of oxygen and high level of carbon dioxide
   c) poisonous gases released by trees
   d) ghosts living in trees

116) Which of the following is the correct word equation for respiration?

1. a) Carbon Dioxide + Water → Glucose + Oxygen
   b) Carbon Dioxide + Water + Sunlight → Glucose + Oxygen
   c) Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water
   d) Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy

Unit No: 02

Respiratory and Circulatory

 

The circulatory and respiratory systems work together to circulate blood and oxygen throughout the body. Air moves in and out of the lungs through the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. Blood moves in and out of the lungs through the pulmonary arteries and veins that connect to the heart.

 

1) Which of the following is required for doing different functions?

1. a) water
   b) oxygen
   c) energy
   d) food

Explanation: Energy, in physics, is the capacity for doing work. It may exist in potential, kinetic, thermal, electrical, chemical, nuclear, or other various forms. There are, moreover, heat and work i.e., energy in the process of transfer from one body to another.

2) In case of us, from where does the energy to perform all the body functions?

1. a) from water we drink
   b) from sun
   c) from food we eat
   d) from soil

3) The food we eat is broken down and converted into smaller molecules of……

1. a) glucose
   b) glycogen
   c) starch
   d) chitin

Explanation: Glucose comes from the Greek word for “sweet.” It’s a type of sugar you get from foods you eat, and your body uses it for energy. As it travels through your bloodstream to your cells, it’s called blood glucose or blood sugar. Insulin is a hormone that moves glucose from your blood into the cells for energy and storage.

4) Which of the following is/are the major source of energy for the cell?

1. a) water
   b) glucose
   c) proteins
   d) all of these

5) Which of the following process is involved in the release of energy from food?

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) combustion
   c) cellular respiration
   d) rusting

Explanation: Cellular respiration is a series of chemical reactions that break down glucose to produce ATP, which may be used as energy to power many reactions throughout the body. There are three main steps of cellular respiration: glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation.

6) Cellular respiration is a series of……reactions which slowly releases energy stored in the food?

1. a) chemical
   b) physical
   c) nuclear
   d) volcanic

7) Which of the following is essential for the survival of a living thing?

1. a) cellular respiration
   b) playing
   c) combustion
   d) rusting

8) Which of the following reactions take place continuously throughout life?

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) combustion
   c) cellular respiration
   d) excretion

Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration:

Living organisms use energy released by respiration for their life processes. There are two types of respiration aerobic (which needs oxygen) and anaerobic (which doesn’t need oxygen).

9) How many types of cellular respiration are there?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:

1. Aerobic respiration (oxygen is required).
2. Anaerobic respiration (oxygen is not needed).

10) Which of the following gas is involved in cellular respiration?

1. a) carbon monoxide
   b) nitrogen
   c) oxygen
   d) ammonia

11) If the cellular respiration takes place in the presence of oxygen, it is called…….

1. a) cellular respiration
   b) aerobic respiration
   c) anaerobic respiration
   d) fermentation

12) Where the aerobic respiration is completed?

1. a) cytoplasm
   b) nucleus
   c) mitochondria
   d) ribosomes

![Mitochondria Diagram]

13) How much energy is released from food during aerobic respiration?

1. a) small amount
   b) very small
   c) large amount of energy
   d) no energy

Explanation: The source of the energy required to regenerate ATP is the chemical energy stored in food (e.g. glucose). The cellular process of releasing energy from food through a series of enzyme-controlled reactions is called respiration. Some of the energy released is used to produce ATP.

14) Which of the following is/are the waste product of aerobic respiration?

1. a) water
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) oxygen
   d) both a and b

15) If the cellular respiration takes place in the absence of oxygen, it is called…….

1. a) cellular respiration
   b) aerobic respiration
   c) anaerobic respiration
   d) none of these

16) How much energy is released from food during anaerobic respiration?

1. a) small amount
   b) very small
   c) large amount of energy
   d) no energy

17) Which of the following is/are the waste product of aerobic respiration?

1. a) lactic acid
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these

18) How many ATP molecules are produced during aerobic respiration?

1. a) 2
   b) 10
   c) 18
   d) 36

19) How many ATP molecules are produced during anaerobic respiration?

1. a) 2
   b) 10
   c) 18
   d) 36

 

Human Respiratory System:

The respiratory system is the network of organs and tissues that help you breathe. It includes your airways, lungs, and blood vessels. The muscles that power your lungs are also part of the respiratory system. These parts work together to move oxygen throughout the body and clean out waste gases like carbon dioxide.

![Human Respiratory System Diagram]

20) Which of the following process helps in the process of breathing and exchange of gases?

1. a) photosynthesis
   b) excretion
   c) respiration
   d) reproduction

21) Which of the following constitutes the human respiratory system?

1. a) air passageway
   b) lungs
   c) gut
   d) both a and b

22) Air enters in the nasal cavity through which of the following structure?

1. a) ear
   b) nostrils
   c) mouth
   d) eyes

23) Which of the following action/s is/are performed with air in the nasal cavity?

1. a) clean
   b) warm
   c) moist
   d) all of these

24) From nasal cavity to the trachea, the air passes through which of the following structure?

1. a) larynx
   b) mouth
   c) gut
   d) oesophagus

Explanation: Your larynx is part of your respiratory system. It’s a hollow tube that lets air pass through while keeping food and drink from blocking the airway.

 

25) Which of the following is also known as windpipe?

1. a) trachea
   b) mouth
   c) gut
   d) oesophagus

26) Trachea is divided into how many branches?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: Trachea is divided into two bronchi which enter into each lung.

27) Trachea is divided in which of the following structures?

1. a) bronchi
   b) lungs
   c) bronchioles
   d) oesophagus

Explanation: Your bronchi (BRAWN-kai) are the large tubes that connect to your trachea (windpipe) and direct the air you breathe to your right and left lungs. They are in your chest. Bronchi is the plural form of bronchus.

• The left bronchus carries air to your left lung.
• The right bronchus carries air to your right lung.

28) Inside the lungs, the bronchi are divided into…

1. a) alveoli
   b) larynx
   c) bronchioles
   d) oesophagus

29) Bronchioles end at tiny thin-walled air sacs called……

1. a) alveoli
   b) larynx
   c) nephrons
   d) villi

Explanation: Tiny air sacs at the end of the bronchioles (tiny branches of air tubes in the lungs). The alveoli are where the lungs and the blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of breathing in and breathing out.

30) In which part of the following, the gaseous exchange takes place?

1. a) alveoli
   b) larynx
   c) bronchi
   d) villi

31) Exchange of gases takes place inside lungs at alveoli between air and ……..

1. a) food
   b) plasma
   c) blood
   d) urine

Explanation: During gas exchange, oxygen moves from the lungs to the bloodstream. At the same time, carbon dioxide passes from the blood to the lungs. This happens in the lungs between the alveoli and a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are located in the walls of the alveoli.

32) Which of the following is like a huge spongy organ as it contains millions of alveoli?

1. a) brain
   b) stomach
   c) kidney
   d) lungs

Explanation: The lungs are the primary organs of the respiratory system in humans and most other animals, including some snails and a small number of fish. In mammals and most other vertebrates, two lungs are located near the backbone on either side of the heart. Their function in the respiratory system is to extract oxygen from the air and transfer it into the bloodstream and to release carbon dioxide from the bloodstream into the atmosphere, in a process of gas exchange.

 

33) How many alveoli are present in each lung?

1. a) hundreds
   b) thousands
   c) millions
   d) billions

Explanation: There are about 300 million alveoli in both lungs, which increase the surface area for the exchange of respiratory gases.

Exchange of Gases:

During gas exchange, oxygen moves from the lungs to the bloodstream. At the same time, carbon dioxide passes from the blood to the lungs. This happens in the lungs between the alveoli and a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are located in the walls of the alveoli.

34) Which of the following gas/es is/are inhaled from air and diffuses to the blood capillaries?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) hydrogen

35) When oxygen is diffused from inhaled air into the blood, the blood becomes……

1. a) oxygenated
   b) deoxygenated
   c) poisonous
   d) health

36) Which of the following is the waste product of cellular respiration?

1. a) oxygen
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) nitrogen
   d) hydrogen

37) From where the carbon dioxide is added into the blood?

1. a) lungs
   b) kidney
   c) whole body cells
   d) liver

38) When carbon dioxide is diffused from body cells into the blood and oxygen is removed, the blood becomes……

1. a) oxygenated
   b) deoxygenated
   c) poisonous
   d) health

39) The deoxygenated blood is reached to……

1. a) lungs
   b) kidney
   c) whole body cells
   d) liver

40) Which of the following gas is diffused from blood capillaries into the alveolar air?

1. a) oxygen
   b) nitrogen
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) hydrogen

41) Which of the following gas is breathed out of the body?

1. a) oxygen
   b) methane
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) hydrogen

42) Why alveoli are a perfect respiratory surface? It is because they are……

1. a) thin-walled
   b) have a large surface area
   c) are moist
   d) all of these

43) Why alveoli are a perfect respiratory surface? It is because they are……

1. a) are surrounded by blood capillaries
   b) have a large surface area
   c) have a supply of fresh air
   d) all of these

44) If all the alveoli of your lungs are flattened and put together, their surface area will be equal to the size of……

1. a) table tennis
   b) tennis court
   c) football ground
   d) cricket ground

Explanation: Your lungs are one of the largest organs in your body. The surface area of both lungs is roughly the same size as a tennis court, and the total length of the airways running through them is 1,500 miles.

Breathing:

Breathing (or ventilation) is the process of moving air into and from the lungs to facilitate gas exchange with the internal environment, mostly to flush out carbon dioxide and bring in oxygen.

45) Breathing is simply the……

1. a) the production of energy
   b) gaseous exchange

 

46) Breathing is ______ process.

1. a) physical
   b) chemical
   c) nuclear
   d) fermentation

47) Breathing is at ______ level.

1. a) cellular
   b) tissue
   c) organ
   d) organism

48) Respiration is at ______ level.

1. a) cellular
   b) tissue
   c) organ
   d) organism

49) Which of the following expands or compresses the lungs as the lungs cannot move on their own?

1. a) muscles around lungs
   b) diaphragm
   c) kidneys and liver
   d) both a and b

Explanation: The diaphragm is a thin skeletal muscle that sits at the base of the chest and separates the abdomen from the chest. It contracts and flattens when you inhale. This creates a vacuum effect that pulls air into the lungs. When you exhale, the diaphragm relaxes, and the air is pushed out of the lungs.

50) When the lungs expand, the air moves in. What is this?

1. a) inhalation
   b) inspiration
   c) expiration
   d) both a and b

51) When the lungs compress, the air moves out. What is this?

1. a) inhalation
   b) exhalation
   c) expiration
   d) both b and c

Difference Between Breathing and Respiration:

As stated above, breathing is the biological process of inhaling and exhaling gases between the cells and the environment. The mechanism of breathing involves various respiratory structures such as the windpipe, lungs, and nose.
On the other hand, respiration is a chemical process that takes place in the cell.

52) Which of the following is a physical process involving exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?

1. a) breathing
   b) respiration
   c) filtration
   d) inhalation

53) Which of the following is a biochemical process involving reaction of glucose with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water?

1. a) breathing
   b) respiration
   c) filtration
   d) inhalation

54) Which of the following is true about breathing?

1. a) energy is released
   b) it takes place within a cell
   c) energy is not released
   d) enzymes are involved

55) Which of the following is NOT true about respiration?

1. a) it takes place outside the cells
   b) it takes place within a cell
   c) energy is not released
   d) both a and c

56) Which of the following is NOT true about respiration?

1. a) it is a biochemical process
   b) it takes place within a cell
   c) energy is released
   d) enzymes are not involved

 

Circulatory System:

The circulatory system is made up of blood vessels that carry blood away from and towards the heart.

• Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
• Veins carry blood back to the heart.
• The circulatory system carries oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to cells and removes waste products, like carbon dioxide.

57) Which of the following system is responsible to transport food to the organs and takes away wastes?

1. a) excretory system
   b) respiratory system
   c) circulatory system
   d) digestive system

 

59) The system which moves blood throughout the body is called:

1. a) circulatory system
   b) respiratory system
   c) excretory system
   d) digestive system

60) Which of the following is/are included in the circulatory system?

1. a) blood
   b) blood vessels
   c) heart
   d) all of these

61) The blood circulates in your body through:

1. a) lymph nodes
   b) blood vessels
   c) nerves
   d) nephrons

62) Which of the following are transported by the blood?

1. a) gases
   b) nutrients
   c) wastes
   d) all of these

63) Which of the following is the pumping organ for blood?

1. a) lungs
   b) kidney
   c) liver
   d) heart

Blood:

Your blood is made up of liquid and solids. The liquid part, called plasma, is made of water, salts, and protein. Over half of your blood is plasma.
The solid part of your blood contains red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.

• Red blood cells (RBCs) deliver oxygen from your lungs to your tissues and organs.

64) The blood is a/an:

1. a) organ
   b) tissue
   c) cell
   d) system

65) The blood consists of ______ components.

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Plasma
2. Blood cells

66) Which of the following makes up most of the blood?

1. a) plasma
   b) platelets
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

Explanation: Plasma, also known as blood plasma, appears light-yellowish or straw-colored. It serves as the liquid base for whole blood. Whole blood minus erythrocytes (RBCs), leukocytes (WBCs), and thrombocytes (platelets) make up the plasma.

67) Which of the following is the liquid portion of the blood?

1. a) plasma
   b) platelets
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

68) What is the color of plasma when it is separated from whole blood by standing in a test tube?

1. a) white
   b) pale yellow
   c) green
   d) red

69) Which of the following is/are carried by the plasma of blood?

1. a) water and chemicals
   b) nutrients
   c) gases and wastes
   d) all of these

70) Which of the following chemicals are transported by the blood plasma?

1. a) hormones
   b) ions
   c) acids
   d) both a and b

71) Blood cells are of ______ types.

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Red blood cells (RBCs)
2. White blood cells (WBCs)
3. Platelets

 

73) The percentage of plasma in blood is:

1. a) 55
   b) 1
   c) 44
   d) none of these

74) The percentage of WBCs and platelets in blood is:

1. a) 55
   b) 1
   c) 44
   d) none of these

75) The percentage of RBCs in blood is:

1. a) 55
   b) 1
   c) 44
   d) none of these

Diagram of blood composition:

• 55% Plasma
• 1% White blood cells and platelets
• 44% Red blood cells

76) Which of the following cells are disc-shaped with a depression on each side (biconcave)?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) none of these

Explanation: Red blood cells, also referred to as erythrocytes, are the most common type of blood cell and the vertebrate’s principal means of delivering oxygen to body tissues via blood flow through the circulatory system.

77) Which of the following cells contain red hemoglobin?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) none of these

78) Which of the following carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs

79) Anemia is a disease caused by:

1. a) less number of RBCs
   b) low quantity of hemoglobin
   c) less number of WBCs
   d) both a and b

Explanation: Anemia is a condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body’s tissues. Having anemia, also referred to as low hemoglobin, can make you feel tired and weak. There are many forms of anemia, each with its own cause.

80) Which of the following have an irregular shape and are the smallest type of cells?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) plasma

Explanation: Platelets, or thrombocytes, are small, colorless cell fragments in our blood that form clots and stop or prevent bleeding. Platelets are made in bone marrow, the sponge-like tissue inside our bones. Bone marrow contains stem cells that develop into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

Diagram of platelets (Thrombocytes) – Definition, Structure, Immunity, Functions.

81) Which of the following is/are responsible for blood clotting?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) plasma

82) Which disease reduces the number of platelets in a patient’s blood?

1. a) malaria
   b) TB
   c) AIDS
   d) Dengue fever

Explanation: Dengue fever (pronounced DEN-gee) is a painful, debilitating mosquito-borne disease caused by any one of four closely related dengue viruses.

83) Which of the following cells are of different types, sizes, and shapes?

1. a) platelets
   b) plasma
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

Explanation: White blood cells (WBCs) are part of the body’s immune system. They help the body fight infection and other diseases. Types of white blood cells include granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes.

 

84) Which of the following cells protect your body from germs and harmful things?

1. a) platelets
   b) plasma
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

85) Which of the following cells make the immune system?

1. a) platelets
   b) plasma
   c) WBCs
   d) RBCs

86) Which of the following diseases attacks WBCs in the blood of a patient?

1. a) malaria
   b) TB
   c) AIDS
   d) Dengue fever

Explanation: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging your immune system, HIV interferes with your body’s ability to fight infection and disease.

87) In which disease does the immune system of a patient fail to fight against disease-causing germs?

1. a) malaria
   b) TB
   c) AIDS
   d) Dengue fever

Blood Vessels

Capillaries

There are three kinds of blood vessels:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

Each of these plays a very specific role in the circulation process.

• Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
• They are tough on the outside but contain a smooth inner layer of epithelial cells that allow blood to flow easily.

88) Why is the blood circulatory system called a closed circulatory system?

1. a) Blood is always confined in blood vessels
   b) Blood is always present in tissues
   c) Blood is present in lungs
   d) All of these

89) How many types of blood vessels are present in the human blood circulatory system?

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

90) Which of the following blood vessels carry blood away from the heart to the rest of the body?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

Explanation: Arteries are part of your circulatory (cardiovascular) system. They are the blood vessels that bring oxygen-rich blood from your heart to all of your body’s cells. They play a crucial role in distributing oxygen, nutrients, and hormones throughout your body.

Diagram of an Artery

Labeled parts:

• Tunica interna (intima)
• Endothelium
• Subendothelium
• Internal elastic lamina
• Smooth muscle
• External elastic lamina
• Tunica externa (adventitia)

91) Which of the following blood vessels have thick elastic walls that cope with the blood pressure exerted by the heart?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

92) In which of the following vessels is the pulse produced?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

93) The heart pushes blood to the:

1. a) veins
   b) arteries
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

 

95) Which of the following arteries carry deoxygenated blood?

1. a) pulmonary artery
   b) renal artery
   c) femoral artery
   d) aorta

96) Arteries branch off into tiny microscopic vessels called……

1. a) veins
   b) venules
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

Explanation: Capillaries are delicate blood vessels that exist throughout your body. They transport blood, nutrients, and oxygen to cells in your organs and body systems. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in your vascular system.

97) Which of the following vessels are so narrow that RBCs flow through them in a single line?

1. a) veins
   b) arterioles
   c) capillaries
   d) venules

98) Which of the following blood vessels have single-cell-thick walls?

1. a) veins
   b) arterioles
   c) capillaries
   d) venules

99) Capillaries join to form the smallest……

1. a) veins
   b) arterioles
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

Explanation: Veins are blood vessels located throughout your body that collect oxygen-poor blood and return it to your heart. Veins are part of your circulatory system. They work together with other blood vessels and your heart to keep your blood moving.

100) Which of the following blood vessels carry blood towards the heart from the rest of the body?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

101) Which of the following vessels have valves which prevent the backflow of blood?

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

102) Which of the following blood vessels generally carry deoxygenated blood?

1. a) veins
   b) arteries
   c) capillaries
   d) all of these

103) Which of the following veins carry oxygenated blood?

1. a) pulmonary vein
   b) renal vein
   c) femoral vein
   d) vena cava

104) Why is blood sample taken from veins?

1. a) they are larger
   b) they have thinner walls
   c) blood flow is slower in them
   d) all of these

Heart

The heart is a muscular organ about the size of a fist, located just behind and slightly left of the breastbone.
The heart pumps blood through the network of arteries and veins called the cardiovascular system.

The heart has four chambers:

• Right atrium: Receives blood from the veins and pumps it to the right ventricle.
• Right ventricle: Receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs, where it is loaded with oxygen.
• Left atrium: Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.
• Left ventricle: The strongest chamber, pumps oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body. The left ventricle’s vigorous contractions create our blood pressure.

105) Which of the following is the muscular pump for blood?

1. a) heart
   b) lung
   c) kidney
   d) liver

106) The heart is divided into……parts.

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) many

Explanation:

1. Upper part (atria)
2. Lower part (ventricles)

 

107) The heart is divided into……chambers.

1. a) four
   b) two
   c) three
   d) many

Explanation: The heart is divided into four chambers: two atria and two ventricles.

108) Which side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood?

1. a) right side
   b) left side
   c) upper side
   d) lower side

109) Which side of the heart receives oxygenated blood?

1. a) right side
   b) left side
   c) upper side
   d) lower side

110) The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood……

1. a) from the body
   b) from the lungs
   c) from the liver only
   d) from the left side

111) The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood……

1. a) from the lungs
   b) from the body
   c) from the liver
   d) from the right side

112) The heart forces oxygenated blood from its left side to be transported……

1. a) from the body
   b) from the liver only
   c) all over the body (through arteries)
   d) from the right side

113) Muscles require more energy and oxygen during exercise because……

1. a) they consume more oxygen
   b) muscles require more energy
   c) more oxygen is needed for respiration
   d) all of these

114) What happens to your breathing rate if you start running or moving your feet?

1. a) it will stop
   b) it will remain the same
   c) it will become slower
   d) it will increase

115) The four heart valves, which keep blood moving in one direction, are……

1. a) mitral, tricuspid, pulmonary, and aortic valves
   b) lower temperature
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) none of these

116) How many times does your heart beat normally in one minute?

1. a) 30
   b) 60
   c) 80
   d) 100

117) Your body has……liters of blood.

1. a) 5-6 liters
   b) 10 liters
   c) 15 liters
   d) 20 liters

118) Your heart is made up of special muscles. What are these muscles called?

1. a) cardiac muscles
   b) skeletal muscles
   c) smooth muscles
   d) none of these

119) Which of the following muscles is cardiac, continuous, and works without getting tired?

1. a) heart muscle
   b) hand muscles
   c) leg muscles
   d) none of these

120) If you get injured, which cells of your body help in blood clotting?

1. a) platelets
   b) RBCs
   c) WBCs
   d) plasma

121) If you jam muscles or overuse your legs, your heart will respond to this challenge?

1. a) heart rate will increase
   b) heart rate will remain the same
   c) heart rate will become slower
   d) none of these

122) The heart is made up of special muscles. These are called……

1. a) smooth muscles
   b) cardiac muscles
   c) skeletal muscles
   d) voluntary muscles

123) A person affected with anemia looks pale and feels tired. His body cells are getting……

1. a) less oxygen
   b) less food
   c) less water
   d) none of these

124) A team of climbers was climbing a high mountain. When they reached up to thirty thousand feet, their breathlessness at high altitude was due to……

1. a) more oxygen
   b) less oxygen
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) none of these

125) The exchange of gases between blood and body cells takes place in the……

1. a) capillaries
   b) veins
   c) arteries
   d) nerves

126) Vessels in the body that have one-way valves to keep blood flowing in one direction are……

1. a) arteries
   b) veins
   c) capillaries
   d) nerves

 

129) Valves are found in……

1. a) arteries and vein only
   b) veins only
   c) skin and heart
   d) heart only

130) Oxygenated blood is found in two chambers of the heart……

1. a) right and left atrium
   b) left atrium and left ventricle
   c) right and left ventricle
   d) right atrium and right ventricle

131) Which component of the blood is liquid?

1. a) plasma
   b) white blood cells
   c) platelets
   d) red blood cells

132) The diagram shows different types of blood cells. Which cell is filled with hemoglobin?

1. a) red blood cell
   b) white blood cell
   c) platelets
   d) none of these

133) The diagram shows blood flow through a human heart. Which chamber pumps the blood to the lungs?

1. a) A
   b) B
   c) C
   d) D

Answer Keys

The table contains the correct answers to various questions from the series. Here are the correct answers for questions 129-133 based on the table:

• 129) b
• 130) b
• 131) a
• 132) a
• 133) c

 

UNIT NO: 03

IMMUNITY AND DISEASES

Immunity to a disease is achieved through the presence of antibodies to that disease in a person’s system.
Antibodies are proteins produced by the body to neutralize or destroy toxins or disease-carrying organisms.
Antibodies are disease-specific.

Diseases and Immunity

1. The disease-causing germs are also known as:
   a) bacteria
   b) virus
   c) parasites
   d) pathogens
2. Which of the following is/are pathogen/s?
   a) bacteria
   b) virus
   c) fungi and parasites
   d) all of these
3. The disease which is caused by pathogens is called………disease.
   a) inherited disease
   b) contagious disease
   c) non-contagious disease
   d) infectious disease

Explanation: Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They’re normally harmless or even helpful. But under certain conditions, some organisms may cause disease. Some infectious diseases can be passed from person to person.

1. Ali is an anemic person. His health issue is a/an
   a) infectious disease
   b) disease due to pathogens
   c) viral attack
   d) non-infectious disease

Explanation: Non-infectious diseases are not caused by pathogens and therefore cannot be spread from one person to another. Instead, non-infectious diseases are caused by factors such as genetics, malnutrition, environment, and lifestyle. Examples of non-infectious diseases include cancer, Alzheimer’s disease, and epilepsy.

1. Which of the following is/are infectious disease/s?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) All of these
2. Which of the following is NOT an infectious disease?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia

Explanation: Anemia is a condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body’s tissues. Having anemia, also referred to as low hemoglobin, can make you feel tired and weak. There are many forms of anemia, each with its own cause.

ANEMIA

Normal vs. Anemia Symptoms (Illustration present in the image)

1. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia
2. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

1. a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia

Explanation: Ringworm is a common skin infection that is caused by a fungus. It’s called “ringworm” because it can cause a circular rash (shaped like a ring) that is usually red and itchy. Anyone can get ringworm.

1. Which of the following diseases is caused by fungi?
   a) Flu
   b) Typhoid
   c) Ringworm
   d) Anemia
2. The personal army of an organism against disease-causing pathogens is called………
   a) Circulatory system
   b) Immune system
   c) Respiratory system
   d) Reproductive system

Explanation: The immune system is a network of biological processes that protects an organism from diseases. It detects and responds to a wide variety of pathogens, from viruses to parasitic worms, as well as cancer cells and objects such as wood splinters, distinguishing them from the organism’s own healthy tissue. Many species have two major subsystems of the immune system.

1. Every day we encounter a huge number of pathogens, however, we do not fall ill every other day which is due to our……….
   a) Circulatory system
   b) Immune system
   c) Respiratory system
   d) Reproductive system
2. Which of the following is the ability of the body to resist harmful microorganisms?
   a) Immunity
   b) Susceptibility
   c) Illness
   d) Mutation

Explanation: Immunity to a disease is achieved when there are antibodies to that disease in a person’s system. There are two types of immunity: active and passive.

1. How many types of immunity are found in the human body against disease-causing microorganisms?
   a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Five

Explanation:

1. Innate Immunity
2. Adaptive Immunity
3. Active Immunity
4. Passive Immunity

Innate Immunity:

INNATE IMMUNITY, also known as nonspecific immunity, is the defense system with which you were born. It protects you against all antigens. Innate immunity involves barriers that keep harmful materials from entering your body. These barriers form the first line of defense in the immune response.

1. Innate immunity is also known as……….
   a) Nonspecific immunity
   b) Learned immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity
2. Which of the following is the natural defense of the body against any intruder?
   a) Learned immunity
   b) Innate immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity
3. Which of the following immunity acts without recognizing and differentiating the intruder?
   a) Innate immunity
   b) Learned immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity
4. How many components are there in innate immunity?
   a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Five

Explanation:

1. First line of defense
2. Second line of defense

19) The first line of defense is:

1. a) first line of defense
   b) second line of defense
   c) adaptive immunity
   d) both a and b

Explanation: The first line of defense is your innate immune system. Level one of this system consists of physical barriers like your skin and the mucosal lining in your respiratory tract. The tears, sweat, saliva, and mucous produced by the skin and mucosal lining are part of that physical barrier, too.

First Lines of Defense

• Saliva – Contains antibacterial enzymes to prevent entry
• Tears – Contain antibacterial enzymes
• Mucus linings – Trap dust and microbes
• Stomach acid – Low pH kills harmful microbes
• Good gut bacteria – Competes with bad bacteria

20) Which of the following is/are included in the first line of defense?

1. a) Skin
   b) WBCs
   c) Both a and b
   d) Mucus membrane of mouth, nose, and lungs, etc.

21) Which of the following is/are NOT included in the first line of defense?

1. a) Skin
   b) Mucus membrane
   c) WBCs
   d) All of these

22) Which of the following acts when the germs enter the body and escape from the first line of defense?

1. a) Passive immunity
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Adaptive immunity
   d) Both a and b

Second Line of Defense

Cells	Proteins	Other Responses
Monocytes & Macrophages	Interferon	Fever
Neutrophils	Anti-Microbial Peptides	Inflammation
Dendritic Cells	Iron Binding Proteins	–
Natural Killer Cells	Complement System	–
Mast Cells	–	–
Eosinophils	–	–
Basophils	A comprehensive summary of 10 minutes	–

23) Which of the following is/are included in the second line of defense?

1. a) Chemicals
   b) Fever
   c) WBCs
   d) All of these

24) Which of the following is/are NOT included in the second line of defense?

1. a) Mucous membrane
   b) Skin
   c) WBCs
   d) Both a and b

25) How does the second line of defense work?

1. a) It stops the entry of germs
   b) Kills germs and protects the body
   c) Forms antibodies
   d) All of these

26) Which of the following involves eating the germ cells?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Adaptive immunity
   d) Both a and b

Explanation: The second line of defense is a nonspecific resistance that destroys invaders in a generalized way without targeting specific individuals. Phagocytic cells ingest and destroy all microbes that pass into body tissues. For example, macrophages are cells derived from monocytes (a type of white blood cell).

27) Face masks, gloves, and sanitizer help with which of the following types of immunity?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Adaptive immunity
   d) Passive immunity

Adaptive Immunity

Innate Immunity vs. Adaptive Immunity

• Innate Immunity: Includes fever, macrophages, epithelial cells, etc.
• Adaptive Immunity: Includes dendritic cells, T-helper cells, plasma cells, etc.

Adaptive immune responses are the basis for effective immunization against infectious diseases. The cells of the adaptive immune system include antigen-specific T cells, which are activated to proliferate through the action of APCs, and B cells, which differentiate into plasma cells to produce antibodies.

28) Adaptive immunity is also known as:

1. a) Nonspecific immunity
   b) Learned immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

30) Which of the following line of defense identifies the germs and starts making special types of WBCs?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Third line of defense
   d) Passive immunity

Explanation: The third line of defense is immune cells that target specific antigens. The immune cells that play a role in the third line of defense are B-cells and T-cells, both of which are white blood cells. The B-cells produce antibodies, while the T-cells help identify pathogenic cells and destroy targeted cells.

31) How does adaptive immunity or the third line of defense work?

1. a) It identifies the germ cells
   b) It makes special WBCs against germs
   c) It stops the entry of germs
   d) Both a and b

32) Which of the following is/are made by the third line of defense against germs?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Both a and b
   d) None of these

Explanation: T cells are one of the important white blood cells of the immune system and play a central role in the adaptive immune response. T cells can be distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of a T-cell receptor (TCR) on their cell surface. T cells are born from hematopoietic stem cells, found in the bone marrow.

Explanation: B cells are a type of lymphocyte responsible for the humoral immunity component of the adaptive immune system. These white blood cells produce antibodies, which play a key role in immunity. Each B cell contains a single round nucleus.

33) Which of the following attack/s invaders outside the body?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Both a and b
   d) None of these

B cell (B lymphocyte)

Definition, Types, Development, Applications

34) Which of the following attack/s invaders inside the body?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Both a and b
   d) None of these

35) Which of the following kill virus-infected cells and activate other cells of the immune system to fight the germs?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Monocytes
   d) Neutrophils

36) Which of the following start making antibodies after activation?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Monocytes
   d) Neutrophils

37) Antibodies are __________ in nature?

1. a) Proteins
   b) Carbohydrates
   c) Vitamins
   d) Fats

Antibody: Structure, Classes, and Functions

Explanation: An antibody is a protein component of the immune system that circulates in the blood, recognizes foreign substances like bacteria and viruses, and neutralizes them.

38) Which of the following function/s is/are performed by an antibody?

1. a) It recognizes the germ
   b) It kills the germs
   c) It stops the entry of germs
   d) Both a and b

39) When do we become immune to a disease caused by bacteria and viruses?

1. a) When the body produces T cells
   b) When the skin stops the entry of pathogens
   c) When the body produces antibodies
   d) All of these

40) The way the body defends itself against harmful or foreign substances is called:

1. a) Reaction
   b) Immune response
   c) Allergic response
   d) None of these

Mechanism of Antibody Formation:

Antibody Production

Antibodies are produced by specialized white blood cells called B lymphocytes (or B cells). When an antigen binds to the B-cell surface, it stimulates the B cell to divide and mature into a group of identical cells called a clone.

42) How many ways does your body start the formation of antibodies?

1. a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Five

Explanation: 1. When you get a disease, or 2. When you get vaccinated.

43) When does your body start making antibodies against disease-causing agents?

1. a) When you get a disease
   b) When you are vaccinated
   c) When you start exercising
   d) Both a and b

44) Which of the following is required by your body to start the formation of antibodies?

1. a) Exposure to pathogen
   b) Use of medicine
   c) Eating of meal
   d) All of these

45) Which of the following work/s by training the immune system to recognize and fight pathogens?

1. a) Antibiotic
   b) Antiviral
   c) Vaccine
   d) All of these

Explanation: A vaccine is a biological preparation that provides active acquired immunity to a particular infectious disease. A vaccine typically contains an agent that resembles a disease-causing microorganism and is often made from weakened or killed forms of the microbe, its toxins, or one of its surface proteins. The agent stimulates the body’s immune system to recognize the agent as a threat, destroy it, and to further recognize and destroy any of the microorganisms associated with that agent that it may encounter in the future.

46) Which of the following vaccine/s is/are oral vaccine/s?

1. a) Polio vaccine
   b) COVID-19 vaccine
   c) Measles vaccine
   d) Both b and c

47) Which of the following vaccine/s is/are injection form vaccine/s?

1. a) Polio vaccine
   b) COVID-19 vaccine
   c) Measles vaccine
   d) Both b and c

48) Which of the following form memory?

1. a) T cells
   b) B cells
   c) Monocytes
   d) Both a and b

49) Which of the following trigger an immune system of the body?

1. a) Antibiotic
   b) Antiviral
   c) Vaccine
   d) All of these

Passive Immunity:

Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. A newborn baby acquires passive immunity from its mother through the placenta.

50) Sometimes already prepared antibodies are used to protect you against a pathogen or toxin that harms your body very quickly. Which type of immunity is this?

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

51) When a snake bites a person, already prepared antibodies against snake venom are injected. Which type of immunity is this?

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

52) Which of the following is short-lived immunity?

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Acquired immunity

54) Before a child is born, antibodies are passed through _______ from mother to fetus?

1. a) Blood
   b) Placenta
   c) Arteries
   d) Hormones

55) After birth, the young baby receives antibodies from his/her mother through?

1. a) Blood
   b) Breast milk
   c) Arteries
   d) Food

56) Snake bite is a very serious threat to health and life of a person. If a snake bites a person, the only way to save him is by providing _______.

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Learned immunity

57) Immunity gained by a person from his/her mother through placenta or breast milk is called:

1. a) Passive immunity
   b) Paternal passive immunity
   c) Maternal passive immunity
   d) Natural passive immunity

Ways to Boost Your Immunity:

• Eat Well.
• Food Assistance.
• Be Physically Active. Regular physical activity helps you feel better, sleep better, and reduce anxiety.
• Maintain a Healthy Weight. Excess weight can affect how your body functions.
• Get Enough Sleep.
• Quit Smoking.
• Avoid Too Much Alcohol.

58) Which of the following ways is/are helpful in boosting your immune system?

1. a) Eat lots of fruits and vegetables
   b) Exercise regularly and maintain a healthy weight
   c) Drink plenty of water
   d) All of these

59) Which of the following ways is/are helpful in boosting your immune system?

1. a) Get good night’s sleep
   b) Stay hopeful and happy
   c) Wash your hands
   d) All of these

60) Which of the following ways is/are helpful in boosting your immune system?

1. a) Avoid fried food & sugar
   b) Avoid smoking
   c) Get recommended vaccination
   d) All of these

Infectious Diseases:

Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. Many organisms live in and on our bodies. They’re normally harmless or even helpful. But under certain conditions, some organisms may cause disease.

61) Which of the following diseases are commonly spread through the direct transfer of bacteria?

1. a) Inherited diseases
   b) Non-contagious diseases
   c) Infectious diseases
   d) None of these

62) Germs from one person to another person are spread through _______.

1. a) The air droplets
   b) Faecal-oral spread and direct contact through skin
   c) Blood or body fluids
   d) All of these

63) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) COVID-19
   b) Anemia
   c) Typhoid
   d) TB

COVID-19

CORONAVIRUS DISEASE 2019

64) Which of the following is the causative agent of COVID-19 disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Protist
   c) COVID-19 virus
   d) HIV

65) Which of the following is/are slight symptoms of COVID-19 disease?

1. a) Fever
   b) Cough and cold
   c) Body fatigue
   d) All of these

66) Which of the following is/are severe symptoms of COVID-19 disease?

1. a) Respiratory difficulty
   b) Pneumonia
   c) Kidney failure
   d) All of these

67) COVID-19 spreads through _______.

1. a) Direct contact
   b) Breath droplet and coughing
   c) Sneezing
   d) All of these

68) From where is a diagnostic test sample for COVID-19 taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) All of these

69) How can we prevent ourselves from COVID-19?

1. a) Vaccination
   b) Social distancing
   c) Face mask
   d) All of these

70) How can we prevent ourselves from COVID-19?

1. a) Use of sanitizer
   b) Washing hands with soap often
   c) Avoid crowded places
   d) All of these

71) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) Dengue
   b) Anemia
   c) Typhoid
   d) TB

72) Which of the following is the causative agent of Dengue disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Dengue virus
   c) COVID-19 virus
   d) HIV

73) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Dengue?

1. a) High-grade fever
   b) Severe headache
   c) Pain behind eyes
   d) All of these

74) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Dengue?

1. a) Vomiting
   b) Nausea
   c) Skin rash and body pain
   d) All of these

75) COVID-19 spreads through _______.

1. a) Direct contact
   b) Breath droplet and coughing
   c) Sneezing
   d) Bite of Aedes mosquito

76) From where is a diagnostic test sample for Dengue taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) Blood

77) How can we prevent ourselves from Dengue?

1. a) Use of mosquito repellent
   b) Wear fully covered clothes
   c) Drain all standing water
   d) All of these

78) How can we prevent ourselves from Dengue?

1. a) Use of sanitizer
   b) Washing hands with soap often
   c) Avoid crowded places
   d) None of these

79) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) Hepatitis-B
   b) TB
   c) Anemia

Explanation: Hepatitis B is an infectious disease caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV) that affects the liver. It is a type of viral hepatitis. It can cause both acute and chronic infection.

80) Which of the following is the causative agent of Hepatitis-B disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Dengue virus
   c) HBV
   d) HIV

81) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Hepatitis-B?

1. a) Low-grade fever
   b) Loss of hunger
   c) Nausea
   d) All of these

82) Which of the following is/are symptoms of Hepatitis-B?

1. a) Vomiting
   b) Stomach pain
   c) Weakness
   d) All of these

83) Hepatitis-B spreads through _______.

1. a) Blood and body fluid
   b) Multiple use of syringes, needles, and razors
   c) Transfusion of blood
   d) All of these

84) From where is a diagnostic test sample for Hepatitis-B taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) Blood

85) How can we prevent ourselves from Hepatitis-B?

1. a) Single use of disposable syringes
   b) Proper disinfection of dental and surgical instruments
   c) Screening before blood donation
   d) All of these

86) Which of the following is a viral disease?

1. a) Hepatitis-B
   b) Dengue
   c) Typhoid
   d) COVID-19

87) Which of the following is the causative agent of typhoid disease?

1. a) Salmonella
   b) Dengue virus
   c) HBV
   d) HIV

Explanation: Salmonella is a genus of rod-shaped Gram-negative bacteria of the family Enterobacteriaceae. The two species of Salmonella are Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori. S. enterica is the type species and is further divided into six subspecies that include over 2,600 serotypes.

88) Which of the following is/are symptoms of typhoid?

1. a) High-grade fever
   b) Headache
   c) Stomach pain
   d) All of these

89) Which of the following is/are symptoms of typhoid?

1. a) Dizziness
   b) Loss of hunger
   c) Weakness
   d) All of these

90) Typhoid spreads through _______.

1. a) Faecal-oral route
   b) Ingestion of food/drinks contaminated with faeces/urine of typhoid patient
   c) Transfusion of blood
   d) Both a and b

91) From where is a diagnostic test sample for typhoid taken?

1. a) Nose
   b) Throat
   c) Saliva
   d) Blood

92) How can we prevent ourselves from typhoid?

1. a) Vaccination
   b) Wash hands properly after using toilet and before handling food
   c) Eat freshly prepared and properly cooked food and drink boiled/bottled water
   d) All of these

Exercise

93) When the skin is damaged, bacteria enter our body. Which line of defense is crossed by these bacteria?

1. a) First line of defense
   b) Second line of defense
   c) Third line of defense
   d) Fourth line of defense

94) A newborn baby has less immunity as compared to other people. The baby has only:

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Innate and passive immunity

95) The army of your body has special bullets which can identify the enemy and kill it. These bullets are small proteins called:

1. a) Pathogens
   b) Antibodies
   c) Bacteria
   d) Virus

96) The third line of defense learns about the enemy and adapts accordingly. It is also called:

1. a) Adaptive/Learned immunity
   b) Innate immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Natural immunity

97) Benish is allergic to dust and pollen. Her health issue is a/an:

1. a) Infectious disease
   b) Disease due to pathogens
   c) Viral attack
   d) Non-infectious disease

98) Rabies is a very serious threat to health and life of a person. If a rabies-infected dog bites a person, the only way to save him is by providing:

1. a) Innate immunity
   b) Adaptive immunity
   c) Passive immunity
   d) Learned immunity

99) Maximum number of additional defense layers is required for:

1. a) Medical staff
   b) Teachers
   c) Students
   d) Lawyers

100) Typhoid and Polio spread by the faecal-oral route. If we want to prevent such diseases in our area we should:

1. a) Control mosquitoes
   b) Control air pollution
   c) Improve hospitals
   d) Improve sanitation and hygiene condition

101) Respiratory system-related diseases mostly spread through:

1. a) Water
   b) Food
   c) Blood
   d) Droplets in air

102) Which of these can provide you with long-term immunity against infectious diseases?

1. a) Antibiotics
   b) Vitamins
   c) Red Blood Cells
   d) Vaccines

Answer Keys

1	2	3		4	5		6		7	8			9		10		11				12		13		14			15		16
d	d	d		d	d		d		a	b			c		b		b				a		b		a			b		a
17	18	19		20		21		22			23			24		25		26		27		28		29			30		31		32
a	a	c		–		c		b			d			d		b		b		a		b		b			c		a		d
33	34	35		36		37		38			39			40		41		42		43		44		45			46		47		48
c	b	a		a		b		a			d			c		b		a		d		a		c			a		d		d
49	50	51		52		53		54			55			56		57		58		59		60		61			62		63		64
c	c	c		c		b		b			b			c		e		d		d		d		c			d		a		c
65	66	67		68		69		70			71			72		73		74		75		76		77			78		79		80
d	d	d		d		d		d			a			d		d		d		d		d		d			d		a		c
81	82	83		84		85		86			87			88		89		90		91		92		93			94		95		96
d	d	d		d		d		c			a			d		d		d		d		a		d			b		a
97			98				99					100							101							102
d			c				a					d							d							d

UNIT NO: 04

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

 

In a physical change, the nature of the substance, the particles of which it is composed, and the number of particles remain unchanged. In a chemical change, the properties of the new substances are different from the original, the particles are different, and the number of particles can change.

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGE

(An image of ice melting and iron rusting is shown as an example of physical and chemical changes.)

1) The universe is made up of:

1. a) Matter
   b) Energy
   c) Things
   d) Light

2) There exist ______ types of changes in matter?

1. a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Six

Explanation:

1. Physical change
2. Chemical change

3) Which of the following change(s) take/s place in matter?

1. a) Physical change
   b) Chemical change
   c) Biological change
   d) Both a and b

Physical Changes:

Physical changes are changes affecting the form of a chemical substance but not its chemical composition.
Physical changes are used to separate mixtures into their component compounds, but they cannot usually be used to separate compounds into chemical elements or simpler compounds.

Examples of Physical and Chemical Change:

Physical Change	Chemical Change
H₂O (Ice → Water)	Iron → Rust (Iron Hydroxides)

4) Which of the following is/are example/s of physical changes?

1. a) Chopping of wood
   b) Burning of paper
   c) Melting of ice
   d) Both a and c

5) New substances are NOT formed in which of the following changes?

1. a) Physical change
   b) Chemical change
   c) Biological change
   d) Both a and b

6) What happens to the ice when it melts?

1. a) It converts into gas (vapors)
   b) It converts into liquid water
   c) It converts into plasma
   d) All of these

7) Which of the following is/are physical change/s?

1. a) Cutting
   b) Grinding
   c) Grinding
   d) All of these

8) Which of the following is/are physical change/s?

1. a) Mixing
   b) Shredding
   c) Freezing
   d) All of these

9) Which of the following is/are physical change/s?

1. a) Breaking glass
   b) Folding paper
   c) Sublimation
   d) All of these

Explanation:

Conversion of a substance from the solid to the gaseous state without it becoming liquid. An example is the vaporization of frozen carbon dioxide (dry ice) at ordinary atmospheric pressure and temperature.

10) Which of the following is NOT an example of physical change?

1. a) Filling up a balloon with air
   b) Freezing of water
   c) Photosynthesis
   d) Boiling of water

11) Which change can easily reverse?

1. a) Chemical change
   b) Physical change
   c) Both chemical and physical changes
   d) Neither chemical nor physical change

Chemical Changes:

Chemical changes occur when a substance combines with another to form a new substance, called chemical synthesis or, alternatively, chemical decomposition into two or more different substances.

Waves and Energy
Waves carry energy. The amount of energy they carry is related to their frequency and their amplitude. The higher the frequency, the more energy, and the higher the amplitude, the more energy.

WAVES: A wave is a propagating dynamic disturbance of one or more quantities. Waves can be periodic, in which case those quantities oscillate repeatedly about an equilibrium value at some frequency.

Introduction:

1. Wave is a disturbance or vibration in a medium which transfers ______ from one place to another.
   a) force
   b) mass
   c) energy
   d) all of these
2. The to and fro motion of a body about its mean position is called ______.
   a) circulatory motion
   b) vibratory motion
   c) linear motion
   d) arbitrary motion
3. Which of the following is/are act/s as a medium for waves?
   a) water and air particles
   b) string
   c) spring
   d) all of these
4. What will happen when you drop a pebble into standing water of a pond?
   a) it will start flowing
   b) waves will produce on water surface
   c) nothing will happen
   d) all of these

Mechanical And Electromagnetic Waves:

Mechanical and electromagnetic waves can be distinguished depending on the medium. Electromagnetic waves travel without the use of a medium, whereas mechanical waves require the use of one. Mechanical waves do not travel in a vacuum, whereas electromagnetic waves do.

1. Waves can be categorized into ______ types on the basis of medium.
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) six

Explanation:

1. Mechanical waves and
2. Electromagnetic waves

1. Which of the following waves only travel through a medium?
   a) electromagnetic
   b) mechanical
   c) both of them
   d) none of them

Explanation:

Waves which propagate through a material medium (solid, liquid, or gas) at a wave speed which depends on the elastic and inertial properties of that medium.

1. Which of the following is an example of mechanical waves which can only travel through a medium?
   a) sound waves
   b) light waves
   c) water waves
   d) both a and c
2. Which of the following is an example of mechanical waves which can only travel through a medium?
   a) seismic waves
   b) infrared waves

Explanation:

Seismic waves are caused by the sudden movement of materials within the Earth, such as slip along a fault during an earthquake.

1. Which of the following waves can travel through a vacuum (without medium)?
   a) electromagnetic
   b) mechanical
   c) both of them
   d) none of them
2. Explanation: Electromagnetic radiation consists of waves of the electromagnetic field, which propagate through space and carry electromagnetic radiant energy. It includes radio waves, microwaves, infrared, light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays.
3. Which of the following waves travel with the speed of light?
   a) electromagnetic
   b) mechanical
   c) both of them
   d) none of them
4. What is the speed of electromagnetic waves in vacuum in km per second?
   a) 300
   b) 3000
   c) 30000
   d) 300000
5. Which of the following is/are example(s) of electromagnetic waves which can travel without medium (in vacuum)?
   a) sound waves
   b) light waves
   c) water waves
   d) both a and c
6. Which of the following is/are example(s) of electromagnetic waves which can travel without medium (in vacuum)?
   a) seismic waves
   b) infra-red waves
   c) microwaves
   d) both b and c
7. Which of the following is/are example(s) of electromagnetic waves which can travel without medium (in vacuum)?
   a) X-rays
   b) water waves
   c) microwaves
   d) both a and c
8. Huge explosions occur in the sun continuously. Which of the following is/are produced during these explosions?
   a) heat
   b) light
   c) sound
   d) all of these
9. Light and heat from the sun reach the earth but sound can’t. Why?
   a) light and heat need medium
   b) sound waves need medium
   c) sound waves are electromagnetic
   d) all of these

Transverse Waves and Longitudinal Waves:

Transverse waves cause the medium to move perpendicular to the direction of the wave. Longitudinal waves cause the medium to move parallel to the direction of the wave.

Longitude Wave vs Transverse Wave

1. Waves are divided into ______ types with respect to their nature?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) six

Explanation:

1. Transverse waves
2. Longitudinal waves

Transverse Waves:

A transverse wave is a wave whose oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of the wave’s advance. This is in contrast to a longitudinal wave which travels in the direction of its oscillations. Water waves are an example of a transverse wave.

19) The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate……..to the direction of wave travel is called transverse waves?
a) parallel
b) below
c) perpendicular
d) above

20) Which type of waves is/are produced in rope?
a) electromagnetic
b) transverse
c) longitudinal
d) all of these

21) Which of the following position is the crest of transverse waves?
a) parallel to the mean position
b) above the mean position
c) below the mean position
d) all of these

22) Transverse waves travel in the form of……..
a) compression and rarefaction
b) compression only
c) crest and trough
d) rarefaction only

23) Explanation: A crest point on a wave is the maximum value of upward displacement within a cycle. A crest is a point on a surface wave where the displacement of the medium is at a maximum. A trough is the opposite of a crest, so the minimum or lowest point in a cycle.

Transverse Wave
(Diagram of Transverse Wave with Crest, Trough, Amplitude, and Direction of Travel)

24) Which of the following position is the trough of transverse waves?
a) parallel to the mean position
b) above the mean position
c) below the mean position
d) all of these

25) The portion of transverse waves in which particles of the medium are above the mean position is called……..
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

26) The portion of longitudinal wave in which particles of the medium are below to the mean position is called……..
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

27) Which of the following waves are transverse waves?
a) waves in string
b) secondary waves of earthquake
c) waves in spring
d) both a and b

28) One wave cycle of transverse wave is formed by……..
a) one crest only
b) one trough only
c) one crust and one trough
d) two crest and one trough

Explanation: A wave is a disturbance in a medium that carries energy without a net movement of particles. The wavelength of a wave is called the length of one complete wave cycle. Therefore, one wavelength is referred to as a cycle of a wave.

29) The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate……..to the direction of wave travel is called longitudinal waves?
a) parallel
b) below
c) perpendicular
d) above

30) Longitudinal waves travel in the form of……..
a) compression and rarefaction
b) compression only
c) crest and trough
d) rarefaction only

Explanation: Longitudinal waves are waves in which the vibration of the medium is parallel (“along”) to the direction the wave travels and displacement of the medium is in the same (or opposite) direction of the wave propagation.

Longitudinal Wave
(Diagram of Longitudinal Wave with Compression, Rarefaction, Wavelength, and Direction of Energy Wave)

31) The portion of longitudinal wave in which particles of the medium are closed to each other is called……..
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

32) The portion of longitudinal wave in which particles of the medium are spread out is called
a) crust
b) compression
c) trough
d) rarefaction

33) Longitudinal wave is formed by……..
a) one compression only
b) one rarefaction only
c) one compression and one rarefaction

34) Which of the following waves are longitudinal waves?
a) tsunami waves
b) primary waves of earthquake
c) waves in spring
d) all of these

35) Earthquake generates……….waves.
a) transverse
b) longitudinal
c) both type
d) none of them

Explanation: When an earthquake occurs, it releases energy waves, known as Seismic waves.

Properties of Waves

36) The length of one wave cycle is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Explanation: The distance between identical points (adjacent crests) in the adjacent cycles of a waveform signal propagated in space or along a wire.

37) The distance between two consecutive crests is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency

38) The distance between two consecutive troughs is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency

39) What is the SI unit of wavelength……….
a) meter
b) second
c) hertz

40) The number of waves passing through a point in one second is called……..of the wave.
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency

Explanation: Wave frequency is the number of waves that pass a fixed point in a given amount of time. The SI unit for wave frequency is the hertz (Hz), where 1 hertz equals 1 wave passing a fixed point in 1 second.

41) What is the SI unit of frequency………
a) meter
b) second
c) hertz
d) joule

42) What is the symbol of frequency?
a) f
b) hz
c) t
d) s

43) Which of the following formula is used to calculate the frequency of wave?
a) f = v/λ
b) f = n/t
c) T = v/n
d) T = n/t

44) The time taken by a wave to pass through a point in the medium is called……..
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Explanation: T is the time it takes for one complete oscillation, it is measured in seconds.

45) What is the SI unit of time period of wave…..
a) meter
b) second
c) hertz
d) joule

46) Which of the following formula is used to calculate the frequency of wave?
a) f = v/n
b) f = n/t
c) T = v/n
d) T = n/t

47) The maximum displacement of vibrating particle of the medium from mean position when a wave is passing through it is called….
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Explanation: The amplitude of a wave refers to the maximum amount of displacement of a particle on the medium from its rest position.

48) Which of the following measures the energy carried the wave?
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

49) Greater the amplitude of the wave,……..will be the energy carried by it.

1. a) lower
   b) greater
   c) same
   d) none of these

50) Smaller the amplitude of the wave, …… will be the energy carried by it.
a) lower
b) greater
c) same
d) none of these

Relation between Frequency and Time Period of Waves

Frequency is inversely proportional to the time period.
i.e. F = 1/T

51) Frequency of a wave and its time period are……..of each other.
a) direct
b) inverse
c) independent
d) all of these

52) Greater the frequency of a wave……..will be its time period.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

53) Lower the frequency of a wave,……..will be its time period.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

54) Greater the time period of a wave……..will be its frequency.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

55) Lower the time period of a wave……..will be its frequency.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) not changing
d) independent

56) Which of the following relation between frequency and time period of a wave is/are correct?
a) f = 1/T
b) f = T
c) T = 1/f
d) both a and c

57) If waves have high frequency in a medium then it means that there are ………..number of waves or cycles in its region.
a) small
b) large
c) same
d) independent

58) If waves have low frequency in a medium then it means that there are ………..number of waves or cycles in its region.
a) small
b) large
c) same
d) independent

Relation between Amplitude and Frequency of Waves

The relationship between the wave’s amplitude and frequency is such that it is inversely proportional to the frequency. The amplitude decreases as the frequency increases.

59) Which of the following waves carry more energy?
a) greater amplitude and lower frequency
b) greater amplitude and greater frequency
c) smaller amplitude and lower frequency
d) smaller amplitude and greater frequency

60) Which of the following waves carry small energy?
a) greater amplitude and lower frequency
b) greater amplitude and greater frequency
c) smaller amplitude and lower frequency
d) smaller amplitude and greater frequency

61) Loudness of sound depends upon……..of the wave.
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

Sound Waves and its Properties

62) When the sound is produced in following cases?
a) when we beat the drum
b) when we pluck the string of guitar
c) when we hit anything
d) all of these

63) Sound is produced by……..bodies.
a) circulating
b) rotating
c) vibrating
d) all of these

64) Sound waves travel………vibrating body.
a) toward
b) away from
c) both
d) none of them

65) Sound waves are which type of the following waves?
a) transverse
b) longitudinal
c) electromagnetic
d) all of these

66) When a drummer hits the drum. What will happen to the skin of drum during the production of sound?

1. a) it will stop vibrating
   b) it will start rotating
   c) it will start vibrating
   d) all of these

67) Sound waves are reached to our ears through
a) radiations
b) air
c) vacuum
d) all of these

68) Which of the following part of body vibrating during speech?
a) tongue
b) pharynx
c) vocal cords
d) trachea

Pitch of Sound

The pitch of sound is determined by the frequency of vibration of the sound waves that produce them.

Lower Pitch – Higher Pitch

69) Who of the following have shrill sound?
a) girls
b) children
c) men
d) both a and b

70) Who of the following have grave sound?
a) girls
b) children
c) men
d) all of these

71) Why the sound of girls and children is shrill and that of males is grave?
a) they have same pitch
b) they have different pitch
c) they have different wavelength
d) they have same frequency

72) Shrill sound has ______ frequency.
a) smaller
b) greater
c) both
d) none of them

73) Grave sound has ______ frequency.
a) lower
b) greater
c) both
d) none of them

74) Which of the following tells us how shrill or grave sound is?
a) pitch
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) time period

75) Sound of the different frequencies can be distinguished by the ______ of sound.
a) amplitude
b) wavelength
c) frequency
d) pitch

76) Which of the following is/are the example/s of shrill sound/s?
a) children
b) girls
c) whistling
d) all of these

77) Which of the following is/are the example/s of shrill sound/s?
a) chirping of birds
b) male voice
c) lion’s roar
d) all of these

78) Which of the following is/are the example/s of grave sound/s?
a) chirping of birds
b) male voice
c) lion’s roar
d) both a and c

79) Which of the following is/are the example/s of grave sound/s?
a) sound of big drum
b) dog’s barking sound
c) lion’s roar
d) all of these

80) The relationship of pitch and frequency is ______.
a) direct
b) inverse
c) independent
d) variable

81) What will happen to the pitch of sound if its frequency is increased?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) none

82) What will happen to the pitch of sound if its frequency is decreased?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) none

83) Which type of sound will produce if its frequency and pitch is higher?
a) grave
b) shrill
c) low
d) high

84) Which type of sound will produce if its frequency and pitch is lower?
a) grave
b) shrill
c) low
d) high

Loudness of Sound

The loudness of a sound relates the intensity of any given sound to the intensity at the threshold of hearing. It is measured in decibels (dB).

Loudness

The loudness of a sound increases with the amplitude of the sound wave.

85) Loudness of sound is the sensation produced by sound on our ______.
a) brain
b) vocal cord
c) ear
d) skin

86) Which of the following may be different for two sounds having same pitch (frequency)?

Here is the text from the page:

87) The property of sound which helps us to distinguish between a soft sound and a louder sound is called:
a) pitch
b) shrill
c) graveness
d) loudness

88) How many factors affect the loudness of sound?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

Explanation:

1. Amplitude of the wave,
2. Surface area of sound,
3. Distance from sound source,
4. Sensitivity of ear.

89) Loudness of sound is related to which of the following factors?
a) pitch
b) frequency
c) amplitude
d) time period

90) On the basis of amplitude, how many types of sound are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

Explanation:

1. Soft sound
2. Louder sound

91) Loud sound has:
a) greater amplitude
b) greater frequency
c) lower amplitude
d) lower frequency

92) Soft sound has:
a) greater amplitude
b) greater frequency
c) lower amplitude
d) lower frequency

93) What is the relationship between loudness of sound and its amplitude?
a) direct
b) inverse
c) independent
d) variable

94) A wave with larger amplitude has ______ energy.
a) a lot
b) low
c) same
d) variable

95) A wave with smaller amplitude has had ______ energy.
a) a lot
b) low
c) same
d) variable

96) If the surface area of the sound producing body is larger, what type of sound will be produced?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

97) If the surface area of the sound producing body is smaller, what type of sound will be produced?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

98) Which type of sound will produce from beating a small drum?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

99) Which type of sound will produce from beating a large drum?
a) soft
b) loud
c) shrill
d) grave

100) If the listener is standing near a sound source, what type of sound he/she will hear?
a) soft
b) louder
c) shrill
d) grave

101) If the listener is standing away from the sound source, what type of sound he/she will hear?
a) soft
b) louder
c) shrill
d) grave

102) Loudness of sound depends upon the condition of:
a) health
b) brain
c) heart
d) ear

103) Which type of sound usually old people cannot listen?
a) soft
b) louder
c) shrill
d) grave

Some Common Phenomenon of Sound

1. ECHO

An echo is a repetition or a partial repetition of a sound due to reflection.

![Diagram of sound reflection]
“Sound reflects back”

104) When we speak in a big hall of hilly area or an empty well, we hear our own sound again and again. What is this phenomenon?
a) shrill
b) graveness
c) echo
d) loudness

105) Echo is repetition of sound due to reflection of sound waves from a:
a) soft surface
b) hard surface
c) vacuum
d) all of these

106) To hear echo, sound must reach our ear in how much time?
a) 0.001 second
b) 0.01 second
c) 0.1 second
d) 1 second

107) The feeling of original sound remains in our brain till:
a) 0.001 second
b) 0.01 second
c) 0.1 second
d) 1 second

108) When our brain cannot recognize original sound and its echo?

Here is the text from the page:

109) What should be the minimum distance between the speaker and reflecting surface?
a) 10 m
b) 1000 m
c) 100 m
d) 17 m

110) What is the speed of sound in air?
a) zero
b) 340 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 140 m/s

111) What is the speed of sound in vacuum?
a) zero
b) 340 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 140 m/s

2. HEARING THUNDER AFTER LIGHTNING

Thunder will always be heard after the lightning strike is seen owing to the fact that light travels significantly faster than sound.

Thunder & Lightning

112) During lightning in the sky, when both light and sound are produced?
a) at different time
b) at same time
c) sound before light
d) light before sound

113) Why we see light before the sound of thunder during lightning in the sky?
a) sound is faster than light
b) light is faster than sound
c) the speed of sound and light is same
d) none of these

114) What is the speed of sound at 0°C temperature?
a) zero
b) 332 m/s
c) 240 m/s
d) 140 m/s

115) What is the speed of light?
a) zero
b) 340 km/s
c) 240 km/s
d) 300,000 km/s

Exercise

116) Hertz is the unit of:
a) mass
b) energy
c) loudness
d) frequency

117) To hear sound echo, minimum distance between sound source and obstacle should be
a) 17 cm
b) 17 m
c) 71 m
d) 0.17 m

118) Which of the following is a longitudinal wave?
a) X-rays
b) waves on stretched rope
c) P-seismic waves
d) S-seismic waves

119) Which has highest pitch of sound?
a) lion roar
b) whistling sound
c) train horn
d) traffic noise

120) Sound waves cannot pass through:
a) solids
b) liquids
c) gases
d) vacuum

121) Which of the following animal has the lowest pitch of sound?
a) sparrow
b) mosquito
c) cat
d) dog

122) If frequency of sound is doubled but amplitude of this sound wave is kept constant, then:
a) loudness and pitch both increases
b) loudness and pitch both decreases
c) loudness increases and pitch remains same
d) loudness remains same and pitch increases

123) Which of the following is a longitudinal wave?
a) sound wave
b) water waves on surface of ocean
c) light
d) string wave

124) Product of frequency and time period of a wave is:
a) 1
b) 1/T
c) 1/f
d) 0

Answer Keys

1	2					3					4						5			6				7				8						9		10										11							12						13											14							15							16
c	b					D					d						a			b				a				b						a		b										d							d						d											d							a							b
17			18						19					20								21						22						23						24					25						26							27						28					29						30							31							32
a			b						d					a								d						d						d						d					b						b							a						a					d						a							d							a
33			34						35					36							37					38					39								40			41						42							43						44					45						46							47							48
a			c						d					b							a					b					c								a			c						e							a						d					b						c							a							a
49					50					51						52						53					54					55							56					57						58							59						60				61							62							63							64
b					b					a						a						b					d					a							b					d						a							b						c				a							b							d							b
65				66								67						68					69						70				71					72					73						74							75						76						77					78							79							80
b				b								a						b					d						a				d					b					a						b							c						b						d					b							a							d
81				82								83						84					85						86				87					88					89						90							91						92						93					94							95							96
b				a								c						d					d						b				b					d					a						c							d						d						a					b							d							b
97		98						99					100						101						102					103					104						105						106							107						108					109						110							111							112
c		b						d					b						c						e					d					c						d						d							b						a					b						a							b							b
113							114								115								116							117							118						119									120								121								122								123							124
b							b								d								d							C							b						d									d								d								a								a							a

 

Unit No 05

Heat and Temperature

 

Heat is a measure of change, never a property possessed by an object or system. Therefore, it is classified as a process variable. Temperature describes the average kinetic energy of molecules within a material or system and is measured in Celsius (°C), Kelvin (K), Fahrenheit (°F), or Rankine (R).

HEAT TEMPERATURE

1. According to the kinetic theory of particles, matter consists of tiny particles called…..
   a) atoms
   b) molecules
   c) sub-atomic particles
   d) ions
2. According to the kinetic theory of particles, atoms combine together to form…..
   a) radical
   b) molecules
   c) sub-atomic particles
   d) ions

Explanation: The kinetic theory of matter (particle theory) says that all matter consists of many, very small particles that are constantly moving or in a continual state of motion. The degree to which the particles move is determined by the amount of energy they have and their relationship to other particles.

1. How many states of matter are present?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: 1. Solid, 2. Liquid, and 3. Gas

1. According to the kinetic theory of particles, which of the following states of matter only vibrate about their mean position?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) all
2. According to the kinetic theory of particles, which of the following states of matter can flow?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) both b and c
3. Due to which of the following, particles have kinetic energy?
   a) motion
   b) potential energy due to attraction between them
   c) size of particle
   d) both a and b
4. Which of the following particles have greater kinetic energy?
   a) particles of gases
   b) particles of liquids
   c) particles of solids
   d) all of these
5. Which of the following particles have smallest kinetic energy?
   a) particles of liquids
   b) particles of gases
   c) particles of solids
   d) all of these
6. Which of the following particles have intermediate kinetic energy?
   a) particles of gases
   b) particles of liquids
   c) particles of solids
   d) all of these
7. Which of the following total energy in a substance is called thermal energy?
   a) kinetic energy
   b) potential energy
   c) heat energy
   d) both a and b
8. Kinetic energy increases with the increase of which of the following factors?
   a) temperature
   b) pressure
   c) humidity
   d) salinity

Temperature

Temperature is a physical quantity that expresses the hotness of matter or radiation. … Temperature is measured with a thermometer.

1. What is the temperature of boiling water?
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 0°F
   d) 100°F
2. Temperature is the measure of how ……….. a body is.
   a) hot
   b) cold
   c) soft
   d) both a and b
3. Which of the following is the measure of average kinetic energy?
   a) heat
   b) temperature
   c) motion
4. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the temperature?
   a) sphygmomanometer
   b) thermometer
   c) ammeter
   d) voltmeter

Explanation: A thermometer is a device that measures temperature or a temperature gradient. A thermometer has two important elements: a temperature sensor in which some change occurs with a change in temperature; and some means of converting this change into a numerical value.

1. Which of the following is/are the SI unit of temperature?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
2. Which of the following is/are unit/s used to measure the temperature of the body?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following unit/s is/are used for scientific calculation of temperature?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
4. Which of the following unit/s is/are used for clinical purpose?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)
5. Which of the following unit/s is/are used for normal day life temperature (for weather)?
   a) Celsius (C)
   b) Kelvin (K)
   c) Fahrenheit (F)

Temperature Scales

Scale of temperature is a methodology of calibrating the physical quantity temperature in metrology. Empirical scales measure temperature in relation to convenient and stable parameters, such as the freezing and boiling point of water.

1. How many scales are used to measure the temperature of a body?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: 1. Kelvin scale, 2. Celsius scale, and 3. Fahrenheit scale.

1. To form a temperature scale, how many fixed or reference points are marked?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: 1. Lower reference point and 2. Upper reference point.

1. Which of the following is taken as the lower reference point for making a temperature scale?
   a) boiling point of water
   b) melting point of ice
   c) boiling point of alcohol
   d) melting point of iron
2. Which of the following is taken as the upper reference point for making a temperature scale?
   a) boiling point of water
   b) melting point of ice
   c) boiling point of alcohol
   d) melting point of iron

Kelvin Scale

The Kelvin, symbol K, is the primary unit of temperature in the International System of Units. Used alongside its prefixed forms and the degree Celsius.

1. On Kelvin scale, what is freezing point of water?
   a) 0° K
   b) 100° K
   c) 273° K
   d) 373° K
2. On Kelvin scale, what is boiling point of water?
   a) 173° K
   b) 73° K
   c) 273° K
   d) 373° K
3. How many equal divisions are present between the freezing point and boiling point of water on Kelvin scale?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 73
   d) 273

Celsius Scale

The degree Celsius is the unit of temperature on the Celsius scale, one of two temperature scales used in the International System of Units, alongside the Kelvin scale. The degree Celsius can refer to a specific temperature on the Celsius scale or a unit to indicate a difference or range between two temperatures.

1. On Celsius scale, what is freezing point of water?
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 273°C
   d) 373°C
2. On Celsius scale, what is boiling point of water?
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 273°C
   d) 373°C
3. How many equal divisions are present between the freezing point and boiling point of water on Celsius scale?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 73
   d) 273
4. Change of one Kelvin is the same as change of ……… degree/s centigrade.
   a) one
   b) two
   c) three
   d) ten

Fahrenheit Scale

The Fahrenheit scale is a temperature scale based on one proposed in 1724 by the physicist Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit. It uses the degree Fahrenheit as the unit.

1. On Fahrenheit scale, what is freezing point of water?
   a) 32°F
   b) 212°F
   c) 273°F
   d) 373°F
2. On Fahrenheit scale, what is boiling point of water?
   a) 32°F
   b) 212°F
   c) 273°F
   d) 373°F
3. How many equal divisions are present between the freezing point and boiling point of water on Fahrenheit scale?
   a) 180
   b) 100
   c) 73
   d) 273
4. Change of one degree Fahrenheit is ……… as change of one degree Kelvin or centigrade.
   a) less
   b) more
   c) equal

Differences between Celsius scale and Fahrenheit scale

°C = (°F – 32) × 5/9
°F = (9/5 × °C) + 32

Conversion of Temperatures b/w Different Scales

1. From Celsius scale to Kelvin scale, which of the following equation is used?
   a) T(K) = T(C) + 173
   b) T(K) = T(C) + 273
   c) T(K) = T(C) + 373
   d) T(K) = T(C) + 100
2. From Celsius to Fahrenheit scale, which of the following formula is used?
   a) T(F) = 2.8 T(C) + 32
   b) T(F) = 1.8 T(C) + 272
   c) T(F) = 1.8 T(C) + 32
   d) T(F) = 1.8 T(C) – 32
3. What is the temperature of healthy person on Celsius scale?
   a) 373°C
   b) 37°C
   c) 212°C
   d) 273°C
4. What is the temperature of healthy person on Kelvin scale?
   a) 373° K
   b) 37° K
   c) 310° K
   d) 273° K
5. What is the temperature of healthy person on Fahrenheit scale?
   a) 310°F
   b) 37°F
   c) 212°F
   d) 98.6°F
6. Temperature of healthy person is 37°C. What is this temperature on Kelvin scale?
   a) 373° K
   b) 37° K
   c) 310° K
   d) 273° K

Calculation:
T(K) = T(C) + 273
T(K) = 37 + 273

1. Temperature of healthy person is 37°C. What is this temperature on Fahrenheit scale?
   a) 373°F
   b) 37°F
   c) 98.6°F
   d) 273°F

Calculation:
T(F) = 1.8 T(C) + 32
T(F) = 1.8 × 37 + 32
T(F) = 98.6°F

1. What is the lowest temperature on the Kelvin scale?
   a) 0° K
   b) 100° K
   c) 273° K
   d) 32° K
2. Which of the following temperature is called absolute zero?
   a) 0°C
   b) 0°K
   c) 273°C
   d) 32°F
3. Absolute zero is equal to ……… °C.
   a) 0°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 273°C
   d) -273°C

Explanation:
Absolute zero is the lowest limit of the thermodynamic temperature scale, a state at which the enthalpy and entropy of a cooled ideal gas reach their minimum value, taken as zero kelvin.

Absolute Zero

(Image illustrating Absolute Zero in Kelvin, Celsius, and Fahrenheit)

1. On which of the following temperature, the molecules of matter stop moving?
   a) 0°C
   b) 0°K
   c) 273°K
   d) 32°F
2. Why is it impossible to reach absolute zero?
   a) because molecules are always stationary
   b) because molecules are always moving
   c) because molecules are always charged
   d) because molecules are always neutral

Heat

Heat is the transfer of kinetic energy from one medium or object to another, or from an energy source to a medium or object.

1. Which of the following is a form of energy?
   a) temperature
   b) light
   c) pressure
   d) heat
2. Heat is a form of energy that flows from ……… to ………. body.
   a) colder – hotter
   b) hotter – hotter
   c) colder – colder
   d) hotter – colder
3. What will happen when water in a pot is heated?
   a) the kinetic energy of molecules remains same
   b) the kinetic energy of molecules increases
   c) the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
   d) the kinetic energy of molecules is independent of temperature
4. When temperature of a body increases then it ……… heat.
   a) loses
   b) absorbs
   c) both a and b
5. When temperature of a body falls then it ……… heat.
   a) loses
   b) absorbs
   c) both a and b
6. A body at higher temperature will have ……… amount of heat.
   a) same
   b) smaller
   c) greater
7. A body at lower temperature will have ……… amount of heat.
   a) same
   b) smaller
   c) greater
8. Heat will flow ……… between objects which have greater temperature difference.
   a) faster
   b) same rate
   c) slower
9. Heat will flow ……… between objects which have smaller temperature difference.
   a) faster
   b) same rate
   c) slower
10. Amount of heat depends on which of the following?
    a) type of matter
    b) mass
    c) pressure
11. If two bodies at different temperatures are touched to each other, heat will continue to flow from hot body to cold body until they attain same temperature, called ………
    a) thermal conductance
    b) thermal stability
    c) thermal equilibrium
    d) thermal expansion
12. Which of the following cup of tea has more amount of heat?
    a) half cup
    b) full cup
    c) heat is independent of mass
    d) same
13. Which of the following cup of tea has less amount heat?
    a) half cup
    b) full cup
    c) heat is independent of mass
    d) same

1. What is the SI unit of heat?
   a) Kelvin
   b) Celsius
   c) Joule
   d) Fahrenheit

Explanation:
The SI unit of heat is also joules (J) which are defined as the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of a given mass by one degree.

1. What is the SI unit of energy?
   a) Newton
   b) Celsius
   c) Joule
   d) Watt

Thermal Expansion

Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to change its shape, area, volume, and density in response to a change in temperature.

1. Which of the following of a substance changes on heating?
   a) length
   b) shape
   c) volume and density
   d) all of these
2. When a substance is heated, its length, volume, shape or density change, this is called
   a) thermal conductance
   b) thermal stability
   c) thermal equilibrium
   d) thermal expansion
3. What happens to all three states of matter on heating?
   a) they contract
   b) they expand
   c) they do not change
   d) all of these
4. What happens to all three states of matter on cooling?
   a) they contract
   b) they expand
   c) they do not change
   d) all of these
5. Thermal expansion is ………. for different states of the same substance.
   a) same
   b) different
   c) not fixed
   d) all of these
6. Which of the following states of matter expand more than others?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) none
7. Liquid substances expand more than ………. states of matter.
   a) solid
   b) liquid
   c) gas
   d) none

Thermal Expansion in Solids

When a solid is heated, its atoms vibrate faster about their fixed points. The relative increase in the size of solids when heated is therefore small.

1. In which of the following state of matter, the particles vibrate about their mean position but don’t leave their positions?
   a) solid
   b) liquid
   c) gaseous
2. Why do solids expand on heating?
   a) their particles vibrate with greater amplitude
   b) the gap between neighboring atoms increases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles increases
   d) all of these
3. Why do solids contract on cooling?
   a) their particles vibrate with smaller amplitude
   b) the gap between neighboring atoms decreases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles decreases
   d) all of these
4. Why do solids contract on cooling?
   a) their particles vibrate with greater amplitude
   b) the gap between neighboring atoms increases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles increases
   d) none of these

Thermal Expansion in Fluids (Liquids and Gases)

Increase in dimensions of a liquid on being heated is called thermal expansion of the liquid. Liquids have only volume. When heated, its volume increases. Increase in volume is called cubical expansion.

1. In which of the following states of matter, the particles are at large distance from each other than solid?
   a) solid
   b) liquid
   c) gaseous
   d) both b and c
2. Why do liquids expand on heating?
   a) the gap between their particles decreases
   b) their force of attraction increases
   c) their particles start moving with greater kinetic energy
   d) all of these
3. Why do liquids contract on cooling?
   a) their particles start moving with smaller kinetic energy
   b) the gap between their particles decreases
   c) vibrational kinetic energy of their particles decreases
   d) all of these

Effect of Thermal Expansion & Contraction with their Applications in our Daily Life

1. Which of the following substances expand on heating and contract on cooling?
   a) solids
   b) liquids
   c) gases
   d) all substances
2. Which of the following substances is used in a thermometer?
   a) iron
   b) mercury
   c) copper
   d) gold

Explanation:
A thermometer is an example of thermal expansion. The thermometer helps us measure the amount of temperature or… (sentence cut off).

1. Why does it become easier to open a tight metal lid on heating?
   a) metal lid expands on heating
   b) metal lid contracts on heating
   c) metal lid expands on cooling
   d) none of these
2. Why are gaps in railway tracks left?
   a) it could contract in winter
   b) it could expand in summer
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these
3. Why are bridges divided into small sections with expansion joints?
   a) it could contract in winter
   b) it could expand in summer
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

Explanation:
An expansion joint is a part of the bridge that helps absorb thermal expansion or thermal contraction. Basically, when concrete gets hot, it can expand, and when it gets cold, it contracts. To account for that movement, expansion joints are put in bridges. Without those joints, there would be cracks in the structures.

Transfer of Heat

1. There are ………. different methods to transfer heat.
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

1. If you place one end of a spoon on a flame, its other end becomes hot. It is due to ……… of heat.
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
2. In which of the following methods is heat transferred from a hot body to a cold body by the vibration of particles?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
3. In solids, heat is transferred by the ………. of heat.
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
4. Which of the following is/are good conductors of heat?
   a) metals
   b) non-metals
   c) solids
   d) all of these
5. Which of the following is NOT a good insulator?
   a) wood
   b) water
   c) metal
   d) plastic
6. Which of the following is/are poor conductor of heat?
   a) metals
   b) non-metals
   c) solids
   d) all of these
7. Why are cooking utensils made up of metals?
   a) metals are insulators
   b) metals are poor conductors of heat
   c) metals are good conductors
   d) all of these
8. Why are metals good conductors?
   a) they have small atomic mass
   b) they have small size
   c) they have free electrons
   d) all of these
9. Which of the following transfers heat in conductors (metals)?
   a) protons
   b) free electrons
   c) neutrons
10. Which of the following is/are non-metal/s?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
11. Which of the following cannot conduct heat easily?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
12. Which of the following is/are poor conductors?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
13. Which of the following is/are insulator/s?
    a) wood
    b) plastic
    c) wool and fur
    d) all of these
14. Why are non-metals poor conductors or insulators?
    a) they have small atomic mass
    b) they have small size
    c) they have no free electrons
    d) all of these
15. In three states of matter, which of them is/are good conductor/s of heat?

1. Which of the following is the best insulator?
   a) wood
   b) water
   c) air
   d) iron
2. Why do we wear wool sweaters and wool clothes to keep our body warm?
   a) they trap air
   b) they conduct heat very well
   c) they are cheaper
   d) all of these
3. Why do birds fluff out in winter to remain warm?
   a) they trap air in wings
   b) they breathe very hot air
   c) they attract heat to themselves
   d) all of these

Convection

Convection is the process by which heat is transferred by the movement of a heated fluid such as air or water.

1. Which of the following is/are examples of convection of heat?
   a) water current moving on the surface of boiling water
   b) hot air balloon rising high in the sky
   c) heating of metal rod
   d) both a and b
2. The transfer of heat by actual movement of molecules from a hot place to a cold place is known as ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
3. Convection can take place in which of the following states of matter?
   a) gas
   b) liquid
   c) solid
   d) both a and b
4. Why is convection not possible in solids?
   a) particles of solids are vibrating
   b) particles of solid cannot move freely
   c) particles of solid can move freely
   d) all of these
5. What happens to the bottom water in a pot when heated?
   a) bottom water becomes hot
   b) bottom water rises due to low density
   c) bottom water expands
   d) all of these
6. Which of the following water is denser?
   a) hot water
   b) cold water
   c) water vapors
7. Which of the following water is less dense?
   a) hot water
   b) cold water
   c) moderate water
   d) all of these
8. The hot water (lighter) moves up and cold water (denser) goes down to the bottom, and a circulating flow of water is established. This is called ………
   a) conduction current
   b) convection current
   c) radiation current
   d) all of these

Explanation:
Convection currents are movements of fluid caused by a temperature or density difference within a material.

1. The air near the surface of land becomes hotter during the day and rises straight up. This is called ………
   a) conduction current
   b) convection current
   c) radiation current
   d) thermal
2. Which of the following helps birds to fly for a long time in air without flapping their wings?
   a) the gravity of the earth
   b) their body weight
   c) radiation current
   d) thermal
3. Which of the following are the best thermal climbers?
   a) hawks
   b) vultures
   c) pigeons
   d) both a and b
4. Land and sea breezes are due to ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation

Radiation

In physics, radiation is the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or through a material medium.

1. The transfer of heat from a hot place to a cold place with or without having a material medium in between, in the form of electromagnetic waves, is called ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
2. The heat from the heater reaches us by ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
3. Why does heat from heaters not reach us by conduction?
   a) air is a bad conductor of heat
   b) air particles cannot move
   c) we cannot sit on the heater
   d) the distance between the heater and us is greater
4. Why does heat from heaters not reach us by convection?
   a) air is a bad conductor of heat
   b) hot air rises up
   c) hot air is denser
   d) the distance between the heater and us is greater
5. The heat from the sun reaches us from millions of kilometers in the empty space by ………
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
6. Why does heat from the sun not reach us by conduction?

a) no matter is present in space
b) no air is present in space
c) no water is present in space
d) both b and c

1. Why heat from the sun cannot reach us by convection?
   a) no matter is present in space
   b) no air is present in space
   c) no water is present in space
   d) both b and c
2. Which of the following waves carry energy from the sun to the earth?
   a) longitudinal
   b) mechanical
   c) electromagnetic
   d) all of these

Explanation: Solar radiation, often called the solar resource or just sunlight, is a general term for the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the sun.

1. Which of the following waves are electromagnetic and carry heat from the sun to the earth?
   a) radio waves
   b) infrared (I.R)
   c) visible light
   d) all of these
2. Which of the following waves are electromagnetic and carry heat from the sun to the earth?
   a) X-rays
   b) gamma rays
   c) infra-red
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following electromagnetic waves carry the most amount of heat energy?
   a) X-rays
   b) gamma rays
   c) infra-red (I.R)
   d) visible light
4. Which of the following methods is used to warm the greenhouses in winter?
   a) conduction current
   b) convection current
   c) radiation current
   d) none of these

Thermal Insulation for Constructing Buildings

1. Heat enters buildings from ……… sides.
   a) top
   b) bottom
   c) front
   d) all sides
2. Most of the heat enters buildings from ………
   a) roofs
   b) bottom
   c) front
   d) all sides
3. Which of the following process/es transfer/s heat into buildings?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these
4. False ceiling below the roof is done with air trapped between the ceiling and the roof. By which method is the transfer of heat from outside to inside the room controlled?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these

Explanation: A false ceiling is a type of construction that involves the installation of a secondary ceiling below the original ceiling.

1. By laying down a reflector on the top of the roof and whitewashing the roof, by which method is the transfer of heat from outside to inside the room controlled?
   a) conduction
   b) convection
   c) radiation
   d) all of these

Explanation: White and shiny surfaces are poor absorbers and good reflectors of heat.

1. Which of the following method/s is/are used to control the temperature of a building?
   a) insulating panels attached with the front wall
   b) false ceiling
   c) double-glazed windows and doors are installed
   d) all of these

Exercise

1. “J” is the symbol for joule; it is the unit of ………
   a) temperature
   b) heat
   c) power
   d) voltage
2. If your classroom temperature is 27°C, what is its value in the Kelvin scale?
   a) 27 K
   b) 373 K
   c) 300 K
   d) 246 K

Explanation: T(K) = T(°C) + 273
T(K) = 27 + 273
T(K) = 300 K

1. Which of the following is the best conductor?
   a) wood
   b) water
   c) metal
   d) plastic
2. Which temperature of the following represents the melting point of ice?
   a) 0 K
   b) 32°C
   c) 273 K
   d) 0°F

Explanation: T(°C) = T(K) – 273
T(°C) = 273 – 273

T(C) = 0°C
The melting point of ice is 0°C OR 273 K

1. Mercury thermometer is used to measure temperature of a body. Which process is used in it?
   a) convection
   b) radiation
   c) thermal expansion
   d) insulation
2. Which of the following is the worst conductor?
   a) metal
   b) wool
   c) wood
   d) air
3. Conduction of heat best takes place in………
   a) solids
   b) fluids
   c) gases
4. Materials that trap air like fur, wool, and sawdust are heat……….
   a) insulators
   b) conductors
   c) convectional devices
   d) reflectors
5. The heat transfer that occurs due to a density difference in fluids is……..
   a) conduction
   b) radiation
   c) convection
   d) insulation
6. Huge amount of heat is being generated on sun. This heat reaches from sun to earth by……
   a) radiation only
   b) convection only
   c) convection and radiation
   d) conduction, convection, and radiation

Answer Keys

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12	13	14	15	16
a	b	b	a	d	b	a	c	b	d	a	a	b	d	b	b

 

17	18	19	20	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30	31	32
b	d	b	c	a	b	a	b	a	c	d	b	a	b	b	a

 

33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48
a	b	a	a	b	c	b	c	d	c	e	b	d	b	d	b

 

49	50	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60	61	62	63	64
d	d	b	b	a	c	b	a	e	b	c	b	a	c	e	d

 

65	66	67	68	69	70	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
d	b	a	b	c	a	a	d	d	d	d	c	d	b	b	a

 

81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90	91	92	93	94	95	96
c	c	b	a	a	a	c	b	c	c	c	b	d	d	d	-d

 

97	98	99	100	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110	111	112
c	c	a	a	d	b	d	b	d	b	b	a	b	d	d	d

 

113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128
b	c	c	a	b	c	a	d	c	d	d	d	c	c	d	a

 

129	130	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140	141
a	c	d	b	c	c	c	c	d*	a	a	a	a

 

Technology in Everyday Life
Unit No: 06

Water Conservation

Water conservation includes all the policies, strategies and activities to sustainably manage the natural resource of fresh water, to protect the hydrosphere, and to meet the current and future human demand.

1. Carefully use of water in order to avoid any wastage is called…….
   a) water conservation
   b) water pollution
   c) water management
   d) water recycling
2. How much percentage of the earth surface is covered by water?
   a) 30
   b) 40
   c) 60
   d) 70

[Explanation] About 71 percent of the Earth’s surface is water-covered, and the oceans hold about 96.5 percent of all Earth’s water. Water also exists in the air as water vapor, in rivers and lakes, in icecaps and glaciers, in the ground as soil moisture and in aquifers, and even in you and your dog.

1. How much percentage of the earth surface is covered by land?
   a) 30
   b) 40
   c) 60
   d) 70
2. How much percentage of the total water is present in sea?
   a) 70
   b) 40
   c) 90
   d) 98
3. How much percentage of the total water is fresh water?
   a) 70
   b) 2
   c) 90
   d) 98
4. How much percentage of the total fresh water is present in the form of ice and glaciers?
   a) 70
   b) 87
   c) 90
   d) 98
5. How much percentage of the total fresh water is present in the form of rivers and lakes?
   a) 1
   b) 87
   c) 12
   d) 98
6. How much percentage of the total fresh water is present in the form of ground water?
   a) 1
   b) 87
   c) 12
   d) 98
7. Which of the following is most essential for life?
   a) minerals
   b) water
   c) habitat
   d) food
8. Which of the following is/are the domestic use/s of water?
   a) drinking and cleaning
   b) bathing
   c) cooking and washing
   d) all of these
9. In which of the following, water is required?
   a) domestic
   b) agriculture
   c) industries
   d) all of these

Facts about Water Scarcity

1. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the number of people who do not have direct access to drinking water are…….
   a) 2.1 million
   b) 2.1 billion
   c) 4.1 million
   d) 4.2 billion

[Explanation] With 189 member countries, the World Bank Group is a unique global partnership fighting poverty worldwide through sustainable solutions.

1. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of natural disasters caused by water…….
   a) 10%
   b) 90%
   c) 30%
   d) 42%

[Explanation] UNICEF, in full originally called the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, now officially United Nations Children’s Fund, is an agency of the United Nations responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.

1. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of total water consumed by agricultural activities…….
   a) 70%
   b) 90%
   c) 30%
   d) 42%

[Explanation] The United Nations is an intergovernmental organization whose stated purposes are to maintain international peace and security, develop friendly relations among nations, achieve international cooperation, and be a center for harmonizing the actions of nations.

1. According to the World Bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the number of people whose drinking water is provided by desalination plants……..
   a) 200 million
   b) 2.1 billion
   c) 300 million
   d) 4.2 billion
2. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of increase in water consumption from now to 2050
   a) 70%
   b) 90%
   c) 30%
   d) 42%
3. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of total water wasted each day by the world’s water pipelines…….
   a) 7%
   b) 9%
   c) 30%
   d) 40%
4. According to the world bank, UNICEF, United Nations water reports, the percentage of dams around the world used for irrigation…….
   a) 70%
   b) 48%
   c) 38%
   d) 12%

Make a Model for Drip and Sprinkler Irrigation System

Drip irrigation or trickle irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that has the potential to save water and nutrients by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants, either from above the soil surface or buried below the surface.

Drip Irrigation Working Model

DIY Easy

1. Why both sprinkle and drip irrigation system are used?
   a) to save energy
   b) to save labor
   c) to save water
   d) to save land
2. In the process of drip system irrigation, the water reaches directly to the…….
   a) flowers
   b) air
   c) roots
   d) leaves
3. In the irrigation process, most of the water is wasted through…….
   a) absorption
   b) evaporation
   c) condensation
   d) precipitation
4. How much percent water use is reduced by the drip irrigation as compared to a conventional sprinkler?
   a) 10 to 20%
   b) 20 to 40%
   c) 30 to 70%
   d) 50 to 100%

Preservation of Food

Food preservation, any of a number of methods by which food is kept from spoilage after harvest or slaughter. Such practices date to prehistoric times.

1. Preventing the food from spoilage is called food…….
   a) protection
   b) fermentation
   c) preservation
2. Humans have been preserving food for…….
   a) recent years
   b) hundred years
   c) two hundred years
   d) thousands of years
3. Food preservation can be found in…….culture on the planet earth?
   a) Greek
   b) Ethiopian
   c) every
4. Which of the following is/are the most common method/s of preserving food at home today?
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying
   d) all of these
5. The food is heated at a specified temperature and then vacuum sealed in special glass jars. This method of preserving food is called…….
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying

[Explanation] Canning, the process of placing foods in jars or cans and heating properly to a specified temperature, is a way to preserve many different foods.

1. For which of the following foods, canning works for foods such as…….
   a) fruits
   b) vegetables
   c) meat and seafood
   d) all of these
2. The method of preserving food by chilling up to -18°C is called……
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying
   d) none of these

[Explanation] Freezing food preserves it from the time it is prepared to the time it is eaten. Since early times, farmers, fishermen, and trappers have preserved grains and produce in unheated buildings during the winter season.

1. For which of the following foods, freezing works for foods such as…….
   a) vegetables and grains
   b) fruits and nuts
   c) meat, egg, and seafood
   d) all of these
2. The method of preserving food by removing moisture is called……
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) drying
   d) none of these

[Explanation] Food drying is a method of food preservation in which food is dried (dehydrated or desiccated).

Drying Food

1. For which of the following foods, drying method of preservation is used…….
   a) fruits, legumes, and nuts
   b) vegetables and grains
   c) meat, egg, and seafood
   d) all of these
2. Which bacteria are encouraged to grow during fermentation?
   a) good bacteria
   b) bad bacteria
   c) infectious bacteria
   d) all of these

[Explanation] The fermentation process involves the oxidation of carbohydrates to generate a range of products, which are principally organic acids, alcohol, and carbon dioxide. Such products have a preservative effect by limiting the growth of spoilage or pathogenic microbiota in the food.

1. Why do we ferment food?
   a) to make it tastier
   b) to preserve it
   c) to decorate it
   d) to destroy it
2. Which of the following is/are fermented food/s?
   a) sauerkraut
   b) cured sausage
   c) yogurt
   d) all of these
3. Sauerkraut is a fermented food product. Which of the following is/are its source/s?
   a) cabbage
   b) milk
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these

[Explanation] Sauerkraut is finely cut raw cabbage that has been fermented by various lactic acid bacteria. It has a long shelf life and a distinctive sour flavor, both of which result from the lactic acid formed when the bacteria ferment the sugars in the cabbage leaves. It is one of the best-known national dishes in Germany.

1. Yogurt is a fermented food product. Which of the following is/are its source/s?
   a) cabbage
   b) milk
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these
2. Cured sausage is a fermented food product. Which of the following is/are its source/s?
   a) meat
   b) milk
   c) alcohol
   d) all of these

1. In pickling, the food is soaked in a solution containing…….
   a) salt
   b) acid
   c) base
   d) both a and b
2. Which of the following acid/s is/are used for pickling?
   a) vinegar
   b) lemon juice
   c) sulphuric acid
   d) both a and b
3. Which of the following is/are old-fashioned methods of preserving food?
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) dry salting
   d) both a and b

[Explanation] Dry salting is used to draw the moisture out of food, which helps to reduce the growth of unwanted bacteria.

1. In the early twentieth century, which of the following methods was used as an alternative to canning?
   a) curing
   b) freezing
   c) dry salting
   d) both a and b
2. Which of the following is a complex method of preservation?
   a) canning
   b) freezing
   c) dry salting
   d) curing

[Explanation] Curing is the addition to meats of some combination of salt, sugar, nitrite and/or nitrate for the purposes of preservation, flavor, and color.

1. Curing is similar to…….
   a) drying
   b) freezing
   c) pickling
   d) both a and b

[Explanation] Pickling is defined as the process of preserving a food by either anaerobic fermentation in brine or immersion in vinegar.

1. In addition to salt and acid, which of the following are used in curing?
   a) sulphates
   b) nitrates
   c) phosphates
   d) alkalis
2. For which of the following foods, curing is specially used?
   a) vegetables and grains
   b) fruits and nuts
   c) meat and fish
   d) milk
3. Who for the first time found out that heating at a certain temperature makes the food microbe-free?
   a) A. Flaming
   b) Joseph Lister
   c) Louis Pasteur
   d) Charles Darwin
4. Louis Pasteur was a…chemist and microbiologist.
   a) English
   b) French
   c) German
   d) American
5. Heating food at a certain temperature to make it microbe-free is called…….
   a) drying
   b) freezing
   c) pickling
   d) pasteurization

[Explanation] Pasteurization (or pasteurisation) is the process by which heat is applied to food and beverages to kill pathogens and extend shelf life.

Stethoscope:

The stethoscope is a medical device for auscultation, or listening to internal sounds of an animal or human body.

1. Which of the following instrument is used by doctors to listen to heart beat?
   a) microscope
   b) telescope
   c) ophthalmoscope
   d) stethoscope
2. Stethoscope is used to…
   a) check blood circulation
   b) see distant objects
   c) listen heart beat
   d) see tiny objects

Sanitizer

1. Which of the following is used now a day to prevent from germs?
   a) acids
   b) sanitizer
   c) bases
   d) water
2. Which of the following is used now a day to prevent from COVID-19?
   a) acids
   b) sanitizer
   c) bases
   d) water
3. Which of the following is used to kill the germs without harming to skin?
   a) sanitizer
   b) soap
   c) salt
   d) water
4. Which of the following is/are used to make homemade sanitizer?
   a) alcohol
   b) aloe Vera gel
   c) oil
   d) all of these
5. Which of the following alcohol is commonly used to make sanitizer?
   a) methanol
   b) ethanol
   c) propanol
   d) none of these

[Explanation] To get one cup of sanitizer, combine ½ cup of gel or glycerin with ½ cup of rubbing alcohol. Mix thoroughly with your spoon or whisk to ensure that the alcohol is evenly distributed throughout the gel. Stir in five drops of an essential oil, if you’re using it.

Exercise

1. The percentage of fresh water on earth is not more than only…….
   a) 2%
   b) 30%
   c) 20%
   d) 25%
2. Drip irrigation system is useful for agriculture because it allows water to…
   a) reach the roots directly
   b) spread equally
   c) sprinkles water
   d) evaporate
3. Given below from the list is not a way to preserve food?
   a) freezing
   b) pickling
   c) curing
   d) garnishing
4. The best way to preserve vegetables is…
   a) pickling
   b) drying
   c) curing
   d) salting
5. The instrument used by doctors for listening to heart beats is called…
   a) stethoscope
   b) periscope
   c) ophthalmoscope
   d) microscope
6. Which of the following is used for making a working model of a stethoscope?
   a) funnels plastic tube, balloons and duct tape
   b) funnels and duct tape only
   c) tubing and duct tape only
   d) balloons and duct tape only
7. Use of hand sanitizer helps in…
   a) killing germs from the skin and keeping it safe
   b) keeping skin safe
   c) keeping skin moisturized
   d) removing germs
8. In pickling food is soaked in…
   a) water
   b) oil
   c) solution of salt and acid
   d) solution of sugar and acid
9. The process of food preservation in which bacteria is allowed to grow against the harmful bacteria is called…
   a) fermentation
   b) dry salting
   c) pickling
   d) canning
10. Pasteurization means…
    a) freezing at a certain temperature to keep food microbe free
    b) heating at a certain temperature to keep food microbe free
    c) drying at a certain temperature to keep food microbe free
    d) heating to change the colour of the food

Answer Keys

1	2		3		4		5	6		7		8		9	10				11		12		13			14			15			16
a	d		a		d		b	b		a		c		d	b				d		b		b			a			a			c
17		18		19		20			21		22		23			24	25			26		27		28	29		30			31			32
c		B		c		b			c		e		c			d	c			d		c		a	d		b			d			d
33		34		35		36			37		38		39			40	41			42		43		44	45			46			47		48
a		b		d		a			d		a		d			a	d			a		d		d	a			d			a		b
49		50		51		52			53		54		55			56	57			58		59		60	61			62			63		64
d		c		b		b			a		d		b			a	d			b		a		b	d			a			a		e
65																		66
a																		b

 

Earth and Space

Unit No: 07

 

Earth and space science (or ESS), in a nutshell, is about Earth and its place within the solar system and universe. It includes the study of the Earth, including its land, oceans, atmosphere, and all the life that lives there from humans to animals to plants.

Force of Gravity Keeps Planets and Moons in their Orbits:

Gravity is what holds the planets in orbit around the sun and what keeps the moon in orbit around Earth.

1. The force of attraction that exists between two material objects is called…
   a) force of energy
   b) force of charges
   c) force of gravity
   d) all of these
2. In which of the following objects, the force of gravity is prominent?
   a) massive objects
   b) small objects
   c) microscopic objects
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following objects has more gravity?
   a) earth
   b) moon
   c) sun
   d) satellite
4. Who proposed the law of gravity?
   a) Einstein
   b) Newton
   c) Faraday
5. Explanation: Sir Isaac Newton PRS was an English mathematician, physicist, astronomer, alchemist, theologian, and author, widely recognized as one of the greatest mathematicians and physicists and among the most influential scientists of all time. He was a key figure in the philosophical revolution known as the Enlightenment.
6. The planets are affected by gravitational force of…
   a) moon
   b) asteroids
   c) sun
   d) meteors
7. Which of the following move the planet in its orbit?
   a) gravitational force of their moon
   b) gravitational force of sun
   c) gravitational force of their own mass
   d) gravitational force of their satellite
8. What will happen if the gravity of the sun ceases?
   a) the planet will move in orbit
   b) the planet will move in a straight way
   c) the planet will move toward the sun
   d) none of these
9. Every object wants to maintain in one of two states: rest or uniform motion. This property of objects is known as…
   a) inertia
   b) momentum
   c) gravity

Explanation: Inertia means an object will continue its current motion until some force causes its speed or direction to change.

1. Why is it difficult to move a large stone? It is because it has…
   a) inertia
   b) momentum
   c) gravity
2. Which of the following forces moves the object in a circle?
   a) gravitational force
   b) centrifugal force
   c) centripetal force
   d) attractive force

Explanation: A centripetal force is a force that makes a body follow a curved path.

1. Which of the following force moves the object away from the orbit/circle?
   a) centrifugal force
   b) gravitational force
   c) electrostatic force
   d) attractive force

Explanation: “Centrifugal forces” are forces within a country that work to pull that country apart.

Centrifugal Force

F = m × (v² / r)
F = m × (ω² r) or F = m × ω² r

Earth and Moon:

1. Which of the following is the natural satellite of our earth?
   a) sun
   b) star
   c) moon
   d) ISS

Explanation: The Moon is Earth’s only natural satellite. It is about one-quarter of Earth’s diameter. In the Solar System, the Moon is the fifth-largest satellite.

1. Just like the sun, Earth also applies force of ____ on its moon to revolve around itself.
   a) gravitational force
   b) centrifugal force
   c) centripetal force
   d) attractive force
2. Why does the moon revolve around the earth in a circular orbit? It is because of _____.
   a) gravitational force
   b) centrifugal force
   c) centripetal force
   d) attractive force
3. Our moon and satellites revolve around ____ just like our Earth revolves around the sun.
   a) sun
   b) star
   c) earth
   d) ISS

Mass and Weight:

The terms “mass” and “weight” are used interchangeably in ordinary conversation, but the two words don’t mean the same thing. The difference between mass and weight is that mass is the amount of matter in a material, while weight is a measure of how the force of gravity acts upon that mass.

1. All things in nature are made up of small particles…
   a) atoms
   b) molecules
   c) gravity
   d) both a and b
2. The total amount of matter in the body is the measurement of its…
   a) weight
   b) volume
   c) mass
   d) density
3. Quantity of matter in a body is called its…
   a) weight
   b) volume
   c) mass
   d) density
4. Which of the following is the SI unit of mass?
   a) kilometer
   b) kilogram
   c) cubic meter
5. Which of the following is/are the smaller units of mass?
   a) gram
   b) milligram
   c) both a and b
6. Which of the following is/are the bigger units of mass?
   a) gram
   b) ton
   c) milligram
7. How many grams are present in one kilogram?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 1000
   d) 1/1000
8. How many kilograms are present in one ton?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 1000
   d) 1/1000
9. How many milligrams are present in one gram?
   a) 10
   b) 100
   c) 1000
   d) 1/1000
10. How many grams are present in one milligram?
    a) 1/10
    b) 1/100
    c) 1000
    d) 1/1000
11. How many kilograms are present in one gram?
    a) 1/10
    b) 1/100
    c) 1000
    d) 1/1000
12. How many tons are present in one kilogram?
    a) 10
    b) 1/100
    c) 1000
    d) 1/1000
13. Which of the following is measured in kilograms normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
14. Which of the following is measured in grams normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
15. Which of the following is measured in milligrams normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
16. Which of the following is measured in tons normally?
    a) vegetables and fruits
    b) jewelry
    c) urea at large scale
    d) tablet pills
17. Mass of the body is measured by…
    a) physical balance
    b) screw gauge
    c) meter roller
    d) litter
18. Which of the following balance(s) is/are used to measure the mass of an object?
    a) electronic and beam balance
    b) weigh scale and weigh bridge scale
    c) physical balance
    d) all of these
19. If the mass of a watermelon is 10 kg on Earth, what will be its mass on the moon?
    a) less than 10 kg
    b) greater than 10 kg
    c) same 10 kg
    d) variable
20. What will happen to the mass of an object if it is shifted to another planet or moon?
    a) it increases
    b) it decreases

Weight

The weight of an object is the force acting on the object due to gravity.

1. Weight is a/an…
   a) matter in object
   b) force
   c) energy in a body
   d) none of these
2. Which of the following is the force with which Earth attracts anything towards its center?
   a) mass
   b) weight
   c) inertia
   d) work
3. What is the SI unit of weight?
   a) Kg
   b) Joule
   c) Newton
4. The device which is used to measure the weight of a body is called…
   a) spring balance
   b) force meter
   c) physical balance
   d) both a and b
5. Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the weight of an object?
   a) W = m × V
   b) W = m × g
   c) W = m × G
6. In equation W = m × g, the letter ‘g’ represents…
   a) mass
   b) weight
   c) gram
   d) gravitational field strength
7. Gravitational field strength is also known as… due to gravity.
   a) mass
   b) speed
   c) weight
   d) acceleration
8. What is the value of “g” on Earth’s surface?
   a) 2.3 N/kg
   b) 3.8 N/kg
   c) 9.8 N/kg
   d) 6.99 N/kg
9. Earth attracts 1 kg body with a force of…
   a) 1 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 20 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 1 kg, g = 10 N/kg
W = mg
W = 1 kg × 10 N/kg
W = 10 N

1. If 2 kg mass is placed on Earth, it attracts 2 kg body with force of…
   a) 1 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 20 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 2 kg, g = 10 N/kg
W = mg
W = 2 kg × 10 N/kg
W = 20 N

1. You are asked to measure the weight of a watermelon of mass 10 kg on Earth. What will be its weight?
   a) 100 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 20 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 10 kg, g = 10 N/kg
W = mg
W = 10 kg × 10 N/kg
W = 100 N

1. Mass of the moon is… times less than the mass of Earth.
   a) 3
   b) 6
   c) 9
   d) 10
2. What is the gravity on the moon’s surface as compared to the gravity on Earth’s surface?
   a) 3 times lesser
   b) 6 times lesser
   c) 3 times greater
   d) 6 times greater
3. Gravitational field on moon’s surface is… as compared to Earth.
   a) 1/3
   b) 1/6
   c) 3
   d) 6
4. What is the value of g (N/kg) on the moon?
   a) 1.3
   b) 1.8
   c) 1.9
   d) 1.6

Explanation: g(moon) = 1/6 (g earth)
g(moon) = 1/6 (10)
g(moon) = 1.6 N/kg

1. Moon attracts 1 kg mass object with… N force only.
   a) 1.3
   b) 1.8
   c) 1.9
   d) 1.6
2. Calculate the weight of a watermelon of 10 kg on the moon.
   a) 1 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 16 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 10 kg, g = 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = m × g
W(moon) = 10 kg × 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = 16 N

1. Calculate the weight of a watermelon of 20 kg on the moon.
   a) 32 N
   b) 10 N
   c) 16 N
   d) 40 N

Explanation: m = 20 kg, g = 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = m × g
W(moon) = 20 kg × 1.6 N/kg
W(moon) = 32 N

1. What will be the gravity in space far away from heavy heavenly objects?
   a) 0
   b) 9.8
   c) 1.9
   d) 1.6
2. How many times greater can you jump on the moon’s surface than on Earth?
   a) 3
   b) 6
   c) 9
   d) 10

Tides and Gravitational Pull of Moon
High and low tides are caused by the moon. The moon’s gravitational pull generates something called the tidal force. The tidal force causes Earth and its water to bulge out on the side closest to the moon and…

Tides

The side farthest from the moon. These bulges of water are high tides.

1. In which of the following water bodies, tides are produced?
   a) ocean
   b) lakes
   c) rivers
   d) all of these
2. The rise and fall of water level in the ocean, rivers, and lakes are called…
   a) gravity
   b) force
   c) tides
   d) waves
3. When sea level rises to its maximum level, such tides are called…
   a) maximum tides
   b) high tides
   c) minimum tides
   d) low tides

Explanation: The high tide on the side of the Earth facing the moon is called the high tide.

1. When water level falls to its lowest point, it is known as…
   a) maximum tides
   b) high tides
   c) minimum tides
   d) low tides

Explanation: Low tide is when it recedes to its furthest extent.

1. Which of the following is/are the cause/s of tides on ocean?
   a) gravitational pull of moon and earth
   b) gravitational pull of sun and Saturn
   c) spinning of earth
   d) both a and b
2. Which of the following has major impact on ocean water?
   a) gravitation attraction of sun
   b) gravitation attraction of Venus
   c) gravitation attraction of moon
   d) gravitation attraction of Mars
3. In which side of the earth, high tides are produced on ocean?
   a) earth’s side close to the sun
   b) earth’s side close to the moon
   c) earth’s side away from the sun
   d) earth’s side away from the moon
4. High tides on the far end of the earth are due to the flow of water against the weak gravitational pull of…
   a) earth
   b) sun
   c) moon
   d) Mars
5. High tides on the far end of the earth are due to flow of water against the weak gravitational pull of moon because of…
   a) inertia
   b) gravity
   c) force
   d) momentum

Revolution of Earth Around Sun, Seasons, and Constellation

As the earth spins on its axis, producing night and day, it also moves about the sun in an elliptical (elongated circle) orbit that requires about 365 1/4 days to complete. The earth’s spin axis is tilted with respect to its orbital plane. This is what causes the seasons.

1. Earth not only spins around its tilted axis but also revolves around…
   a) galaxy
   b) sun
   c) moon
   d) Mars
2. Which of the following is/are caused by the spinning of earth around its own axis?
   a) changes in seasons
   b) day and night
   c) rainfall
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following is/are caused by the revolution of earth around the sun?
   a) changes in seasons
   b) day and night
   c) rainfall
   d) all of these
4. How many poles are present on earth?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) one

1. Which of the following is an imaginary line around the middle of a planet?
   a) axis
   b) equator
   c) meridian
   d) latitudes
2. Equator is halfway between…
   a) north pole and south pole
   b) east and west
   c) east and north
   d) south and west
3. Equator is the halfway between north and south poles at…degree latitude.
   a) 0
   b) 10
   c) 45
   d) 23.5
4. Which of the following is the line around which earth spins?
   a) axis
   b) equator
   c) meridian
5. …is an angle between the direction of the North Pole and the perpendicular to the orbital plane.
   a) axial tilt
   b) equator
   c) meridian
6. Axial tilt of the earth is…degree
   a) 0
   b) 90
   c) 45
   d) 23.5
7. Which of the following of the earth causes the seasons?
   a) tilted axis
   b) equator
   c) meridian
8. During the orbital motion of earth around sun, when the axis of the earth is towards the sun then…season in there for that part of the earth.
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring
9. During the orbital motion of earth around sun, when the axis of the earth is away from the sun then…season in there for that part of the earth.
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring
10. During the orbital motion of earth around sun, when the axis of the earth is in between the sun then…season in there for that part of the earth.
    a) autumn
    b) summer
    c) spring
    d) both a and c
11. In which of the following, the length of the day is longest and night is shortest?
    a) summer solstice
    b) winter solstice
    c) spring equinox
    d) autumnal equinox
12. In which of the following, the length of the day is shortest and night is longest?
    a) summer solstice
    b) winter solstice
    c) spring equinox
    d) autumnal equinox
13. In which of the following, the length of the day and night is same?
    a) summer solstice
    b) autumnal equinox
    c) spring equinox
    d) both b and c

Constellation

A constellation is an area on the celestial sphere in which a group of visible stars forms a perceived pattern or outline, typically representing an animal, mythological subject, or inanimate object. The origins of the earliest constellations likely go back to prehistory.

1. A group of stars that appears to form a pattern or picture is called…
   a) collection
   b) galaxy
   c) constellation
   d) region
2. Which of the following is/are the famous constellation/s?
   a) Orion the great hunter
   b) Leo the lion
   c) Taurus the bull
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following helps the people to locate themselves using the night sky?
   a) moon
   b) galaxy
   c) constellation
   d) pole
4. Why does the position of the constellation change during different times?
   a) due to gravity of the earth
   b) due to motion of the earth around the sun
   c) due to gravity of the moon
   d) due to motion of the moon around earth

Relation of Earth’s Hemisphere with Annual Rotation Around The Sun

1. There are…hemisphere/s of the earth.
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) one

Explanation: 1. Northern hemisphere and 2. Southern hemisphere

1. When it will be the summer in the northern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun
   b) when south pole tilted toward the sun
   c) when north pole tilted away from the sun
   d) all of these
2. When it will be the winter in the northern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun
   b) when south pole tilted away from the sun
   c) when north pole tilted away from the sun
   d) all of these
3. When it will be the summer in the southern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun

1. When it will be the winter in the southern hemisphere?
   a) when north pole tilted toward the sun
   b) when south pole tilted toward the sun
   c) when north pole tilted away from the sun
   d) all of these
2. Pakistan is located in…
   a) northern hemisphere
   b) southern hemisphere
   c) on equator
3. Australia is located in…
   a) northern hemisphere
   b) southern hemisphere
   c) on equator
   d) none of these
4. When it is winter in Pakistan, which season will there be in Australia?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) autumn
5. When it is summer in Pakistan, which season will be there in Australia?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring
6. In between summer and winter on northern hemisphere, which season will be there in the northern hemisphere?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) autumn or fall
   d) spring
7. In between winter and summer on northern hemisphere, which season will be there in the northern hemisphere?
   a) winter
   b) summer
   c) spring

1. If 20 kg of mass is lifted from earth to moon, what is its mass on moon?
   a) 20 kg
   b) 2 kg
   c) 4 kg
   d) 3.2 kg
2. If the value of g on a planet is 25 N/kg then what is weight of 2 kg body on it?
   a) 25 N
   b) 50 N
   c) 75 N
   d) 150 N

Explanation: W = mg
W (planet) = 2 kg × 25 N/kg
W (planet) = 50 N

1. If it is spring in southern hemisphere of earth then which weather is in northern hemisphere?
   a) summer
   b) winter
   c) autumn
2. Which of the following is involved in producing tides in ocean?
   a) gravitational pull of moon on earth
   b) gravitational pull of sun on earth
   c) rotation of the earth
   d) all of these

Answer Key

103					104						105				106							107						108						109								110					111								112
c					a						e				b							C						b						b								a					b								a
113		114					115				116			117					118			119				120			121					122				123					124				125					126						127
c		d					a				c			b					e			b				e			b					e				c					c				e					c						d
129	130					131				132			133				134			135				136			137					138				139				140					141				142					143					144
d	a					b				d			c				e			b				c			b					b				c				e					d				b					e					b
145	146					147				148			149				150			151				152			153					154				155				156					157				158					159					160
d	b					a				b			b				b			b				b			b					b				b				b					b				b					b					b
161				162					163				164					165					166				167						168				169								170					171						172
c				b					d				c					b					a				c						b				a								b					a						c
177	178					179				180			181				182			183				184			185				186					187			188					189				190					191						192
a	b					b				b			b				c			a				b			d				c					d			c					b				a					b						b
193			194					195				196				197					198				199					200					201						202					203					204						205
b			b					a				b				b					a				c					a					b						c					a					a						b

GENERAL SCIENCE CLASS-8ᵀᴴ

Unit-1

ECOLOGY

Definition: Ecology is the study of the environment and helps us understand how organisms live with each other in unique physical environments.

MCQs

1. Life is present only on ……………….. planet.
   a) Earth
   b) Neptune
   c) Venus
   d) Mars
2. Living organisms depend on ……………..
   a) plants
   b) animals
   c) each other
   d) none of these
3. Living organisms interact with ……………..
   a) living
   b) non-living
   c) plants
   d) none of these
4. The study of interaction between living and non-living things is called ……..
   a) biology
   b) chemistry
   c) ecology
   d) cell biology

 

Oxygen Cycle

Oxygen cycle refers to the movement of oxygen through the atmosphere (air), biosphere (plants and animals), and the lithosphere (the Earth’s crust).

1. …………. cycle plays a very important role in the existence of life on the earth.
   a) Nitrogen
   b) Carbon
   c) Oxygen
2. Few billion years ago, there was no free molecular …………. in the atmosphere.
   a) nitrogen
   b) carbon
   c) oxygen
3. Today, Earth’s atmosphere contains ……. % oxygen.
   a) 0.03
   b) 21
   c) 78
   d) 0.9
4. Oxygen is the large product of ……. by plants.
   a) respiration
   b) decomposition
   c) photosynthesis
   d) all of these

Explanation

Photosynthesis, the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy. During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.

Process of Photosynthesis

1. Plants use …….. to make food and release oxygen gas. 

1. a) nitrogen dioxide 
2. b) carbon dioxide 
3. c) Sulphur dioxide 
4. d) none of these 

 

1. Both plants and animals use ………. for respiration.
   a) nitrogen
   b) carbon
   c) water
   d) oxygen
2. All organisms use oxygen in their respiration process to get ………
   a) respiration
   b) fuel
   c) food
   d) all of these

Carbon Cycle

The carbon cycle is nature’s way of reusing carbon atoms, which travel from the atmosphere into organisms in the Earth and then back into the atmosphere over and over again. Most carbon is stored in rocks and sediments, while the rest is stored in the ocean, atmosphere, and living organisms.

Carbon Cycle Diagram

1. Carbon is constantly being removed from and released into the environment in the form of ………
   a) carbonates
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) bicarbonates
   d) carbon monoxide

Explanation: Carbon dioxide is used in photosynthesis and released in respiration.

1. The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is ……… %
   a) 0.04
   b) 21
   c) 78
   d) 0.9
2. Plants absorb carbon dioxide to make ……… by the process of photosynthesis.
   a) organic food
   b) urea
   c) nitrates
   d) all of these

Explanation: Organic food means carbohydrate, which is in the form of glucose.

1. Animals get carbon in the form of ………
   a) organic food
   b) urea
   c) nitrates
   d) all of these
2. Which of the following process/es releases carbon dioxide back into the environment by animals and plants?
   a) respiration
   b) nitration
   c) photosynthesis
   d) all of these
3. A chemical reaction between substances and oxygen in which CO₂, heat, and light are generated is called a ……… reaction.
   a) respiration
   b) decomposition
   c) combustion
   d) all of these
4. Animals and plants buried under the Earth’s crust are converted into ………
   a) oil
   b) fossil fuel
   c) food
   d) gas
5. The combustion of fossil fuels in factories, automobiles, and houses is adding up ……… in the atmosphere.
   a) carbonates
   b) carbon dioxide
   c) carbon monoxide
   d) bicarbonates
6. The oxygen cycle is interconnected with which cycle given below?
   a) nitrogen
   b) carbon
   c) water
   d) chlorine
7. The level of oxygen and carbon dioxide is maintained by ………
   a) photosynthesis
   b) respiration
   c) decomposition
   d) both a and b

Global Warming

Global warming is the long-term heating of Earth’s surface observed since the pre-industrial period (between 1850 and 1900) due to human activities, primarily fossil fuel burning, which increases heat-trapping greenhouse gas levels in Earth’s atmosphere. This term is not interchangeable with the term “climate change.”

 

1. The increase in average ……… is called global warming.
   a) humidity
   b) pressure
   c) temperature
   d) acidity
2. The global temperature has increased by ……… °C in the last 100 years.
   a) 1
   b) 2
   c) 5
   d) 10
3. Which of the following population is a major contributor to global warming?
   a) plants
   b) animals
   c) human
   d) insects
4. Which of the following is/are the leading cause/s of global warming?
   a) combustion of fossil fuels
   b) deforestation
   c) plantation of new forests
   d) both a and b
5. Fossil fuels include ………
   a) coal
   b) oil
   c) gas
   d) all of these

 

1. The leading greenhouse gas is ………
   a) oxygen
   b) methane
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) ozone
2. The unplanned removal of trees on a large scale is called ………
   a) afforestation
   b) reforestation
   c) deforestation
   d) all of these

Explanation: Deforestation is the purposeful clearing of forested land. Throughout history and into modern times, forests have been razed to make space for agriculture and animal grazing, and to obtain wood for fuel, manufacturing, and construction. Deforestation has greatly altered landscapes around the world.

1. The major cause of deforestation is/are ………
   a) urbanization
   b) infrastructure development
   c) timber and wood for fuel
   d) all of these

Interactions in Ecosystem

1. ……… occurs when living organisms have to use common resources for their survival.
   a) predation
   b) competition
   c) symbiosis
   d) none

Explanation: Ecological competition is the struggle between two organisms for the same resources within an environment.

1. Competition occurs among the members of ……… species.
   a) same
   b) different
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these
2. Animals compete for ………
   a) food
   b) water
   c) space
   d) all of these
3. Plants compete for ………
   a) water and minerals
   b) light
   c) root space
   d) all of these
4. In ……… one organism attacks, actively kills, and feeds on another organism.
   a) predation
   b) competition
   c) symbiosis
   d) none

Explanation: In predation, one organism kills and consumes another. Predation provides energy to prolong life and promote the reproduction of the organism that does the killing, the predator, to the detriment of the organism being consumed, the prey, Predation influences organisms at two ecological levels. 

 

1. In predation, one which attacks and kills another organism is called ………
   a) prey
   b) parasite
   c) host
   d) predator

Explanation: e.g. lion is a predator

1. When a lion hunts and eats deer, the lion is a
   a) predator
   b) consumer
   c) insulator
   d) all of these
2. In the following food chain:
   sunlight → Grass → Rabbit → Lion
   The relation of lion to rabbit is an example of:
   (NTS PST – P-2—- (date not confirm))
   a) Predation
   b) Parasitism
   c) Mutualism
   d) Production
3. The animal which is hunted in predation is called ………
   a) prey
   b) parasite
   c) host
   d) predator

Explanation: e.g. deer is a prey of many predators like lion, tiger etc.

1. The relation between predator and prey is called ………
   a) predation
   b) parasite
   c) insulator
   d) none of these
2. Some plants prey upon insects and small animals to fulfill their ……… deficiency.
   a) nitrogen
   b) carbon
   c) water
   d) oxygen

Explanation: Such plants are known as carnivorous plants.

1. Which of the following plant/s is/are predator plants?
   a) pitcher plant
   b) venus flytrap
   c) eucalyptus
   d) both a and b

 

…… members of two different species live together and at least one gets benefit from the other.
a) predation
b) competition
c) symbiosis
d) none

Explanation: Symbiosis refers to the close relationship amongst two different organisms or living things belonging to different species.

1. Symbiosis his ……. types. 

1. a) two 
2. b) three 
3. c) four 
4. d) five 

 

1. A relationship in which two living organisms live together and depend on each other is called
   a) oxidation
   b) mutualism
   c) predation
   d) parasitism
2. The interaction between flower and butterfly is
   a) mutualism
   b) parasitism
   c) commensalism
   d) predation

Explanation: It is the relationship between two organisms in which both are benefitted and none of them is harmed. Some type of bacteria lives in the intestine of the human being.

1. The symbiotic interaction in which both members get benefit is called ………
   a) mutualism
   b) parasitism
   c) commensalism
   d) predation
2. Microorganisms in the gut of herbivores help to digest cellulose and get food and shelter in return. What type of symbiosis is this?
   a) mutualism
   b) parasitism
   c) commensalism
   d) predation
3. Some ……… live in the intestine of man in symbiotic relationship.
   a) fungi
   b) virus
   c) bacteria
   d) worms
4. The symbiotic bacteria in the intestines of man get food and shelter and provide us with some ……… in return.
   a) proteins
   b) carbohydrates
   c) vitamins
   d) DNA
5. Lichens are a mutualism formed between fungi and various groups of ………
   a) Amoeba
   b) Lichens
   c) Fungi
   d) Algae
6. The symbiotic interaction in which one member gets benefit without any benefit or harm to other partner is called ………

1. a) mutualism 
2. b) parasitism 
3. c) commensalism 
4. d) predation 

Explanation: In commensalism, only one organism benefits, while the other is neither benefited nor harmed. 

 

1. Birds building nests on trees. It is ………
   a) mutualism
   b) parasitism
   c) commensalism
   d) predation
2. Epiphytes are small ………
   a) animals
   b) plants
   c) fungi
   d) bacteria
3. Epiphytes grow large trees for space to get better light. It is ………
   a) mutualism
   b) parasitism
   c) commensalism
   d) predation

Explanation: Epiphytic plants grow well in high humidity levels.

 

Flow of Energy in an Ecosystem

1. An ecological system formed by the interaction of living organisms and their non-living environment is called ………
   a) environment
   b) ecosystem
   c) reproductive system
   d) food pyramid
2. How many kinds of living organisms are there in an ecosystem?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) six

Explanation: 1. Producers, 2. Consumers, and 3. Decomposers

1. Which of the following living organisms is/are present in an ecosystem?
   a) producers
   b) consumers
   c) decomposers
   d) all of these
2. Which of the following has/have the ability to produce their own food?
   a) producers
   b) consumers
   c) decomposers
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following organisms is/are included in producers?
   a) plants
   b) fungi
   c) algae
   d) both a and c
4. Why are plants and algae included in producers?
   a) they eat on other organisms
   b) they produce their food by photosynthesis
   c) they get their food from dead bodies
   d) they reproduce asexually
5. Photosynthesis is carried out by ………
   a) producers
   b) consumers
   c) decomposers
   d) all of these
6. Which of the following organisms get their food and energy by feeding on other organisms?
   a) producers
   b) consumers
   c) decomposers
   d) all of these
7. Which of the following organisms are included in consumers?
   a) plants
   b) animals
   c) fungi
   d) all of these
8. Why are animals included in the consumer group?
   a) they cannot produce their own food
   b) they produce their food by photosynthesis
   c) they get their food from dead bodies
   d) they reproduce asexually

Explanation: Animals lack chlorophyll in their cells and cannot carry out photosynthesis.

1. Which of the following is classified as primary consumers?
   a) herbivores
   b) carnivores
   c) top carnivores
   d) saprophytes

Explanation: Those animals which directly feed on plants are called herbivores (primary consumers). Example: cow, goat, rabbit, deer, elephant, etc.

 

1. Which of the following animals are included in herbivores?
   a) plant eaters
   b) meat eaters
   c) dead body eaters
   d) all of these
2. Secondary and tertiary consumers are…
   a) green plant eaters
   b) meat eaters
   c) dead body eaters
   d) all of these
3. Secondary consumers are those which eat upon:
   a) green plants
   b) herbivores
   c) dead organic matter
   d) carnivores

Explanation: Those animals which eat flesh of herbivores are called carnivores (secondary consumers). Example: lion, tiger, spider, etc.

1. Tertiary consumers are those which eat upon secondary consumers e.g. lion
   a) green plants
   b) herbivores
   c) dead organic matter
   d) carnivores

Explanation: Tertiary consumers are those which eat upon secondary consumers.

1. Living place of an organism is called…
   a) Habitat
   b) Environment
   c) Ecosystem
   d) Species
2. Many food chains unite to make a…
   a) Food cycle
   b) Food pyramid
   c) Food web
   d) None of these
3. An animal that feeds on plants is called…
   a) Secondary consumer
   b) Primary consumer
   c) Decomposer
   d) Producer
4. Which type of feeding relationship in an ecosystem is shown in the following figure?
   a) Feeding sequence
   b) Food chain
   c) Food web
   d) Nutrition chart
5. In winter, most cold-blooded animals disappear because they…
   a) Die
   b) Hibernate
   c) Migrate
   d) Eaten away
6. The meat eaters are also known as…
   a) Herbivores
   b) Carnivores
   c) Omnivores
   d) Producers
7. Cats, dogs, lions, and human beings are examples of…
   a) Herbivores
   b) Carnivores
   c) Omnivores
   d) Producers
8. Which of the following depend on both plants and animals for their food?
   a) Herbivores
   b) Carnivores
   c) Omnivores
   d) Producers
9. Humans, crows, and sparrows are examples of…
   a) Herbivores
   b) Carnivores
   c) Omnivores
   d) Producers
10. Sparrow and bear are:
    a) Herbivores
    b) Omnivores
    c) Carnivores
    d) Producers
11. Cows, goats, sheep, and buffaloes are examples of…
    a) Herbivores
    b) Carnivores
    c) Omnivores
    d) Producers
12. The study of the relationship of living organisms with their environment is…
    a) Ecology
    b) Social Biology
    c) Etymology
    d) Physiology
13. Which of the following is the basic functional unit of the environment?
    a) Ecosystem
    b) Ecology
    c) Abiotic
    d) Biotic
14. ……… is the study of the relationship of living organisms with their environment.
    a) Ecosystem
    b) Ecology
    c) Habitat
    d) Chain
15. How many components of the ecosystem?
    a) Two (Biotic & Abiotic)
    b) Three
    c) Four
    d) Five
16. Which of the following is/are the components of biotic?
    a) Animals
    b) Plants
    c) Microorganisms
    d) All of these
17. Which of the following is/are the components of abiotic?
    a) Light
    b) Water
    c) Air
    d) All of these
18. Plants obtain nutrients from the…
    a) Soil
    b) Air
    c) Sun
    d) None of these

 

87) Plants obtain carbon dioxide from the…
a) Soil
b) Air
c) Sun
d) None of these

88) Those animals which are active during the night are called…
a) Nocturnal animals
b) Diurnal
c) Crepuscular
d) None of these

89) Those animals which are active during the day are called…
a) Nocturnal animals
b) Diurnal
c) Crepuscular
d) None of these

90) Animals that are active at intermittent times during both night and day are…
a) Cathemeral
b) Nocturnal animals
c) Crepuscular
d) None of these

91) ________ animals are most active at dawn and dusk, when the sun is rising and setting.
a) Cathemeral
b) Nocturnal animals
c) Crepuscular
d) None of these

92) Which of the following environments is very cold and windy?
a) Grassland
b) Desert land
c) Tundra
d) Wetland

93) In an ecosystem, the energy flow takes place in this way…
a) Sunlight, Producers, Decomposers, Consumers
b) Sunlight, Decomposers, Consumers, Producers
c) Sunlight, Producers, Consumers, Decomposers

94) _________ is a way through which an animal’s body helps it to survive or live in its environment.
a) Hibernation
b) Adaptation
c) Conversion
d) None of these

95) Animals move from one habitat to another to survive. This is called…
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Camouflage

96) Whales, butterflies, bats, hummingbirds, robins, geese, and ducks are examples of…
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Dormancy

97) Which of the following is a state of inactivity in animals during the winter season?
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Dormancy

98) Bears, skunks, frogs, and chipmunks are examples of…
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Dormancy

99) Which of the following is similar to hibernation but occurs in some animals during summer or dry periods?
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Dormancy

100) Amphibians, reptiles, and snails are examples of…
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Dormancy

101) _________ is a way of concealing when an animal blends with its surrounding environment to help it hide.
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Camouflage

102) Chameleon is an example of…
a) Migration
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Camouflage

103) Which of the following is a period of inactivity in plants? 

1. a) dormancy 
2. b) hibernation 
3. c) Aestivation 
4. d) camouflage 

 

104) Trees that lose their leaves are dormant in winter. E.g., Miltonia is an example of…
a) Dormancy
b) Hibernation
c) Aestivation
d) Camouflage

105) Food chains always begin with a…
a) Consumer
b) Producer
c) Decomposer
d) All of these

106) Which of the following is the primary source of energy in a food chain?
a) Plants
b) Animals
c) Sun
d) None of these

107) A food web is a network of more than ______ food chains.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

108) Which of the following organisms are included in decomposers?
a) Plants
b) Animals
c) Fungi and bacteria
d) All of these

109) Why are fungi and bacteria included in decomposers?
a) They cannot produce their own food
b) They produce their food by photosynthesis
c) They get their food from dead bodies
d) They reproduce asexually

Explanation: Decomposers lack chlorophyll in their cells and cannot carry out photosynthesis.

 

110) Which of the following is NOT a decomposer?
a) Mushrooms
b) Puffballs
c) Salmonella
d) Mustard plant

111) The feeding relationship between organisms can be represented in a…
a) Ecological cycle
b) Food chain
c) Ecological pyramid
d) None

112) A food chain…
a) Begins at producers
b) Begins at a consumer
c) Begins at a decomposer
d) Ends at a producer

113) A/an ______ is a series of organisms through which energy is transferred in the form of food.
a) Ecological cycle
b) Food chain
c) Ecological pyramid
d) None of these

Explanation: The food chain describes who eats whom in the wild. Every living thing, from one-celled algae to giant blue whales, needs food to survive. Each food chain is a possible pathway that energy and nutrients can follow through the ecosystem.

 

114) Which of the following eats upon producers and gets their food and energy?
a) Primary consumers

1. b) secondary consumers 
2. c) tertiary consumers 
3. d) decomposers 

 

115) Which of the following eats upon primary consumers (herbivores) and get their food and energy?
a) Primary consumers
b) Secondary consumers
c) Tertiary consumers
d) Decomposers

116) Which of the following eats upon secondary consumers (primary carnivores) and get their food and energy?
a) Primary consumers
b) Secondary consumers
c) Tertiary consumers
d) Decomposers

117) Which of the following is interlinked with the food chain in an ecosystem?
a) Ecological cycle
b) Food web
c) Ecological pyramid
d) None of these

Explanation: A food web consists of all the food chains in a single ecosystem. Each living thing in an ecosystem is part of multiple food chains. Each food chain is one possible path that energy and nutrients may take as they move through the ecosystem.

118) Which of the following is lost to the environment as food is transferred from one level to the next level?
a) Food
b) Mass
c) Energy
d) Light

119) Energy may be lost to the environment. What is/are the reasons?
a) As heat during respiration at each level
b) In uneaten and undigested food
c) Waste products excreted by consumers
d) All of these

120) More and more energy is lost as we go ______ a food chain.
a) Up
b) Down
c) Both a and b
d) None of these

121) Which of the following level has the highest energy?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) All of these

122) Which of the following level has the lowest energy?
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c) Decomposers
d) All of these

123) The total energy in the various levels of a food chain can be represented in the form of a…
a) Rectangle
b) Triangle
c) Pyramid
d) Circle

Explanation: A pyramid of energy shows how much energy is retained in the form of new biomass at each trophic level, while a pyramid of biomass shows how much biomass (the amount of living or organic matter present in an organism) is present in the organisms.

 

124) Where is the pyramid of energy broader?
a) Top
b) Center
c) Same everywhere
d) Base

Explanation: At the base of the pyramid, producers are present which have the highest energy.

125) Where is the pyramid of energy narrowest?
a) Top
b) Center
c) Same everywhere
d) Base

Explanation: At the top of the pyramid, tertiary consumers are present which have the lowest energy.

Here is the transcribed text from the image:

 

Changes in an Ecosystem and its Effects:

126) Which of the following is considered as the medium of life in an ecosystem?
a) Soil
b) Temperature
c) Acids
d) Water

127) Which of the following directly depends on water?
a) Plants
b) Animals
c) All forms of life
d) Fungi

128) How much aquatic life is present on Earth?
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 90%

Explanation: Aquatic life means those organisms which are living in water.

129) Which of the following is/are a critical part of the global water cycle?
a) Forests
b) Wetlands
c) Grassland
d) All of these

Explanation: The water cycle, also known as the hydrologic cycle or the hydrological cycle, is a biogeochemical cycle that describes the continuous movement of water on, above, and below the surface of the Earth.

130) Which of the following affects the ecosystems on Earth?
a) Flood
b) Drought
c) Sunlight
d) Both a & b

131) Which of the following is more disturbing to the global water cycle?
a) Plants
b) Animals
c) Cyclones
d) Humans

132) Living organisms are adapted to their…
a) Home
b) Habitat
c) Environment
d) None

133) Which of the following are new organisms brought into an ecological environment?
a) Old species
b) Extinct species
c) Introduced species
d) All of these

134) Introduced species in an environment affects
a) Plants
b) Animals
c) All existing species
d) Fungi

Explanation: An introduced species (also known as an exotic species) is an organism that is not native to the place or area where it is considered introduced and instead has been accidentally or deliberately transported to the new location by human activity.

135) Which of the following is the leading cause of species extinction?
a) Global warming
b) Pollution
c) Hunting
d) Deforestation

136) Which of the following will increase in number if a predator is hunted?
a) Human
b) Plants
c) Its prey
d) All of these

137) Migration may alter the structure of already settled…
a) Species
b) Community
c) Population
d) Ecosystem

Explanation: Species migration is the seasonal event where animals move from one preferred location to the next as the ecosystem changes throughout the year. This travel takes a huge amount of energy for the migrating animals, but there are survival advantages.

 

138) Which of the following are associated with a balanced ecosystem to which humans have access?
a) Clean air
b) Clean water
c) Fertile land
d) All of these

139) To save our planet, what measure should be taken?
a) Reforestation
b) Afforestation
c) Control pollution
d) All of these

140) ______ is the plantation of trees where an already existing forest has been destroyed by some cause.
a) Reforestation
b) Afforestation
c) Gardening
d) Deforestation

 

141) Trees are the sink of which gas?
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Sulfur oxide

142) Reforestation can reduce…
a) Water pollution
b) Land pollution
c) Global warming
d) All of these

143) ______ is the plantation of forest on land where there was no forest before.
a) Reforestation
b) Afforestation
c) Gardening
d) Horticulture

144) The addition of harmful substances in the environment is called ……….

1. a) global warming 
2. b) acid rain 
3. c) ozone depletion 
4. d) pollution 

 

145) The unjustified use of ______ has damaged the environment badly.
a) Water
b) Resources
c) Mineral
d) Fuel

146) Which of the following is/are the major pollution-causing substances?
a) Harmful gases and dust
b) Pollutants from factories and automobiles
c) Sewage and use of plastics
d) All of these

147) Which of the following type/s of pollution affected all forms of life?
a) Air pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Land pollution
d) Both a and b

148) Which of the following type/s of pollution control will help to conserve endangered species?
a) Air pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Land pollution
d) Both a and b

149) What is the step to be taken to reduce air pollution?
a) Increase use of fuel
b) Thermal power plant
c) Shift to clean energy sources
d) All of these

150) The use of wind and solar energy is replacing ______ power station.
a) Coal
b) Water
c) Oil
d) Both a and c

151) Which types of vehicles are becoming popular day by day?
a) Fuel
b) Coal
c) Thermal
d) Electrical

152) Protection of clean ______ sources is a challenge.
a) Water
b) Air
c) Land
d) Oil

153) What is/are the steps to control water pollution?
a) Water conservation
b) Treatment of sewage from homes and factories
c) Less use of plastic
d) All of these

154) Which of the following maintain the health of the ecosystem?
a) Fungi
b) Plants
c) Animals
d) Both b and c

155) What is the sign of an out-of-balance ecosystem?
a) Decrease of food
b) Increase of pollution
c) Increase of species
d) Endangering of a species

156) Who contributes towards growing the population of endangered species?
a) Government
b) Local communities and NGOs
c) Individuals
d) All of these

157) What is the benefit of the awareness campaign at getting more people involved in the conservation work which is a very effective way for ______ conservation?
a) Species
b) Population
c) Community
d) Biosphere

158) Which of the following is included in endangered animals?
a) Horse
b) Donkey
c) Panda
d) All of these

159) Which of the following is included in endangered animals?
a) Horse
b) Donkey
c) Pangolin
d) All of these

160) Photosynthesis and ______ run in opposite ways to keep oxygen and carbon dioxide in balance.
a) Decomposition
b) Respiration
c) Burning
d) All of these

161) What is the main reason behind global warming?
a) Overpopulation
b) Pollution
c) Ozone depletion
d) Deforestation

162) All pathogens are ______.
a) Saprophytes
b) Parasites
c) Mutualistic
d) None of these

Exercise:

163) The process which consumes carbon dioxide and produces oxygen is ______.
a) Respiration
b) Combustion
c) Photosynthesis
d) Fossilization

164) Greenhouse gases ______.

1. a) burn to add heat 
2. b) trap heat 
3. c) help heat to escape
4. d) do not allow heat to reach earth surface 

 

165) The interaction in which both members get benefits from each other is ______.
a) Mutualism
b) Predation
c) Commensalism
d) Competition

166) The organism that kills the other for food is called ______.
a) Prey
b) Parasite

1. c) Pathogen
   d) Predator

167) Rhizobium is a group of bacteria which live in the roots of some plants. They fix nitrogen for the plant and get food in return. This relationship is ______.
a) Parasitism
b) Commensalism
c) Mutualism
d) Competition

168) In a food chain, which type of organisms utilizes most of the sun’s energy coming to Earth?
a) Primary consumers
b) Producers
c) Secondary consumers
d) Tertiary consumers

169) In an ecosystem, the energy flow is always ______.
a) Bidirectional
b) Random
c) Down in pyramid
d) Unidirectional

170) Carnivorous plants feed on insects because these plants grow on marshy places deficient in ______.
a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Calcium
d) Iron

171) Greenhouse traps ______.
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Heat
c) Light
d) Water

172) The most common non-biodegradable pollutant is ______.
a) Wood
b) Leaf litter
c) Bodies of dead animals
d) Plastic bags

 

Unit No: 02

Human Nervous System

Definition:

Your nervous system is your body’s command center. Originating from your brain, it controls your movements, thoughts, and automatic responses to the world around you. It also controls other body systems and processes, such as digestion, breathing, and sexual development (puberty).

 

MCQs

1. Why do heartbeats and breathing increase during exercise?
   a) To expire carbon dioxide
   b) To excrete urea
   c) To meet energy requirements
   d) To gain ammonia
2. Organs cannot work properly by themselves; they require ______.
   a) Oxygen
   b) Carbon dioxide
   c) Signals
   d) None of these

Neurons:

Neurons (also called neurones or nerve cells) are the fundamental units of the brain and nervous system. They are responsible for receiving sensory input from the external world, sending motor commands to our muscles, and transforming and relaying electrical signals at every step in between.

Structure of Neuron

(An image of a neuron is shown with labeled parts: Dendrite, Soma, Nucleus, Axon, Myelin Sheath, Schwann Cell, and Nerve Ending.)

1. The nervous system is made up of cells called ______.
   a) Neuron
   b) Nephron
   c) Cells
   d) All of these
2. Which of the following conduct messages in the body?
   a) Neuron
   b) Nephron
   c) Cells
   d) All of these
3. The following image shows the structure of ______.
   a) Neuron
   b) Thalamus
   c) Pons
   d) Cerebellum
4. The basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system is ______.
   a) Cell
   b) Neuron
   c) Bones
   d) None of these
5. All parts of the nervous system, i.e., brain, spinal cord, and nerves, are made up of ______.
   a) Nerve impulses
   b) Neurons
   c) Bones
   d) None of these
6. Neurons conduct messages in the form of ______.
   a) Electrical signals
   b) Blood
   c) Lymph
   d) All of these
7. Electrical signals are also known as ______.
   a) Current
   b) Impulses
   c) Neurons
   d) Nephrons

Explanation:

The signal that travels along the length of a nerve fiber and ends in the release of neurotransmitters. Nerve impulses are the means by which information is transmitted along the neuron and throughout the nervous system.

 

1. Which of the following parts of a neuron transmits nerve impulses to the cell body?
   a) Dendrite
   b) Cell body
   c) Axon
   d) None of these
2. Thread-like projections on the cell body are called ______.
   a) Axon
   b) Myelin sheath
   c) Cell body
   d) Dendrites

• Which of the following parts of a neuron is thick and has a nucleus?
  a) Dendrite
  b) Cell body
  c) Axon
  d) None of these

• Most of the cytoplasm is present in ______.
  a) Dendrite
  b) Cell body
  c) Axon
  d) None of these

• Which of the following parts of a neuron transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body?
  a) Dendrite
  b) Cell body
  c) Axon
  d) None of these

Explanation: Neuron consists of the parts

1) Cell body 2) Axon

The cell body is the thicker region of the neuron containing the nucleus and most of the cytoplasm. Axon is a long projection that carries impulses away from the cell body. Neuron has a single axon.

1. How many types are there of neurons?
   a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Six

Explanation:

1. Sensory neuron
2. Motor neuron
3. Interneuron

1. Which of the following types of neurons transmit nerve impulses from receptors to the central nervous system?
   a) Sensory
   b) Motor
   c) Interneuron
   d) All of these

Explanation:
The central nervous system means the brain and spinal cord.

• Sensory neurons carry messages towards ______.
  a) Muscles
  b) Muscles and glands
  c) Sense organs
  d) Brain and spinal cord

• Which of the following types of neurons transmit nerve impulses from the CNS to effectors?
  a) Sensory
  b) Motor
  c) Interneuron
  d) All of these

Explanation:
Effectors in the human body are muscles and glands.

1. Which of the following types of neurons make up the central nervous system?
   a) Sensory
   b) Motor
   c) Interneuron
   d) All of these

 

1. Any change in the environment that has some influence on a living organism is called ______.
   a) Impulse
   b) Stimulus
   c) Change
   d) None of these
2. A visual stimulus from the eyes is carried to the brain by ______.
   a) Cornea
   b) Yellow spot
   c) Optical nerve
   d) None of these
3. A sense organ that receives a stimulus is called ______.
   a) Receptor
   b) Effector
   c) Coordinator
   d) All of these

 

Explanation: A receptor organ is one that detects changes in the external or internal environment. A listing of these organs and the types of sensations that originate in them far exceeds the traditional sensory organs and sensory modalities.

 

1. Which of the following is/are an example of receptor(s)?
   a) Eye
   b) Ear
   c) Skin
   d) All of these
2. The organ that is capable of responding to a stimulus is called ______.
   a) Receptor
   b) Effector
   c) Coordinator
   d) All of these
3. Muscles and glands in the body act as ______.
   a) Receptors
   b) Effectors
   c) Spinal nerves
   d) Cranial nerves
4. Which of the following is/are effectors?
   a) Muscles
   b) Glands
   c) Brain
   d) Both a and b
5. The change in activity of the organism according to a stimulus is called ______.
   a) Impulse
   b) Response
   c) Change
   d) None of these

Parts of the Human Nervous System:

The nervous system has two main parts: The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is made up of nerves that branch off from the spinal cord and extend to all parts of the body.

• Which of the following has a very fast and precise method of communication in the form of the nervous system?
  a) Plants
  b) Fungi
  c) Human
  d) Bacteria

• The human nervous system can be divided into ______ parts.
  a) Two
  b) Three
  c) Four
  d) Five

Explanation:

1. Central Nervous System 2. Peripheral Nervous System 

• Which of the following is/are part of the central nervous system?
  a) Brain
  b) Spinal cord
  c) Nerves
  d) Both a and b

• Central nervous system is divided into ______ organs.
  a) Two
  b) Three
  c) Four
  d) Five

Explanation:

1. Brain 2. Spinal Cord

Nervous System

• Which of the following is/are part of the peripheral nervous system?
  a) Brain
  b) Spinal cord
  c) Nerves
  d) Both a and b

• Which of the following arise from the spinal cord?
  a) Receptor
  b) Effector
  c) Nerves
  d) None of these

Working of the Nervous System:

1. Different stimuli are detected by ______.
   a) Receptor
   b) Effector
   c) Coordinator
   d) All of these
2. The information is conveyed to the CNS through 

1. a) receptor 
2. b) sensory neuron 
3. c) motor neuron 
4. d) interneuron 

 

1. Which of the following analyzes the stimulus and takes a decision?
   a) Brain
   b) Spinal cord
   c) CNS
   d) None of these
2. CNS orders to ______ to act accordingly.
   a) Receptor
   b) Effector
   c) Coordinator
   d) All of these
3. An organ system in the human body which carries messages from one part of the body to another and makes us feel and react to things and situations is called ______.
   a) Nervous system
   b) Peripheral nervous system
   c) Contact system
   d) Sensory neurons system

Brain:

The brain is a complex organ that controls thought, memory, emotion, touch, motor skills, vision, breathing, temperature, hunger, and every process that regulates our body.

• Which of the following is protected by the skull?
  a) Heart
  b) Brain
  c) Spinal cord
  d) Lungs

• Skull is also known as ______.
  a) Scapula
  b) Febia
  c) Cranium
  d) Orbit

• How many parts are present in the brain?
  a) Two
  b) Three
  c) Four
  d) Six

Explanation:

1. Forebrain 2. Midbrain 3. Hindbrain

• Which of the following organ is the most complex structure in the universe?
  a) Heart
  b) Brain
  c) Computer
  d) Lungs

• Which part of the brain is the largest?
  a) Forebrain
  b) Midbrain
  c) Hindbrain
  d) None of these

• How many subdivisions does the forebrain have?
  a) Two
  b) Three
  c) Four
  d) Six

Explanation:

1. Cerebrum 2. Thalamus 3. Hypothalamus

• Cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus are part of ______.
  a) Forebrain
  b) Midbrain
  c) Hindbrain
  d) None of these

• Which animal has the most advanced cerebrum?
  a) Elephant
  b) Monkey
  c) Human
  d) Crow

• How many cerebral hemispheres are present in the cerebrum?
  a) Two
  b) Three
  c) Four
  d) Six

Explanation:

1. Right cerebral hemisphere and left cerebral hemisphere

• Which part of the brain controls consciousness (our sense of self)?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Hypothalamus

• Which part of the brain controls memory and intelligence?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Hypothalamus

• Which part of the brain is the site of learning, reasoning, and personality?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Hypothalamus

• Emotions and will are controlled by the ______ of the brain.
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Hypothalamus

Explanation:

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. It is responsible for memory, speech, the senses, and emotional response. It is divided into four sections called lobes: the frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital. Each handles a specific segment of the cerebrum’s jobs.  

 

1. Response such as hunger, pain, thirst, etc., are associated with which part of the brain ………
   a) Cerebrum
   b) Cerebellum
   c) Pons
   d) Medulla
2. Which part of the brain plays a critical role in the processing of perception?
   a) Medulla
   b) Pons
   c) Thalamus
   d) Midbrain

Explanation:
Inside the cerebrum, there is a small structure called the thalamus. It acts as a processing center between the body and the cerebrum.

• Which organ receives sensory information from the receptor organs and then sends it to the specific part of the cerebrum?
  a) Medulla
  b) Pons
  c) Thalamus
  d) Midbrain

Explanation:
Your thalamus is an egg-shaped structure in the middle of your brain. It’s known as a relay station of all incoming motor movement and sensory information—hearing, taste, sight, and touch (but not smell) from your body to your brain.

• Which part of the forebrain controls body temperature?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Hypothalamus

• Which part of the forebrain controls appetite, water balance, and has centers to control mood and emotions such as aggression, rage, and fear?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Hypothalamus

Explanation:
Your hypothalamus, a structure deep in your brain, acts as your body’s smart control-coordinating center. Its main function is to keep your body in a stable-state called homeostasis. It does its job by directly influencing your autonomic nervous system or by managing hormones.

• At the base of the thalamus, which part of the forebrain regulates body temperature, hunger, and thirst?
  a) Cerebrum
  b) Thalamus
  c) Hypothalamus
  d) None of these

• Which of the following is part of the forebrain?
  a) Medulla oblongata
  b) Cerebellum
  c) Pons
  d) Hypothalamus

• Which of the following is not a part of the forebrain?
  a) Pons
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Hypothalamus

Explanation:
Your pons is a part of your brainstem, which links your brain to your spinal cord. That makes your pons a vital section of your nervous system, providing a route for signals to travel to and from your brain. Several neurotransmitters in your pons facilitate brain function, particularly sleep.

• Which of the following is not a part of the forebrain?
  a) Hypothalamus
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) All of these

• Which part of the brain is reduced in humans?
  a) Forebrain
  b) Midbrain
  c) Hindbrain
  d) None of these

• Which of the following serves as a link between the forebrain and the hindbrain?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Midbrain

• Which part of the brain controls the reflex movements of the eye muscles?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Midbrain

• Which part of the brain is associated with vision, hearing, sleep/wake cycle, and temperature regulation?
  a) Forebrain
  b) Midbrain
  c) Hindbrain
  d) None of these

• Which part of the brain is responsible for changing the size of the pupil to control the amount of light entering the eye?
  a) Forebrain
  b) Midbrain
  c) Hindbrain
  d) None of these

• When something like an insect comes toward our eye, we close the eye. Which part of the brain controls this?
  a) cerebellum
  b) cerebrum
  c) thalamus
  d) midbrain

Explanation: The midbrain, also called the mesencephalon, is a region of the developing vertebrate brain composed of the tectum and tegmentum. The midbrain serves important functions in motor movement, particularly movements of the eye, and in auditory and visual processing.

 

Explanation: The brainstem (middle of the brain) connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord. The brainstem includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

• Which of the following is not part of the midbrain?
  a) pons
  b) cerebrum
  c) thalamus
  d) all of these

• Hindbrain is subdivided into ____ parts.
  a) two
  b) three
  c) four
  d) six

Explanation:

1. Cerebellum 2. Pons 3. Medulla oblongata

 

• Cerebellum, Pons, and Medulla oblongata are parts of:
  a) Forebrain
  b) Midbrain
  c) Hindbrain
  d) None of these

• ______ is the second largest part of the brain.
  a) Pons
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Medulla oblongata
  d) Cerebellum

• The cerebellum is located between the cerebrum and the brainstem in the back of the head. It helps in:
  a) Breathing and controlling blood pressure
  b) Balance and coordination
  c) Voluntary movement
  d) Speech and hearing

• Which part of the brain controls the balance of the body?
  a) Cerebellum
  b) Cerebrum
  c) Thalamus
  d) Midbrain

Explanation: The cerebellum is located in the back of your brain. It helps with coordination and movement related to motor skills, especially involving the hands and feet. It also helps maintain posture, balance, and equilibrium.

• Which part connects the cerebellum to the rest of the brain?
  a) Medulla
  b) Pons
  c) Thalamus
  d) Midbrain

• Which one regulates breathing?
  a) Medulla oblongata
  b) Midbrain
  c) Pons
  d) Thymus

• Which part of the brain connects the rest of the brain with the spinal cord?
  a) Pons
  b) Medulla oblongata
  c) Cerebellum
  d) All of these

Explanation: Your medulla oblongata is the bottom-most part of your brain. Its location means it’s where your brain and spinal cord connect, making it a key conduit for nerve signals to and from your body. It also helps control vital processes like your heartbeat, breathing, and blood pressure.

• The involuntary activities like heart rate, breathing rate, swallowing, and vomiting are controlled by which part of the hindbrain?
  a) Medulla oblongata
  b) Pons
  c) Cerebellum
  d) All of these

• Heartbeat is controlled by:
  a) Cerebrum
  b) Cerebellum
  c) Medulla oblongata
  d) Hypothalamus

• Which of the following activity/activities is/are controlled by the medulla oblongata?
  a) Salivation
  b) Coughing
  c) Sneezing
  d) All of these

• Which of the following is not part of the hindbrain?

1. a) hypothalamus 
2. b) cerebrum 
3. c) thalamus 
4. d) all of these 

1. All of the following are part of the hindbrain EXCEPT:
   a) pons
   b) cerebrum
   c) medulla oblongata
   d) cerebellum
2. Which part of the brain keeps your heart beating?
   a) medulla oblongata
   b) pons
   c) cerebrum
   d) spinal cord
3. __________ connects the brain to the spinal cord?
   a) cerebrum
   b) cerebellum
   c) medulla oblongata
   d) pons
4. Which part of the nervous system will help you to keep balance while walking?
   a) spinal cord
   b) pons
   c) cerebellum
   d) medulla oblongata

 

Spinal Cord:

The spinal cord is a long, tube-like band of tissue. It connects your brain to your lower back. Your spinal cord carries nerve signals from your brain to your body and vice versa. These nerve signals help you feel sensations and move your body. Any damage to your spinal cord can affect your movement or function.

1. What is the shape of the spinal cord?
   a) cylinder
   b) rectangular
   c) circular
   d) fibrous
2. Which of the following protects the spinal cord?
   a) skull
   b) backbone
   c) scapula
   d) both a and c
3. Brain is connected to the body below the head region through __________.
   a) cerebellum
   b) medulla
   c) spinal cord
   d) cerebrum

Explanation: When spinal cords are damaged, messages cannot move between the brain and the rest of the body. These results in paralysis.

1. Which of the following parts of the nervous system controls the reflex actions?
   a) cerebellum
   b) medulla
   c) spinal cord
   d) cerebrum
2. When we touch a hot object, we pull our hand immediately. Which organ controls it?
   a) heart
   b) brain
   c) spinal cord
   d) receptor
3. How does the central part of the spinal cord look?
   a) grey
   b) creamy
   c) black
   d) white

Explanation: Grey matter makes up the outermost layer of the brain. The white matter and grey matter are similar as they are both essential sections of both the brain as well as the spinal cord.

1. How does the outer region of the spinal cord look?
   a) grey
   b) creamy
   c) black
   d) white

1. How does the central part of the brain look like?
   a) grey
   b) white
   c) black
   d) creamy

1. Which of the following structures is/are present in grey matter?
   a) cell bodies
   b) myelinated neurons
   c) non-myelinated neurons
   d) both a and c
2. Which of the following structure/s is/are present in white matter?
   a) cell bodies
   b) myelinated neurons
   c) non-myelinated neurons
   d) both a and b

Peripheral Nervous System:

• The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) is the collection of nerves that connects the central nervous system (CNS) to all your organ systems.
• The PNS uses sensory neurons to detect stimuli from inside and outside of your body and it uses motor neurons to carry signals from the CNS to other parts of the body and stimulate your muscles or other target organs.
• The PNS includes 12 pairs of cranial nerves that branch out from the brain and go to many places in the head, such as the ear, eyes, and face, etc.
• Pairs of spinal nerves branch out from the spinal cord.
• In short, the PNS is made up of a sensory system and motor system.
• The system of sensory nerves collects information from the body and its surroundings.

1. Peripheral nervous system consists of…………
   a) brain
   b) spinal cord
   c) nerves
   d) blood vessels
2. Peripheral nervous system connects the whole body with the:
   a) heart
   b) lungs
   c) brain
   d) kidneys
3. A nerve contains:
   a) many fibers of sensory neurons
   b) many fibers of motor neurons
   c) both sensory and motor protected in sheath
   d) all of these
4. The nerves which arise from the brain are called ______ nerves.
   a) sensory
   b) motor
   c) cranial
   d) spinal
5. How many cranial nerves are present in the human body?
   a) 12
   b) 31 pairs
   c) 12 pairs
   d) 31
6. The nerves which arise from the spinal cord are called ______ nerves.
   a) sensory
   b) motor
   c) cranial
   d) spinal
7. How many spinal nerves are present in the human body?
   a) 12
   b) 12 pairs
   c) 31
   d) 31 pairs
8. Animals respond to ______ as they have a nervous system.

1. a) heat 
2. b) light 
3. c) stimuli 
4. d) pressure 

1. Which part of the peripheral nervous system carries the impulses from the receptors to the central nervous system?
   a) sensory neurons
   b) motor neurons
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these
2. Which part of the peripheral nervous system carries the messages from the central nervous system to the effectors?
   a) sensory neurons
   b) motor neurons
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

Voluntary and Involuntary Actions:

A voluntary action is under the control of one’s will, meaning under the control of the brain. Example: Dancing, Eating, Writing, etc.
An involuntary action is not under the control of one’s will; it is controlled by the spinal cord. Example: Breathing, Respiration, Blinking eyelids, etc.

 

1. Activities which are performed willingly are called ______ action.
   a) voluntary
   b) involuntary
   c) conscious
   d) all of these
2. Activities which are not performed willingly are called ______ action.
   a) voluntary
   b) involuntary
   c) conscious
   d) all of these
3. ______ actions are not performed under conscious control.
   a) voluntary
   b) involuntary
   c) reflex action
   d) none of these
4. Which of the following is/are voluntary action/s?
   a) walking
   b) sneezing
   c) running
   d) both a and c
5. Which of the following is/are involuntary action/s?
   a) walking
   b) sneezing
   c) running
   d) both a and c
6. Which of the following is/are voluntary action/s?
   a) riding
   b) eating
   c) swimming
   d) all of these
7. Which of the following is/are involuntary action/s?
   a) breathing
   b) heartbeat
   c) blinking of eyes
   d) all of these

Reflex Action:

Reflex action is a sudden and involuntary response to stimuli. It helps organisms quickly adapt to an adverse circumstance that could have the potential to cause bodily harm or even death. Example: Pulling our hands away immediately after touching a hot or cold object is a classic example of a reflex action.

 

1. A sudden response to a specific stimulus without conscious control is called a/an ______.
   a) voluntary action
   b) involuntary action
   c) reflex action
   d) none of these
2. What is any quick response to stimuli that bypasses the brain?
   a) reflex action
   b) voluntary action
   c) knee jerk
   d) receptor
3. When we touch a hot object, we pull our hand immediately. It is ______.
   a) voluntary action
   b) involuntary action
   c) reflex action
   d) none of these
4. The sequence of the pathway of nerve impulse in reflex action is called ______.
   a) reflex arc
   b) autonomic pathway
   c) sympathetic pathway
   d) all of these

Explanation:
A reflex, or reflex action, is an involuntary, unplanned sequence of actions and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus. A reflex is made possible by neural pathways called reflex arcs, which act on an impulse before that impulse reaches the brain.

1. In reflex action, the nerve impulse is generated from…
   a) sense organ
   b) sensory neuron
   c) CNS
   d) motor neuron
2. People blink how many times per minute?
   a) 10
   b) 15
   c) 20
   d) 25
3. In reflex action, the nerve impulse generated from the sense organ is carried by…
   a) veins
   b) sensory neuron
   c) CNS
   d) motor neuron
4. In reflex action, the nerve impulse generated from the sense organ and carried by sensory neuron to…
   a) veins
   b) interneuron
   c) CNS
   d) motor neuron
5. The impulse from CNS is carried back to effectors by…
   a) veins
   b) interneuron
   c) CNS
   d) motor neuron
6. Staying healthy is not only about exercising your body but also about exercising your…
   a) heart
   b) brain
   c) lungs
   d) kidneys
7. Which of the following activities are important to keep your brain sharp?
   a) never stop learning
   b) answer questions
   c) try something new
   d) all of these
8. Which of the following activities are important to keep your brain sharp?
   a) debate and exercise
   b) notice the details
   c) reduce stress and redecorate
   d) all of these
9. Which of the following may damage the neurons?
   a) pressure
   b) stretching
   c) cutting
   d) all of these
10. What happens to a neuron if it gets damaged by injury?
    a) stop growing
    b) stop the signal transmission
    c) stop moving
    d) all of these
11. What are the symptoms of damaged neurons?
    a) loss of movement
    b) loss of sensation
    c) pain and difficult breathing
    d) all of these

Exercise:

1. The basic unit of structure and function of the nervous system is…
   a) nerve
   b) brain
   c) neuron
   d) spinal cord
2. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain?
   a) cerebellum
   b) cerebrum
   c) thalamus
   d) hypothalamus
3. Withdrawal of a hand on touching a hot object is an example of…
   a) reflex action
   b) reflex arc
   c) voluntary action
   d) conscious activity
4. Everything you do is controlled by…
   a) respiratory system
   b) circulatory system
   c) digestive system
   d) nervous system
5. The nervous system is made up of…
   a) brain, spinal cord, and heart
   b) brain, spinal cord, and blood vessels
   c) nerves, arteries, and veins
   d) brain, spinal cord, and nerves
6. Neuron cell fibers that conduct nerve impulses toward the cell body are…
   a) axons
   b) dendrites
   c) myelin sheath
   d) nerve
7. The brain stem includes all EXCEPT…
   a) medulla oblongata
   b) midbrain
   c) cerebellum
   d) pons
8. Which is the largest part of the brain?
   a) cerebrum
   b) hypothalamus
   c) thalamus
   d) medulla oblongata
9. Which part of the brain keeps you breathing?
   a) spinal cord
   b) pons
   c) medulla oblongata
   d) cerebrum
10. Which part of the nervous system will help you keep balance while riding a bicycle?
    a) spinal cord
    b) pons
    c) medulla oblongata
    d) cerebellum

 

Excretion and Excretory System:

The system that helps to eliminate waste materials from the body is called the excretory system.

• The process of removing the waste product from the body is known as excretion.
• The excretory system removes non-solid wastes through sweat, urine, and exhalation. It also helps to maintain stability in the body.
• The main organs of this system are the skin, lungs, kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, and urethra.
• The structural and functional unit of the kidney is called the nephron.
• The kidneys are organs that remove wastes by filtering and cleaning the blood to produce urine. This urine moves through the ureters, is collected in the bladder, and excreted by the urethra.
• The kidney is divided into three regions: 
  1. Renal cortex – the outermost region.
  2. Renal medulla – the middle region.
  3. Renal pelvis – the inner area where urine is drained.

Role of Kidneys:

• The kidneys are among the main organs responsible for maintaining fluid and chemical balance in your body within the limits that support life.

Interesting Facts:

• One-quarter of your blood supply passes through your kidney every minute.
• The most common kidney problems are kidney stones, high blood pressure, and diabetes.
• Excretory organs of the human body are called kidneys.
• The brain of an adult human weighs between 1300 and 1400 gm.
• The brain of a cat weighs about 30 gm.
• The weight of a dog’s brain is about 70 gm.
• The brain of a dolphin weighs about 1600 gm.
• The weight of an elephant’s brain is about 6000 gm.
• Homeostasis is the regulation of water, minerals, and salts within the body.
• The first artificial kidney was developed by Abel, Rountree, and Turner in 1913.
• The cleaning of patient blood artificially with the help of a machine is called dialysis.

1. Our nervous system is divided into how many parts?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five
2. Which of the following systems act as the control center of the whole nervous system?
   a) the central nervous system
   b) the peripheral nervous system
   c) the excretory system
   d) none of these
3. Brain and spinal cord are part of which system?
   a) the central nervous system
   b) the peripheral nervous system
   c) the excretory system
   d) none of these
4. The human brain is enclosed in a bony case called…
   a) cerebrum
   b) pons
   c) medulla oblongata
   d) cranium
5. An adult human brain weighs about…. pounds.

1. a) 2
2. b) 3 (about 1300-1400 grams)
3. c) 4
4. d) 5

1. The brain of an adult man consists of neurons:
   a) 100,000,000,000
   b) 10,000,000,000
   c) 1,000,000,000
   d) 100,000,000
2. The brain is protected by three layers of connective tissues called:
   a) craniums
   b) protector
   c) meninges
   d) canning
3. How many parts of the human brain?
   a) 3
   b) 4
   c) 5
   d) 6
4. Which part of the neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?
   a) axon
   b) myelin sheath
   c) cell body
   d) dendrites
5. The outer covering of the brain is covered with:
   a) Axon
   b) Nerve cells
   c) Pens
   d) Dendrites
6. The special organs, tissues, or cells which detect stimuli are called:
   a) receptors
   b) effectors
   c) spinal nerves
   d) cranial nerves
7. Muscles and glands in the body act as:
   a) receptors
   b) effectors
   c) spinal nerves
   d) cranial nerves
8. The process of removing waste products from the body is called:
   a) excretory system
   b) excretion
   c) kidneys
   d) urethra
9. The organ system responsible for this excretion is known as:
   a) excretory system
   b) excretion
   c) kidneys
   d) urethra
10. Which of the following transports urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder?
    a) urethra
    b) adrenal gland
    c) ureter
    d) vena cava
11. Which of the following collects urine from both kidneys?
    a) urethra
    b) ureter
    c) urinary bladder
    d) vena cava
12. Urine is released outside the body through a fine tube called:
    a) urinary bladder
    b) urethra
    c) ureter
    d) vena cava
13. Internally, the kidney is divided into how many regions?
    a) 2
    b) 4
    c) 3 (Renal cortex, Renal medulla, Renal pelvis)
14. ______ are the structural and functional units of the kidney.
    a) Renal corpuscle
    b) renal tubules
    c) lithotripsy
    d) Nephrons
15. Cleaning of blood by artificial methods is called:
    a) dialysis
    b) dialyzer
    c) diabetes mellitus
    d) none of these
16. The brain stem is composed of:
    a) Brain buds and flowers
    b) Spinal cord
    c) Axon and vertebra
    d) Medulla pons and middle brain tissue
17. Which part of the brain controls emotion experiences?
    a) Medulla oblongata
    b) hypothalamus
    c) Limbic system
    d) Pie matter
18. Basic life functions regulated by the medulla oblongata:
    a) heart beat
    b) body posture
    c) knee movement
    d) intelligence
19. The human body has dark brown, bean-shaped kidneys:
    a) five
    b) four
    c) three
    d) two
20. The outer surface of the kidney is:
    a) concave
    b) convex
    c) oval
    d) circular
21. Kidney eliminates wastes by filtering:
    a) Water
    b) Fluid
    c) Urine
    d) Blood
22. Medium-sized stones are removed by:
    a) urine
    b) lithotripsy
    c) ureter
    d) none of these

 

UNIT NO: 09

REFLECTION AND REFRACTION OF LIGHT

Introduction:

Reflection can simply be defined as the bouncing back of light when it strikes the medium on a plane.
Refraction can be defined as the process of the shift of light when it passes through a medium leading to the bending of light. The light entering the medium returns to the same medium.

Difference Between Reflection and Refraction

Reflection of light	Refraction
(Image of Reflection)	(Image of Refraction)

Questions and Answers:

1. Why we cannot see objects in the dark?
   a) temperature is low
   b) air is dense
   c) light is absent
   d) all of these
2. Why the objects are visible in light?
   a) temperature is high
   b) air is warm
   c) light is present
   d) all of these

Explanation: Light or visible light is electromagnetic radiation within the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is perceived by the human eye.

1. Which of the following sense organ is used to see objects in the presence of light?
   a) eye
   b) medulla
   c) nose
   d) ear
2. Which of the following receptor is used to see objects?
   a) mechanoreceptor
   b) sono-receptor
   c) thermo-receptor
   d) photoreceptor
3. Light is emitted from which of the following objects?
   a) luminous
   b) non-luminous
   c) both of them
   d) none of these

Explanation: Luminous objects are which emit light by their own. Examples: – Sun, flame of a burning candle.

1. Which of the following is/are luminous object/s?
   a) sun
   b) moon
   c) bulb
   d) both a and c
2. Which of the following is/are non-luminous object/s?
   a) soil
   b) moon
   c) lamp
   d) both a and b

Explanation: Non-luminous objects are those that do not produce their own light. A mirror is an example of a non-luminous object.

Properties Of Light

Properties of Light

Reflection	Absorption	Transmission
(Image of reflection)	(Image of absorption)	(Image of transmission)

1. What happens to light when it hits an object?
   a) it can be absorbed
   b) it can be transmitted
   c) it can be reflected
   d) all of these

Continuation of Reflection and Refraction of Light

1. When light interacts with matter, it can pass through a substance. This is called:
   a) transmission of light
   b) absorption of light
   c) reflection of light
   d) none of these

Explanation: The transmission of light occurs when light hits an object that is transparent or translucent and light can penetrate the material to travel all the way through. When light transmission happens, it can be scattered or refracted. Scattering happens when light hits an atom and is sent in all directions.

1. Transmission of light makes an object appear:
   a) transparent
   b) translucent
   c) luminous
   d) both a and b
2. The object through which light is easily transmitted and are seen clearly behind it is:
   a) transparent
   b) translucent
   c) luminous
   d) non-luminous
3. Which of the following is/are transparent object/s?
   a) glass
   b) frosted glass
   c) plastic
   d) both b and c
4. The object through which light is transmitted but some is scattered so the object are not seen clearly behind it is:
   a) transparent
   b) translucent
   c) luminous
   d) non-luminous

Explanation: Translucent objects allow some light to travel through them. Materials like frosted glass and some plastics are called translucent. When light strikes translucent materials, only some of the light passes through them. The light does not pass directly through the _______ materials.

(Image of Transparent, Translucent, and Opaque Objects)

1. Which of the following is/are translucent object/s?
   a) glass
   b) frosted glass
   c) plastic
   d) both b and c
2. When the light interacts with matter, it can be absorbed and converted into other forms of energy. This is known as:
   a) transmission of light
   b) absorption of light
   c) reflection of light
   d) none of these
3. The objects appear ______ because of absorption of light.
   a) transparent
   b) opaque
   c) luminous
   d) non-luminous

Explanation: Opaque objects block light from traveling through them. Most of the light is either reflected by the object or absorbed and converted to thermal energy. Materials such as wood, stone, and metals are opaque to visible light.

1. Which of the following colored objects absorb more light?
   a) dark and black
   b) white
   c) yellow
   d) all of these
2. Which of the following objects feel much hotter due to absorption of light?
   a) white
   b) light color
   c) dark and black
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following colored objects absorb less light?
   a) white
   b) yellow
   c) dark and black
   d) all of these
4. Which of the following object feel less hot due to low absorption of light?
   a) white
   b) dark and black
   c) light color
   d) both a and c
5. When the light interacts with an object and bounces off its surface. This is called:
   a) transmission of light
   b) absorption of light
   c) reflection of light
   d) none of these

Explanation: A phenomenon of returning light from the surface of an object when the light is incident on it is called reflection of light.
Examples: Reflection by a plane mirror. Reflection by a spherical mirror.

(Image of Light Reflection on a Mirror)

1. Which of the following objects reflect light to be visible?

Continuation of Reflection and Refraction of Light

1. Which of the following surfaces reflect most of the visible light?
   a) table
   b) black cloth
   c) white board
   d) mirror
2. What is/are the characteristic/s of highly polished surfaces such as glasses and what happens to them when light falls upon them?
   a) most of the light transmitted
   b) none of the light is transmitted
   c) very little light is absorbed
   d) all of these

Speed of Light:

Light from a moving source also travels at 300,000 km/sec (186,000 miles/sec).
Say that Einstein’s bike travels at 10% the speed of light (30,000 km/sec): the speed of light from Einstein’s headlight does NOT equal 330,000 km/sec.
The speed of light is constant and does not depend on the speed of the light source.

1. The speed of light is …….
   a) very slow
   b) very fast
   c) moderate
   d) not known
2. Why the flash of lightning is seen before we hear the roar of thunder?
   a) light is slower than sound
   b) eye is faster than ear
   c) light is faster than sound
   d) ear is faster than eye
3. The speed of light in kilometers per second is
   a) 2×10⁷
   b) 2×10⁸
   c) 2×10⁷
   d) 3×10⁸
4. The speed of light is about…….times faster than sound.
   a) one hundred
   b) one thousand
   c) one million
   d) one billion
5. What is the distance of the sun from the earth planet?
   a) 100 million km
   b) 150 million km
   c) 200 million km
   d) 300 million km
6. The light from the sun reaches our earth in….
   a) 2 minutes and 20 seconds
   b) 4 minutes and 20 seconds
   c) 8 minutes and 20 seconds
   d) 16 minutes and 20 seconds
7. The light reflected from the surface of the moon reaches our earth in …….seconds.
   a) 1.2
   b) 1.3
   c) 1.4
   d) 1.9
8. Which of the following is fastest in the universe?
   a) sound
   b) light
   c) electricity
   d) bullet train
9. Light can also travel through…….
   a) air
   b) water
   c) glass
   d) all of these
10. Light travels faster in…….
    a) air
    b) water
    c) glass
    d) vacuum

Dispersion:

(Image: White light passing through a prism and splitting into colors.)

When white light is passed through a glass prism it splits into its spectrum of colors (in order: violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red). This process of white light splitting into its constituent colors is termed as dispersion.

The simplest way to explain dispersion is through dispersion in the prism.

1. When sunlight (white light) falls on a triangular prism, a band of colors called a ________ is obtained.
   a) beam
   b) spectrum
   c) arrow
   d) line
2. When sunlight (white light) falls on a triangular prism, a band of colors called a spectrum is obtained. This effect is known as
   a) transmission of light
   b) absorption of light
   c) dispersion of light
   d) none of these
3. White light is a mixture of ……. colors.
   a) 3
   b) 7
   c) 9
   d) 13

Explanation: The sunlight splits into seven colors namely violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red. We usually call it as VIBGYOR.

Ray Model of Light:

A ray is a narrow beam of light that tends to travel in a straight line. An example of a ray is the beam of light from a laser or laser pointer. In the ray model of light, a ray travels in a straight line until it hits something, like a mirror, or an interface between two different materials. The interaction between the light ray and the mirror or interface generally causes the…

(Text cut off at the bottom.)

A ray travels in a straight line until it encounters something else that causes a change in direction.

Ray Model of Light (continued)

1. The direction of the path in which light is travelling is called a/an…….
   a) beam
   b) ray
   c) arrow
   d) line
2. The ray model of light assumes that light travels in…….line.
   a) curved
   b) circular
   c) oblique
   d) straight
3. According to the ray model, when we see an object, light reaches our eyes from…….point on the object.
   a) center
   b) corner
   c) top
   d) each point
4. The method of following individual rays as they travel from an object to our eye or to some other point is called…….
   a) transmission of light
   b) absorption of light
   c) ray tracing
   d) none of these
5. We can see luminous objects from…….
   a) the light they reflect
   b) the light they emit
   c) the light they transmit
   d) none of these
6. We can see non-luminous objects from…….
   a) the light they reflect
   b) the light they emit
   c) the light they transmit
   d) the light they absorb
7. Sunbeams streaming through the windows of a classroom are visible because dust particles in air…….light into our eyes.
   a) absorb
   b) transmit
   c) disperse
   d) reflect
8. Light from a cinema projector on its way to the screen are visible because dust particles in air…….light into our eyes.
   a) absorb
   b) transmit
   c) disperse
   d) reflect

Explanation: A projector or image projector is an optical device that projects an image (or moving images) onto a surface, commonly a projection screen. Most projectors create an image by shining a light through a small transparent lens, but some newer types of projectors can project the image directly, by using lasers.

Law of Reflection:

The laws of reflection are as follows:

• The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the reflection surface at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
• The angle which the incident ray makes with the normal is equal to the angle which the reflected ray makes to the same normal.

(Diagram: Incident ray, reflected ray, normal to surface.)

1. The ray coming from the source towards the surface is called…….
   a) incident ray
   b) reflected ray
   c) dispersed ray
   d) absorbed ray
2. The ray which bounces off the surface is called…….
   a) incident ray
   b) reflected ray
   c) dispersed ray
   d) absorbed ray
3. The point at which the incident ray strikes the reflecting surface is called…….
   a) point of incidence
   b) normal
   c) point of reflection
   d) point of reflection
4. The line drawn at right angles to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence is called…….
   a) point of incidence
   b) normal
   c) point of reflection
   d) point of re (cut off)
5. The angle between the incident ray and normal is angle of…….
   a) reflection
   b) incidence

1. The angle between the reflecting ray and the normal is angle of……….
   a) reflection
   b) incidence
   c) absorption
   d) dispersion
2. Reflection is a change in……….
   a) movement
   b) medium
   c) direction
   d) source of light
3. How many common laws are described for the reflection of light?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation: Law of reflection of light
(i) The incident ray, normal, and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

1. According to first law of reflection of light, which of the following is/are lie in the same plane?
   a) incident ray
   b) reflected ray
   c) normal
   d) all of these
2. According to the second law of reflection of light, the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of……….
   a) incident
   b) refraction
   c) normal
   d) all of these
3. How many types of reflection is present?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:

1. Regular reflection from smooth surface
2. Diffused reflection from rough surface

1. Smooth and plane surfaces reflect light rays in one direction. Such reflection is called……….
   a) regular reflection
   b) irregular reflection
   c) diffused reflection
   d) both b and c

Regular Reflection

1. Which of the following is/are smooth surface/s which results in regular reflection of light?
   a) mirror
   b) paper
   c) wood
   d) both b and c
2. Rough and irregular surfaces reflect light rays in many directions. Such reflection is called……….
   a) regular reflection
   b) irregular reflection
   c) diffused reflection
   d) both b and c
3. Which of the following is/are rough surface/s which results in irregular reflection of light?
   a) mirror
   b) paper
   c) wood
   d) both b and c
4. Who described the law of reflection that light travels in straight line and reflects from surface at the same angle at which it hits it?
   a) Archimedes
   b) Pluto
   c) Euclid
   d) Aristotle
5. Who was Euclid who described the law of reflection for the first time in about 300 BC?
   a) Roman
   b) Greek
   c) Persian
   d) Arabic

Image Formation by Plane Mirror:

• The image is laterally inverted.
• The image is erect.
• The size of the image is the same as the size of the object.
• The distance between the image obtained from the mirror is the same as the distance between the object from the mirror.

(Diagram of Plane Mirror with Reflection Surface)

1. When we look into a plane mirror, we see an image of ourselves. How the image is formed?
   a) light rays fall on the mirror
   b) light rays reflect from the mirror
   c) reflected rays reach our eyes
   d) all of these
2. The image on the mirror we see is……….
   a) same as object
   b) upside down
   c) laterally inverted
   d) all of these
3. Why letters and words on ambulances and other emergency vehicles are often written in reverse?
   a) back view mirror of car produce inverted image
   b) people can easily understand it
   c) mirror produce very large image
   d) none of these

Characteristics of Image Formation:

1. A/an……….is a visual representation of an object which is placed somewhere in front of a mirror or lens.
   a) object
   b) image
   c) shadow
   d) picture
2. How many characteristics can be used to………. (cut off text)

1. How many characteristics can be used to describe any image?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:

1. Magnification
2. Attitude
3. Position
4. Type of image (real or virtual)

1. Which of the following is the ratio of the image size to the object size?
   a) magnification
   b) attitude
   c) type (real or virtual)
   d) position
2. Which one of these shows us whether the image is larger, smaller, or of the same size as the object?
   a) magnification
   b) attitude
   c) type (real or virtual)
   d) position
3. Which of the following characteristics of image indicate whether the image is oriented the same way (upright) or upside down (inverted)?
   a) magnification
   b) attitude
   c) type (real or virtual)
   d) position
4. Which of the following characteristics of image indicate the distance between the image and the optical device such as mirror or lens?
   a) magnification
   b) attitude
   c) type (real or virtual)
   d) position
5. Which of the following characteristics of image indicate whether the image is real or virtual?
   a) magnification
   b) attitude
   c) position
   d) type
6. What is the image type if the light rays are actually converging at a point then continuing beyond that point?
   a) real
   b) virtual
   c) inverted
   d) all of these
7. What is the image type if you place a screen at the image position, the image would appear on the screen?
   a) real
   b) virtual
   c) laterally inverted
   d) inverted

Characteristics of Image Formation:

Characteristics of Concave Mirrors:

Light converges at a point when it strikes and reflects back from the reflecting surface of the concave mirror. Hence, it is also known as a converging mirror.
When the concave mirror is placed very close to the object, a magnified, erect, and virtual image is obtained. However, if we increase the distance between the object and the mirror, then the size of the image reduces, and a real and inverted image is formed. The image formed by the concave mirror can be small or large and can be real or virtual.

Concave Mirror (Images – Characteristics)

1. What is the image type if no light rays actually converge on the image position?
   a) real
   b) virtual
   c) inverted
   d) all of these
2. What is the image type if you place a screen at the image position, the image would not appear on the screen?
   a) real
   b) virtual
   c) laterally inverted
   d) inverted
3. Which of the following images is/are virtual images?
   a) image produced by a movie projector
   b) image produced by a mirror
   c) both a and b
   d) none of the both
4. Which of the following images is/are real images?
   a) image produced by a movie projector
   b) image produced by a mirror
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these
5. What is the magnification characteristic of the image formed by the plane mirror?
   a) the image is large
   b) the image is small
   c) the image is of the same size
   d) none of these
6. What is the position of the image formed by the plane mirror?
   a) the image is far away
   b) the image is at the same distance
   c) the image is close
   d) none of these
7. What is/are the attitude characteristics of the image formed by the plane mirror?
   a) always upright
   b) upside down
   c) laterally inverted
   d) both a and b
8. Which type of the image is formed by the plane mirror?
   a) real
   b) virtual
   c) both a and b
   d) none of them

1. Which of the following is an optical device?
   a) thermometer
   b) periscope
   c) sphygmomanometer
   d) none of these
2. A periscope is an optical device that uses……. to reflect images through a tube?
   a) concave lenses
   b) mirrors
   c) convex lenses
   d) all of these
3. What is the angle between two mirrors in the simple periscope?
   a) 30°
   b) 45°
   c) 60°
   d) 90°
4. How many times the light rays coming from the object behind obstacle are reflected in periscope?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:
A periscope is an instrument for observation over, around or through an object, obstacle, or condition that prevents direct line-of-sight observation from an observer’s current position. In its simplest form, it consists of an outer case with mirrors at each end set parallel to each other at a 45° angle. This form of periscope, with the addition of two simple lenses, served for observation purposes in the trenches during World War I. Military personnel also use periscopes in some gun turrets and in armored vehicles.

1. How many plane mirrors are used in the simple periscope?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five
2. What is/are the application/s of periscope?
   a) used in submarines
   b) used in battle trenches
   c) used in battle tanks
   d) all of these

Colour:

White light is a combination of all colors in the color spectrum. It has all the colors of the rainbow. Combining primary colors of light like red, blue, and green creates secondary colors: yellow, cyan, and magenta. All other colors can be broken down into different combinations of the three primary colors.

1. The colour of the object is determined by the colours in light it……..
   a) absorbs
   b) reflects
   c) transmits
   d) both a and b
2. An object has a colour of light that it……..
   a) absorbs
   b) reflects
   c) transmits
   d) both a and b
3. Which of the following colour/s is/are reflected by the red apple?
   a) red
   b) green
   c) all colours except red
   d) yellow
4. Which of the following colour/s is/are absorbed by the red apple?
   a) red
   b) green
   c) all colours except red
   d) yellow
5. A material that reflects all colours of light appears ……….
   a) black
   b) green
   c) yellow
   d) white
6. A material that absorbs all colours of light appears ……….
   a) black
   b) green
   c) yellow
   d) white
7. If blue light falls on white paper, which of the following colour/s is/are reflected?
   a) blue
   b) green
   c) all seven colours
   d) yellow

Refraction of Light:

Refraction is the bending of light (it also happens with sound, water, and other waves) as it passes from one transparent substance into another. This bending by refraction makes it possible for us to have lenses, magnifying glasses, prisms, and rainbows. Even our eyes depend upon this bending of light.

1. The change in direction of the light when it goes from one medium to another medium is called
   a) reflection
   b) transmission
   c) absorption
   d) refraction

1. When light cannot pass through the material surface light rebounds after hitting that surface and the phenomena is termed as …….. of light.
   a) reflection
   b) transmission
   c) absorption
   d) refraction
2. Which of the following is/are transparent material/s?
   a) glass
   b) water, ice
   c) quartz
   d) all of these
3. In refraction, the bending of light occurs due to change in the …….. of light.
   a) spectrum
   b) source
   c) velocity
   d) all of these
4. The speed of light in water is …….. than/to the speed of light in air.
   a) less
   b) greater
   c) variable
5. The speed of light in water is …….. than/to the speed of light in glass.
   a) less
   b) greater
   c) similar
6. …….. is the approaching ray of light towards a refracting surface.
   a) incident ray
   b) refracted ray
   c) point of incidence
   d) normal
7. Which of the following term is used for the ray of light which bends after passing through from the refracting surface?
   a) point of incidence
   b) incident ray
   c) refracted ray
   d) normal
8. Which of the following term is used for the point at which the incident ray strikes the refracting surface?
   a) point of incidence
   b) parallel
   c) refracted ray
   d) normal
9. Which of the following term is used for the line drawn at right angles to refracting surface at the point of incidence?
   a) incident ray
   b) perpendicular
   c) refracted ray
   d) normal
10. When light moves from a material in which its speed is higher to a material in which its speed is lower, the light ray……….
    a) bends toward normal
    b) bends away from normal
    c) does not bend
    d) none of these
11. When light moves from a material in which its speed is lower to a material in which its speed is higher, the light ray……….
    a) bends toward normal
    b) bends away from normal
    c) does not bend
    d) none of these

Diagram of Refraction

Light passing into an optically less dense medium is bent away from the normal.

1. What happens to the light ray when it moves from air to glass?
   a) it bends toward normal
   b) it bends away from normal
   c) it does not bend
   d) none of these
2. What happens to the light ray when it moves from air to water?
   a) it bends toward normal
   b) it bends away from normal
   c) it does not bend
   d) none of these
3. What happens to the light ray when it moves from water to air?
   a) it bends toward normal
   b) it bends away from normal
   c) it does not bend
   d) none of these
4. If a ray of light falls on the surface of two media along the normal, then in which direction the beam of light will bend?
   a) it bends toward normal
   b) it bends away from normal
   c) it does not bend
   d) none of these
5. Why does a pencil appear bending in the glass of water?
   a) due to reflection
   b) due to refraction
   c) due to transmission
   d) none of these

Spherical Mirrors:

A spherical mirror is a mirror which has the shape of a piece cut out of a spherical surface. There are two types of spherical mirrors: concave and convex.

1. The mirror for which the inside surface of the spherical section is made reflecting is called …….. mirror.
   a) concave
   b) convex
   c) concavo-convex
   d) plane
2. The mirror for which the outside surface of the spherical section is made reflecting is called …….. mirror.
   a) concave
   b) convex
   c) concavo-convex
   d) plane
3. …….. is the center of the sphere of which the mirror is formed.
   a) center of curvature
   b) radius of curvature
   c) principal axis
   d) focal point
4. …….. is the radius of the sphere of which the mirror is a section.
   a) Center of curvature
   b) Radius of curvature
   c) Principal axis
   d) Focal point
5. …….. is the midpoint of the spherical mirror formed.
   a) pole (p)
   b) radius of curvature
   c) principal axis
   d) focal point
6. …….. is a straight line drawn through the center of curvature and the pole.
   a) center of curvature
   b) radius of curvature
   c) principal axis
   d) focal point
7. After reflecting from the mirror, the light rays converge or diverge and originate from a single point called ……..
   a) center of curvature
   b) radius of curvature
   c) principal axis
   d) focal point
8. The distance from pole of spherical mirror to the focal point is called ……..
   a) displacement
   b) radius of curvature
   c) focal length
   d) focal distance
9. The concave mirror has the ability to …….. the beam of light parallel to principal axis.
   a) converge
   b) bend
   c) diverge
   d) both a and c
10. The concave mirror is also called …….. mirror.
    a) converging
    b) focusing
    c) diverging
    d) straightening
11. The convex mirror has the ability to …….. the beam of light parallel to principal axis.
    a) converge
    b) bend
    c) diverge
    d) both a and c
12. The convex mirror is also called …….. mirror.
    a) converging
    b) focusing
    c) diverging
    d) straightening
13. Which of the following characteristic of image is changed when you move a plane mirror away from yourself?
    a) attitude
    b) position
    c) type
    d) magnification
14. When the incident ray is parallel to the principal axis, it will reflect through the ……..
    a) center of curvature
    b) radius of curvature
    c) principal axis
    d) focal point
15. The incident ray on the pole of the mirror is reflected back through/with the ……..
    a) center of curvature
    b) radius of curvature
    c) same angle
    d) focal point
16. Any incident ray passing through the focus point will reflect back parallel to the ……..
    a) center of curvature
    b) radius of curvature
    c) principal axis
    d) focal point

1. The ray of light passing through the center of curvature of concave mirror is reflected back
   a) parallel to principal axis
   b) radius of curvature
   c) along the same path
   d) through focal point
2. What is the magnification of image when object is placed beyond the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) smaller in size than the object
   b) larger in size than the object
   c) equal in size as the object
   d) variable in size
3. What is the position of image when object is placed beyond the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) at focus point
   b) between the center of curvature and focus point
   c) at center of curvature
   d) between focus point and pole
4. What is the attitude of image when object is placed beyond the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) inverted
   b) laterally inverted
   c) upright
   d) all of these
5. What is the type of image when object is placed beyond the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) real
   b) virtual
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these
6. What is the magnification of image when object is placed at the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) smaller in size than the object
   b) larger in size than the object
   c) equal in size as the object
   d) variable in size
7. What is the position of image when object is placed at the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) at the focus point
   b) between the center of curvature and focus point
   c) at the center of curvature
   d) between focus point and pole
8. What is the attitude of image when object is placed at the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) laterally inverted
   b) inverted
   c) upright
   d) all of these
9. What is the type of image when object is placed at the center of curvature of concave mirror?
   a) real
   b) virtual
   c) both
   d) none
10. What is the magnification of image when object is placed between the center of curvature and the focal point of concave mirror?
    a) smaller in size than the object
    b) larger in size than the object
    c) equal in size as the object
    d) variable in size
11. What is the position of image when object is placed between the center of curvature and the focal point of concave mirror?
    a) at focus point
    b) between the center of curvature and focus point
    c) beyond center of curvature
    d) between focus point and pole
12. What is the attitude of image when object is placed between the center of curvature and the focal point of concave mirror?
    a) laterally inverted
    b) inverted
    c) upright
    d) all of these
13. What is the type of image when object is placed between the center of curvature and the focal point of concave mirror?
    a) real
    b) virtual
    c) both
    d) none
14. What is the magnification of image when

143) What is the position of image when object is placed at the focal point of concave mirror?
a) between the center of curvature and focus point
b) at infinity
c) beyond the center of curvature
d) between focus point and pole

144) What is the attitude of image when object is placed at the focal point of concave mirror?
a) inverted
b) upright
c) laterally inverted
d) all of these

145) What is the type of image when object is placed at the focal point of concave mirror?
a) real
b) virtual
c) both
d) none

146) What is the magnification of image when object is placed between the focal point and pole of the concave mirror?
a) smaller in size than the object
b) larger in size than the object
c) equal in size as the object
d) variable in size

147) What is the position of image when object is placed between the focal point and pole of the concave mirror?
a) at focus point
b) between the center of curvature and focus point
c) beyond the mirror
d) between focus point and pole

148) What is the attitude of image when object is placed between the focal point and pole of the concave mirror?
a) laterally inverted
b) inverted
c) upright
d) all of these

149) What is the type of image when object is placed between the focal point and pole of the concave mirror?
a) real
b) virtual
c) both
d) none

150) The passenger side mirror in car is ………
a) concave
b) convex
c) concavo-convex
d) plane

151) The image size in the passenger side mirror is
a) larger
b) small
c) same
d) variable

Image Formation in Convex Mirror

Convex mirrors always form virtual images. This is because the focal point and the centre of curvature of the convex mirror are imaginary points and that cannot be reached. So the image is formed inside the mirror and cannot be projected on a screen. The image formed looks smaller than the object from a distance but it gets larger as the object is brought closer to the mirror.

152) What is the magnification of image formed by convex mirror?
a) smaller in size than the object
b) larger in size than the object
c) equal in size as the object
d) variable in size

153) What is the position of image formed by convex mirror?
a) at focus point
b) between the center of curvature and focus point

154) What is the attitude of image formed by convex mirror?
a) laterally inverted
b) inverted
c) upright
d) all of these

155) What is the type of image formed by convex mirror?
a) real
b) virtual
c) both
d) none

156) Any incident ray that is parallel to the principal axis of convex mirror, will reflect…
a) back making the same angle
b) along a line from the focus point
c) back parallel to the principal axis
d) back along the same path

157) Any incident ray on the pole of convex mirror, will reflect…
a) back making the same angle
b) along a line from the focus point
c) back parallel to the principal axis
d) back along the same path

158) Any incident ray that is directed towards the virtual focal point of convex mirror, will reflect
a) back making the same angle
b) along a line from the focus point
c) back parallel to the principal axis
d) back along the same path

159) Any incident ray that is towards the virtual center of curvature of convex mirror, will reflect…
a) back making the same angle
b) along a line from the focus point
c) back parallel to the principal axis
d) back along the same path

160) Which of the following mirror is/are used when wide field of view is required?
a) concave
b) convex
c) plane
d) all of these

161) Which of the following mirror/s is/are installed in sharp turns in hilly areas to avoid vehicle from colliding?
a) concave
b) convex
c) plane
d) both a and b

162) Which of the following mirror is/are used by the drivers to navigate blind spots and look for approaching traffic through the mirror?
a) concave
b) convex
c) plane
d) all of these

EXERCISE:

163) A ray of light is incident towards a plane mirror at an angle of 30-degrees with the mirror surface. What will be the angle of reflection?
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 45°

164) If the angle of incidence is 45°, then what will be the angle of reflection?
a) 0°
b) 45°
c) 90°
d) 180°

165) Which letter after reflection from a plane mirror will remain unchanged?
a) K
b) E
c) M
d) J

166) When light enters from air to water it…
a) continues its path as a straight line
b) bends toward the normal
c) bends away from the normal
d) reflects totally

167) The light passing from air to glass will cause the speed of light to…
a) remain the same
b) increase
c) decrease
d) reduce to zero

168) For concave mirror, real and inverted image of same size is formed when an object is…
a) beyond center of curvature
b) at center of curvature
c) between center of curvature and focus point
d) at focus point

169) For concave mirror, no image formed when an object is…
a) beyond center of curvature

170) To get an enlarged and upright image, which mirror we should use?
a) convex mirror
b) concave mirror
c) plane mirror
d) rough mirror

171) The figure shows the plane mirror image of the clock. The correct time is…
a) 2:35
b) 3:25
c) 8:05
d) 9:25

172) A dentist uses a small dental mirror to help magnify teeth in your mouth. This mirror can be a…
a) convex mirror
b) concave mirror
c) plane mirror
d) all of these

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM
UNIT NO: 10

Introduction:

Electricity and magnetism are two related phenomena produced by the electromagnetic force. Together, they form electromagnetism. A moving electric charge generates a magnetic field. A magnetic field induces electric charge movement, producing an electric current.

1) Which of the following is used as energy for using a washing machine?

1. a) wind
   b) electricity
   c) fuel
   d) light

2) Lightning of flashes in the sky is due to…

1. a) chemical energy
   b) electric energy
   c) mechanical energy
   d) kinetic energy

Electric Current:

An electric current is a stream of charged particles, such as electrons or ions, moving through an electrical conductor or space. It is measured as the net rate of flow of electric charge through a surface or into a control volume.

What is Electric Current?

3) Which of the following energy is associated with charges?

1. a) chemical energy
   b) electric energy
   c) mechanical energy
   d) kinetic energy

4) In most cases, electric energy is in the form of motion of charges usually…

1. a) protons
   b) neutrons
   c) electrons
   d) ions

5) The rate of flow of charge is called…

1. a) electric current
   b) ionization
   c) electric flow
   d) none of these

6) Which of the following letters is used to represent the electric current?

1. a) E
   b) C
   c) K
   d) I

7) We can also explain electric current in such a way that it is a flow of charged particles, like…

1. a) protons
   b) ions
   c) electrons
   d) both b and c

8) The number of charged particles (electrons or ions) flowing past a region in a certain unit of time gives us…

1. a) current
   b) energy
   c) voltage
   d) none of these

9) When the current is high, ____ charges pass through the point every second.

1. a) less
   b) variable
   c) same
   d) more

10) When the current is low, ____ charges pass through the point every second.

1. a) less
   b) variable
   c) same
   d) more

11) Current is any flow of charges however in most materials like metal wire, ____ are free to move which produce the current.

1. a) protons
   b) neutrons
   c) electrons
   d) ions

12) What is the SI unit of charges?

1. a) Candela
   b) Ohm
   c) Coulomb
   d) Ampere

Explanation:

The coulomb (symbol: C) is the…

The unit of electric charge in the International System of Units (SI).
The SI defines the coulomb in terms of the ampere and second: 1 C = 1 A × 1 s.

13) What is the SI unit of current?

1. a) Candela
   b) Ohm
   c) Coulomb
   d) Ampere

14) Which of the following letters is used to represent the electric current unit ‘Ampere’?

1. a) E
   b) C
   c) K
   d) A

15) When one coulomb charge flows through any point in one second, the current is…Ampere.

1. a) 1 × 10²
   b) 1 × 10³
   c) 1 × 10⁴
   d) 1 × 10⁰

16) 1 A =?

1. a) 1F/P
   b) 1 C/s
   c) 1 F/A
   d) 1 S/t

17) Ampere is a ______ unit of current.

1. a) small
   b) very small
   c) large
   d) none of these

18) Which of the following is/are small unit/s of current?

1. a) mA
   b) A
   c) µA
   d) both a and c

Voltage

What is Voltage?

Voltage, electric potential difference, electric pressure, or electric tension is the difference in electric potential between two points, which (in a static electric field) is defined as the work needed per unit of charge to move a test charge between the two points. In the International System of Units, the derived unit for voltage (potential difference) is named volt.

19) The difference of electric potential between two points in a circuit is called…

1. a) current
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) coulomb

20) Which of the following letters is used to represent the Voltage?

1. a) E
   b) C
   c) K
   d) V

21) Which of the following causes charges to flow through the wire?

1. a) current
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) coulomb

22) The size of the current depends on which of the following factors?

1. a) wire
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) coulomb

23) If the voltage between two points on a wire is increased, ____ electric current will flow through the wire?

1. a) more
   b) less
   c) no current will flow
   d) moderate

24) If the voltage between two points on a wire is decreased, ____ electric current will flow through the wire?

1. a) more
   b) less
   c) no current will flow
   d) moderate

25) If the voltage between two points on a wire is zero, ____ electric current will flow through the wire?

1. a) more
   b) less
   c) moderate
   d) no

26) Which of the following is the unit of voltage?

1. a) Volt
   b) Ohm
   c) Coulomb
   d) Ampere

27) Which of the following letters is used to represent the Volt?

1. a) E
   b) C
   c) K
   d) V

28) Voltage between two points will be one volt if one ____ is used to move one coulomb of charge from one point to another.

1. a) one joule of energy
   b) one ampere current
   c) one ohm resistance
   d) one Avogadro’s electrons

29) 1 V =?

1. a) 1F/P
   b) 1 J/C
   c) 1 F/A
   d) 1 S/t

30) In a typical lightning flash, the voltage is about ____ million volts.

1. a) 3
   b) 30
   c) 300
   d) 400

31) In a typical lightning flash, the current is about ____ Ampere.

1. a) 3000
   b) 300
   c) 30000
   d) 400

32) We normally use voltage of ____ volts.

1. a) 20
   b) 100
   c) 230
   d) 440

33) We normally use current of ____ Ampere.

1. a) 20
   b) 100
   c) 230
   d) 440

34) In lightning, air in the vicinity is heated to a

The temperature of ______ °C, which is about three times the temperature of the Sun’s surface.
a) 3000
b) 20000
c) 30000
d) 400

Electric Resistance

What is Electrical Resistance?

Electrical Resistance is an electrical quantity that measures how the device or material reduces the electric current flow through it. The resistance is measured in units of ohms (Ω). The resistance is analogous to ‘water’ flow in pipes. If we make an analogy where the pipe is thinner, the resistance is bigger, so the water flow is decreased.

35) The opposition to the motion of charge through a material is called electric ______.

1. a) current
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) motor

36) Resistance lowers the flow of ______.

1. a) current
   b) voltage
   c) charge
   d) motor

37) If the voltage does not change, as resistance increases, the current ______.

1. a) increases
   b) decreases
   c) varies irregularly
   d) remains same

38) If material offers a small resistance, less ______ would be required to push current through the circuit.

1. a) flow of current
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) motor

39) If material offers a more resistance, more ______ would be required to push current through the circuit.

1. a) flow of current
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) motor

40) Which of the following letter is used to represent the resistance?

1. a) R
   b) r
   c) S
   d) V

41) Resistance (R) =?

1. a) I/V
   b) V/I
   c) V/T
   d) V/t

42) Every material offers some ______ to the flow of current through it.

1. a) flow of current
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) motor

43) Different materials have ______ resistance.

1. a) same
   b) different
   c) both a and b
   d) do not know

44) Which of the following has/have a low resistance?

1. a) gold
   b) silver
   c) copper
   d) all of these

45) Which of the following has/have a high resistance?

1. a) plastic
   b) glass
   c) cloth
   d) all of these

46) Which of the following has/have a low resistance?

1. a) conductor
   b) insulator
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

47) Which of the following has/have a high resistance?

1. a) conductor
   b) insulator
   c) both a and b
   d) none of these

48) In metallic conductors, which of the following is responsible for the transport of charges?

1. a) protons
   b) electrons
   c) neutrons
   d) ions

49) Which of the following is the unit of resistance?

1. a) Volt
   b) Ohm
   c) Coulomb
   d) Ampere

50) Which of the following letter is used to represent the ohm?

1. a) @
   b) O
   c) ¥
   d) Ω (omega)

51) 1 Ω =?

1. a) 1 I/V
   b) 1V/1A
   c) 1 V/I
   d) 1 V/t

52) The unit of resistance is omega (Ω), which is a ______ letter.

1. a) Greek
   b) Spanish
   c) Latin
   d) English

53) The resistance of wire is one ohm if a potential of one volt is applied across its ends and causes a current of ______ ampere to flow through it.

1. a) one
   b) two
   c) three
   d) four

54) Which of the following conductor wire has the lowest resistance?

1. a) iron
   b) aluminum
   c) copper
   d) platinum

55) The resistance of a particular wire depends on all the ______ physical characteristics.

1. a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) five

Explanation:

1. Length of wire
2. Type of material
3. Cross-sectional area

In addition to the above three, temperature can also affect the resistance.

56) Which of the following characteristic/s affect/s the resistance to flow of current?

1. a) length of wire
   b) type of material
   c) cross-sectional area
   d) all of these

57) Device that is designed to have a specific value of resistance is called ______.

1. a) motor
   b) resistor
   c) electrifier
   d) amplifier

Explanation:

A resistor is a passive two-terminal electrical component that implements electrical resistance as a circuit element. In electronic circuits, resistors are used to reduce current flow, adjust signal levels, to divide voltages, bias active elements, and terminate transmission lines, among other uses.

58) Which of the following is/are used in making resistors?

1. a) carbon
   b) wire of special alloys
   c) plastic
   d) both a and b

Electrical Power:

Electric power is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred by an electric circuit. The SI unit of power is the watt, one joule per second. Electric power is usually produced by electric generators, but can also be supplied by sources such as electric batteries.

59) Which of the following appliances use/s electric power to run?

1. a) iron
   b) washing machine
   c) TV
   d) all of these

60) The rate at which electric energy is used in a circuit is called electric ______.

1. a) speed
   b) potential
   c) power
   d) work

61) When a charge moves in a circuit, it ______ energy.

1. a) gains
   b) loses
   c) neither gains nor loses
   d) all of these

62) When a charge moves in a circuit, it loses energy in the form of ______.

1. a) heat
   b) light
   c) waves
   d) kinetic energy

63) Electric power is the product of current and ______.

1. a) charge
   b) voltage
   c) resistance
   d) motor

64) Power P =?

1. a) I × R
   b) I × V
   c) I × C
   d) I × t

65) What is the SI unit of power P?

1. a) volt
   b) ampere
   c) watt
   d) ohm

Explanation:

The watt (abbreviated W) is the International System of Units (SI) standard unit of power (energy per unit time), the equivalent of one joule per second. The watt is used to specify the rate at which electrical energy is dissipated, or the rate at which electromagnetic energy is radiated, absorbed, or dissipated.

66) Which letter is used to represent the unit watt?

1. a) V
   b) T
   c) W
   d) I

67) A watt is equivalent to ______.

1. a) 1 A × 1Ω
   b) 1 A × 1 V
   c) 1 I × 1 C
   d) 1 A × 1 s

68) An electric LED bulb might be rated as ______ W.

1. a) 12
   b) 220
   c) 440
   d) 2000

69) A typical hair dryer might be rated as ______ W.

1. a) 120
   b) 220
   c) 440
   d) 2000

Electric Safety Devices:

(Images of Three-Prong Plug, Circuit Breaker, and GFCI Outlet)

70) Which of the following is/are used for safe use of electric appliances?

1. a) fuses
   b) circuit breaker
   c) earthing
   d) all of these

71) Which of the following is present in a fuse?

72) Which of the following is/are used instead of fuses for the safe use of electric appliances?

1. a) conductor
   b) circuit breaker
   c) capacitor
   d) all of these

Explanation:

A circuit breaker is an electrical safety device designed to protect an electrical circuit from damage caused by an overcurrent or short circuit.

73) Why circuit breaker is better than fuses?

1. a) it is cheap
   b) its installation is easy
   c) it works faster
   d) none of these

74) To avoid the risk of electric shocks, which of the following is/are done?

1. a) insulating
   b) earthing
   c) resisting
   d) both a and c

Explanation:

Earthing (also known as grounding) refers to contact with the Earth’s surface electrons by walking barefoot outside or sitting, working, or sleeping indoors connected to conductive systems, some of them patented, that transfer the energy from the ground into the body.

Potential Hazards in Using Electricity:

Electrical hazards come in a variety of forms, but all have the potential to cause serious injury. Common types of electrical hazards include:

• Contact with live wires resulting in electric shock and burns.
• Fires due to faulty wiring.
• Exposed electrical parts.
• Ignition of fires or explosions due to electrical contact with potentially flammable or explosive materials.
• Inadequate wiring.
• Improper grounding, sometimes caused by workers deliberately removing the ground pin on an electric plug to fit a two-prong extension cord.
• Interaction with overhead power lines.
• Damaged wire insulation, causing electrical conductors to make contact with each other, tools, or a worker’s body.
• Overloaded circuits.
• Wet conditions.

75) Electric shock occurs if current flows from an electric circuit through a person’s body to ______.

1. a) earth
   b) moon
   c) insulator
   d) water

76) Which of the following is/are considered in determining the strength of an electric shock?

1. a) size of current
   b) voltage
   c) duration of current flow
   d) both a and c

77) Which of the following is/are NOT considered in determining the strength of an electric shock?

1. a) size of current
   b) voltage
   c) duration of current flow
   d) all of these

78) Which body parts are more vulnerable to electric shock?

1. a) heart
   b) brain
   c) hands
   d) both a and b

79) Why damp places increase the severity of an electric shock?

1. a) water is an insulator
   b) water lowers the resistance of the body
   c) water carries negative charges
   d) all of these

80) Which of the following ways will reduce the severity of an electric shock?

1. a) wearing rubber-soled shoes and gloves
   b) standing on a dry insulating floor
   c) wearing metallic-soled shoes
   d) both a and b

81) Which of the measure/s is/are to be taken to avoid the risk of getting an electric shock?

1. a) switch off electricity before repairing
   b) use plugs that have an earth pin
   c) do not allow electrical appliances in contact with water
   d) all of these

82) Which of the measure/s is/are to be taken to avoid the risk of overheating cables?

1. a) use plugs that have the correct fuse
   b) do not attach too many appliances to a single outlet
   c) avoid using thin wires
   d) all of these

Electromagnets

An electromagnet is a type of magnet in which the magnetic field is produced by an electric current. Electromagnets usually consist of wire wound into a coil. A current through the wire creates a magnetic field which is concentrated in the hole, denoting the center of the coil.

83) Which one of the following is the most famous electric car company?

1. a) Honda
   b) Mitsubishi
   c) Tesla
   d) Yamaha

84) Which of the following is required to run the electric car?

1. a) electricity
   b) magnets
   c) electromagnets
   d) fuels

85) Who found magnetism in the electric wire for the first time?

1. a) Tesla
   b) Addison
   c) Sir Hans Christian Oersted
   d) Einstein

86) Sir Hans Christian Oersted was a ……..science teacher who first time observed the magnetism in wire.

1. a) German
   b) Danish
   c) Russian
   d) English

87) The magnetic field of the wire is ……..

1. a) low
   b) very low
   c) high
   d) very high

88) We can increase the magnetic field in the wire by increasing………

1. a) voltage
   b) current
   c) resistance
   d) all of these

89) A safer way to create a strong magnetic field that provides a greater force is……..

1. a) increase current
   b) increase voltage
   c) wrap wire into coil
   d) none of these

90) How can we increase the magnetic force of coil?

1. a) increase current
   b) increase voltage
   c) insert a metal rod inside coil
   d) all of these

91) The rod which is inserted inside the coil to increase the magnetic field is called…….

1. a) rod
   b) core
   c) bar
   d) column

92) When a core is inserted inside the coil of wire, the resulting device is called…….

1. a) motor
   b) magnet
   c) electromagnet
   d) transformer

93) Which of the following magnet is/are turned ON/OFF?

1. a) permanent magnet
   b) electromagnet
   c) bar magnet
   d) all of these

94) How can we turn ON/OFF the electromagnet?

1. a) by decreasing voltage
   b) by increasing current
   c) by turn ON/OFF current
   d) all of these

95) The poles of which magnet can be reversed?

1. a) permanent magnet
   b) electromagnet
   c) bar magnet
   d) all of these

96) How can we reverse the poles of electromagnet?

1. a) by decreasing voltage
   b) by increasing current
   c) by reversing the current
   d) all of these

97) The strength of the electromagnet depends on which of the following factors?

1. a) voltage
   b) No. of loops in coil
   c) amount of current
   d) both b and c

98) More loops in coil of electromagnet create a……..magnetic field.

1. a) weaker
   b) stronger
   c) moderate
   d) not affected

99) More current in coil of electromagnet creates a……..magnetic field.

1. a) weaker
   b) stronger
   c) moderate
   d) not affected

100) Less number of loops in coil of electromagnet creates a……..magnetic field.

1. a) weaker
   b) stronger
   c) moderate
   d) not affected

101) Less number of current in coil of electromagnet creates a……..magnetic field.

1. a) weaker
   b) stronger
   c) moderate
   d) not affected
2. a) weaker
   b) stronger
   c) moderate
   d) not affected

Making An Electromagnet

Electromagnets can be created by wrapping a wire around an iron nail and running current through the wire. The electric field in the wire coil creates a magnetic field around the nail. In some cases, the nail will remain magnetized even when removed from within the wire coil. Electromagnets are fundamental to many modern technologies.

102) What happens during the making of an electromagnet?

1. a) it becomes cool
   b) it becomes hot
   c) it becomes melt
   d) none of these

103) How to check the magnetic field of an electromagnet?

1. a) by touching
   b) by smelling
   c) by compass
   d) all of these

Applications Of Electromagnets

Electromagnets are widely used as components of other electrical devices, such as motors, generators, electromechanical solenoids, relays, loudspeakers, hard disks, MRI machines, scientific instruments, and magnetic separation equipment.

104) Which of the following is/are used to produce sound waves?

1. a) round magnet
   b) electromagnet
   c) bar magnet
   d) all of these

105) Most stereo speakers work on…….

1. a) wire magnet
   b) electromagnet
   c) bar magnet
   d) all of these

106) The speaker consists of ……..

1. a) round permanent magnet
   b) electromagnet
   c) bar magnet
   d) both a and b

107) Which of the following magnet is/are attached to the paper cone in speakers?

1. a) round permanent magnet
   b) electromagnet
   c) bar magnet
   d) both a and b

108) The cone of speaker vibrates with varying the magnitude of the……..

1. a) voltage
   b) current
   c) coil
   d) all of these

109) Speaker converts electrical energy into which of the following form of energy?

1. a) sound
   b) light
   c) heat
   d) all of these

Electric Bell

An electric bell is based on the principle of electromagnets. When the switch is pressed, the electromagnet is activated and the hammer moves and hits the gong. As the hammer moves, the circuit breaks and the electromagnet is disabled.

110) Which of the following magnet is/are used in an electric bell?

1. a) round permanent magnet
   b) electromagnet
   c) bar magnet
   d) both a and b

111) Which of the following is/are the parts of an electric bell?

1. a) coil of wire
   b) iron piece
   c) hammer
   d) all of these

Exercise

112) Which of the following energy conversions takes place in a battery-operated flashlight?

1. a) electrical → mechanical → light
   b) chemical → mechanical → light
   c) chemical → electrical → light
   d) nuclear → electrical → light

113) The unit of current is…….

1. a) coulomb
   b) volt
   c) ohm
   d) ampere

114) A bulb is connected to a voltage source, by increasing the voltage, the brightness of the bulb will……..

1. a) increase
   b) decrease
   c) reduce to zero
   d) stay the same

115) The primary purpose of a resistor is to…….

1. a) increase current
   b) limit current
   c) resist current change
   d) produce heat

116) The wire made from which of the following

117) The electric device which melts if current exceeds a certain fixed value, are…….

1. a) circuit breaker
   b) fuses
   c) earth wire
   d) copper wire

118) The device that is used to protect a circuit against overload is…….

1. a) heater
   b) fuse
   c) lamp
   d) switch

119) To prevent risk of electric shock the earth pin on a three-pin plug is connected to the part of device…….

1. a) plastic part of device
   b) neutral wire
   c) cable grip
   d) metal case

120) To increase the strength of the electromagnet the best core material should be…….

1. a) plastic
   b) rubber
   c) aluminum
   d) iron

121) Electromagnetic device which makes use of electromagnet is…….

1. a) resistor
   b) bulb
   c) doorbell
   d) three-pin plug

TECHNOLOGY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

UNIT NO: 11

Introduction:

We use technologies to exchange information, to clean our clothes, to prepare our meals and to get from one place to another. But even everyday items like door locks, floor panels, and furniture are technologies that we now take for granted and that seem less impressive to us than self-driving cars or 3D printing.

1) Things created by humans that has made life easier or comfortable is called……

1. a) machines
   b) technology
   c) biotechnology
   d) all of these

Explanation: Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the practical aims of human life or, as it is sometimes phrased, to the change and manipulation of the human environment.

2) Which of the following is/are used as personal hygiene?

1. a) soaps
   b) toothpastes
   c) detergents
   d) all of these

3) Which of the following cooker convert solar energy to heat?

1. a) electric cooker
   b) simple cooker
   c) solar cooker
   d) all of these

Explanation: A solar cooker is a type of solar thermal collector. It “gathers” and traps the Sun’s thermal (heat) energy. Heat is produced when high-frequency light (visible and ultraviolet) is converted into low-frequency infrared radiation.

4) Which of the following is/are used to generate electricity?

1. a) solar cells
   b) wind turbines
   c) wood cart
   d) both a and b

5) Which of the following is/are used during load shedding?

1. a) transformer
   b) UPS
   c) AC
   d) all of these

Applications of Acids and Bases in Technology

Toothpaste:

Toothpaste is a paste or gel dentifrice with complex composition used with a toothbrush to clean and maintain the esthetics and health of teeth.

6) Which of the following is/are used to remove food debris and plaque from your teeth and gums?

1. a) soaps
   b) toothpastes
   c) detergents
   d) all of these

7) Which of the following is/are responsible for decaying food particles and producing acids?

1. a) fungi
   b) virus
   c) bacteria
   d) all of these

8) Which of the following is/are produced during the decay process of food particles by bacteria in the mouth?

1. a) acids
   b) bases
   c) salts
   d) all of these

9) Which of the following is/are responsible for tooth decay?

1. a) acids
   b) bases
   c) salts
   d) all of these

10) Which of the following is/are present in toothpaste to neutralize the acidity?

1. a) acids
   b) alkali
   c) salts
   d) all of these

11) Which of the following you use in making your own toothpaste?

1. a) glycerin
   b) baking soda and peppermint oil
   c) salt
   d) all of these

12) Which of the following is NOT used in making toothpaste?

1. a) glycerine
   b) vinegar
   c) baking soda
   d) a pinch of salt

Soap

The first detergent (or surface-active agent) was soap. In a strictly chemical sense, any compound formed by the reaction of a water-insoluble fatty acid with an organic base or an alkali metal may be called a soap. Practically speaking, the soap industry is concerned mainly with those water-soluble salts that result from the reaction between fatty acids and alkali metals. In certain cases, however, the salts of fatty acids with ammonia or with various organic amines are also used, as in shaving preparations.

13) Which of the following when dissolved in water can produce lather that can remove dirt from skin, clothes, and other solids?

1. a) soaps
   b) toothpastes
   c) detergents
   d) all of these

14) Which of the following is also called ‘lye’?

1. a) NaOH
   b) KOH
   c) LiOH
   d) Al(OH)₃

Explanation: Sodium hydroxide, also known as lye and caustic soda, is an inorganic compound with the formula NaOH. It is a white solid ionic compound consisting of sodium cations (Na⁺) and hydroxide anions (OH⁻).

15) Which of the following is/are used when heated with an alkali NaOH. Organic soap is produced?

1. a) oil
   b) fats
   c) water
   d) both a and b

16) Oil and fats when heated with NaOH, they produce organic soap. What is this reaction?

1. a) neutralization
   b) ionization
   c) saponification
   d) decantation

Saponification

(Contains a chemical equation illustration for the soap-making process.)

17) In making soap, the coconut oil and olive oil heat up to……

1. a) 50°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 5°C
   d) 10°C

Explanation:

• Mix the lye. Put on your rubber gloves and safety goggles, and set up in a very well-ventilated area such as next to an open window.
• Prepare the mold and measure out fragrance.
• Melt and mix the oils.
• Blend and pour your soap.

Milk Plastic

Milk contains many molecules of a protein called casein. Each casein molecule is a monomer and a chain of casein monomers is a polymer. The polymer can be scooped up and molded, which is why plastic made from milk is called casein plastic.

Make Your Own Plastic Toys From Milk!
A Chemistry STEM/STEAM Activity

18) Which of the following is/are nutrient-rich liquid?

1. a) water
   b) alcohol
   c) milk
   d) all of these

19) Which of the following nutrient/s is/are present in milk?

1. a) protein
   b) carbohydrate
   c) fats
   d) all of these

20) Which of the following vitamin is present in milk?

1. a) vitamin A
   b) vitamin B
   c) vitamin K
   d) vitamin D

21) Which of the following mineral is present in milk?

1. a) sodium
   b) calcium
   c) iron
   d) potassium

22) Which of the following product/s is/are made from milk?

1. a) yogurt
   b) cheese
   c) cream or butter
   d) all of these

23) Yogurt, cheese, butter, and cream obtained from milk called………. product.

1. a) waste
   b) nutritional
   c) dairy
   d) none of these

24) Which of the following protein/s is/are present in milk?

1. a) albumin
   b) antibodies
   c) casein
   d) all of these

Explanation: Casein is a family of related phosphoproteins that are commonly found in mammalian milk, comprising about 80% of the proteins in cow’s milk and between 20% and 60% of the proteins in human milk.

25) Which of the following combine/s with an acid and form milk plastic?

1. a) albumin
   b) antibodies
   c) casein
   d) all of these

26) Which of the following is NOT used in making milk plastic?

1. a) milk
   b) vinegar
   c) lye
   d) none of these

27) Which of the following you can create from milk plastic?

1. a) toys
   b) beads
   c) dolls
   d) all of these

Detergent

A detergent is a surfactant or a mixture of surfactants with cleansing properties when in dilute solutions. There are a large variety of detergents, a common family being the alkylbenzene sulfonates, which are soap-like compounds that are more soluble in hard water, because the polar sulfonate (of detergents) is less likely than the polar carboxylate (of soap) to bind to calcium and other ions found in hard water.

28) Which of the following substance is/are used for washing and cleaning but are not soaps?

1. a) alkali
   b) toothpastes
   c) detergent
   d) all of these

29) Which of the following acts as soap?

1. a) acid
   b) toothpaste
   c) detergent
   d) all of these

30) Which of the following material/s is/are used for making detergent?

1. a) washing soda
   b) baking soda
   c) borax and oil (optional)
   d) all of these

31) Which of the following material/s is/are NOT used in making detergent?

1. a) washing soda
   b) baking soda
   c) borax and oil (optional)
   d) glycerine

Designing A Concave Mirror Type Solar Cooker

Solar radiation can be considered as one of the most suitable energy sources to be used for cooking food. It is therefore important to promote advancement in solar cooking systems, in particular as concerns their efficiency and cooking times. In this work, we designed, realized, and tested a novel low-cost solar cooker that uses a high-performance light-concentrating Fresnel lens, which is able to concentrate onto a small focal area a large amount of solar radiation. The radiation is then reflected by a mirror towards a cooking surface, where a pot can be located. The cooker has a geometrical concentration ratio of 40.97.

32) What happens to an object when placed directly in sunlight?

1. a) it gets warm and hot
   b) it gets cooled
   c) it gets charged
   d) it becomes conductor

34) When a beam of light is directed toward a concave mirror along the principal axis, it converges on……….

1. a) pole
   b) focus point
   c) behind the focus point
   d) in front of the focus point

35) Which of the following mirror/s is/are used to focus the sunlight to a single point?

1. a) plane
   b) concave
   c) convex

36) Which of the following mirror/s is/are used to focus the sunlight to a single point and produce a lot of thermal energy?

1. a) plane
   b) concave
   c) convex
   d) all of these

37) Which of the following energy is/are used in a solar cooker to cook food?

1. a) wind energy
   b) sunlight energy
   c) fuel energy
   d) all of these

38) Which of the following is an environment-friendly and cheap cooker?

1. a) solar cooker
   b) electric cooker
   c) gas cooker
   d) fuel cooker

39) Which of the following mirror/s is/are NOT used to focus the sunlight to a single point and produce a lot of thermal energy?

1. a) plane
   b) flat
   c) convex
   d) all of these

Designing a Wind Turbine:

A wind turbine is a device that converts the kinetic energy of wind into electrical energy. Hundreds of thousands of large turbines, in installations known as wind farms, now generate over 650 gigawatts of power, with 60 GW added each year.

40) Wind can move things around because it carries

1. a) heat
   b) light
   c) energy
   d) all of these

41) Why wind is used to produce electrical energy?

1. a) it carries light
   b) it propagates sound
   c) it has energy
   d) none of these

42) A wind turbine converts ………. energy into electricity

1. a) heat
   b) kinetic
   c) thermal energy
   d) solar energy

43) To change ………. energy to electricity, wind should turn the rotor blades which need to spin the turbine.

1. a) heat
   b) sound
   c) sun
   d) wind

44) Which of the following is fitted inside the turbine that supplies an electrical output?

1. a) concave mirror
   b) electric generator
   c) magnet
   d) all of these

45) A wind turbine is connected to the ……… and its movement generates electricity.

1. a) machine
   b) mirror
   c) motor
   d) none of these

46) Which of the following is used to measure how much electricity is produced by a wind turbine generator?

1. a) ammeter
   b) voltmeter
   c) thermometer
   d) meter ruler

Explanation: A voltmeter is an instrument used for measuring electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit. It is connected in parallel. It usually has a high resistance so that it takes negligible current from the circuit.

47) The power produced by a wind turbine depends on……….

1. a) elevation
   b) wind speed
   c) air temperature
   d) all of these

48) Which of the following power is undergoing the fastest rate of growth of any form of electricity generation in the world?

1. Why wind power is undergoing the fastest rate of growth of any form of electricity generation in the world? It is because wind power is…
   a) pollution free
   b) renewable
   c) cost-free
   d) all of these

Working of UPS:

An uninterruptible power supply or uninterruptible power source (UPS) is an electrical apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source or mains power fails. A UPS differs from an auxiliary or emergency power system or standby generator in that it will provide near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions, by supplying energy stored in batteries, supercapacitors, or flywheels. The on-battery run-time of most uninterruptible power sources is relatively short (only a few minutes) but sufficient to start a standby power source or properly shut down the protected equipment. It is a type of continual power system.

1. UPS stands for…
   a) universal power storage
   b) uninterruptible power supply
   c) uninterruptible power storage
   d) unlimited power supply
2. UPS is also known as…
   a) battery power
   b) battery backup
   c) battery storage
   d) battery supply
3. UPS uses which of the following device to control interruption in power supply?
   a) battery
   b) capacitor
   c) resistor
   d) all of these

Explanation: An electric battery is a source of electric power consisting of one or more electrochemical cells with external connections for powering electrical devices. When a battery is supplying power, its positive terminal is the cathode and its negative terminal is the anode.

1. Which of the following is performed by UPS?
   a) resist voltage change
   b) limit the current
   c) convert DC voltage to AC
   d) store energy

Explanation: In direct current, the voltage is always constant, and the electricity flows in a certain direction. In contrast, in alternating current, the voltage periodically changes from positive to negative and from negative to positive, and the direction of the current also periodically changes accordingly.

AC (Alternating Current) vs. DC (Direct Current)

1. Which of the following is detected by the UPS?
   a) loss in primary power source
   b) reduction in primary power source
   c) resistance in the circuit
   d) both a and b
2. Which of the following is used in UPS to convert DC voltage to AC voltage?
   a) inverter
   b) resistor
   c) converter
   d) all of these
3. Which of the following reaction takes place when baking soda and vinegar are mixed?
   a) chemical
   b) physical
   c) biological
   d) geological
4. Which of the following gas is produced when baking soda and vinegar are mixed?
   a) oxygen
   b) nitrogen
   c) methane
   d) carbon dioxide
5. Which of the following gas produces pressure in the bottle when baking soda and vinegar are mixed?
   a) oxygen
   b) nitrogen
   c) carbon dioxide
   d) methane
6. Which of the following device gives emergency power to a load when the main power source fails?

Exercise

1. Which of the following is NOT a component of soap?
   a) glycerine
   b) baking soda
   c) lye
   d) salt
2. Which substance is used to make milk plastic?
   a) baking soda
   b) glycerine
   c) vinegar
   d) borax
3. What type of mirror is used in solar cookers?
   a) plane
   b) convex
   c) concave
   d) flat
4. A wind turbine converts kinetic energy into:
   a) heat
   b) electricity
   c) thermal energy
   d) solar energy
5. In making soap, when lye is completely dissolved, the solution is left to cool at…
   a) 50°C
   b) 100°C
   c) 5°C
   d) 10°C

OUR UNIVERSE
UNIT NO: 12

Introduction:

The universe is everything. It includes all of space, and all the matter and energy that space contains. It even includes time itself and, of course, it includes you. Earth and the Moon are part of the universe, as are the other planets and their many dozens of moons.

1. Which of the following is/are present in our universe?
   a) whole space
   b) stars and planets
   c) matter and energy
   d) all of these
2. Stars are huge balls of gases that emit ……..
   a) light
   b) other radiation
   c) water
   d) both a and b
3. Sun is a …….
   a) planet
   b) galaxy
   c) star
   d) asteroid
4. Which of the following is/are closest star to our earth planet?
   a) Alpha Centauri
   b) sun
   c) Y15
   d) all of these
5. A galaxy is an extremely large collection of…
   a) planets
   b) moons
   c) stars
   d) asteroids
6. In a galaxy, stars are bound together by mutual
   a) gravitational attraction
   b) bonding
   c) attraction
   d) all of these
7. Which of the following structures are the basic units of the universe?
   a) planets
   b) galaxies
   c) asteroids and comets
   d) stars
8. Our sun is the member of ……..
   a) milky way
   b) Andromeda
   c) NGC 1569
   d) ESO-305-G004
9. How many estimated stars are present in our galaxy (Milky Way)?
   a) 2 million
   b) 20 million
   c) 200 million
   d) 2 billion
10. How many galaxies are present in our universe?
    a) billions/trillions
    b) million
    c) thousands
    d) hundreds
11. How much time would take a modern jet fighter to reach the nearest star to the sun?
    a) more than million years
    b) half million years
    c) 200 thousand years
    d) 2 billion years
12. What is the speed of light in km per second?
    a) 300
    b) 3000
    c) 30000
    d) 300,000
13. How much time would take a modern jet fighter to cover one light-year?
    a) 1 million years
    b) half million years
    c) 100000 million years
    d) 2 billion years
14. Which of the following unit is used for measurement of distance in space?
    a) meter
    b) km
    c) mile
    d) light-year

Explanation: A light-year, alternatively spelled…

A light-year is a large unit of length used to express astronomical distances and is equivalent to about 9.46 trillion kilometers, or 5.88 trillion miles.

1. How much estimated distance is travelled by light one light-year?
   a) 10 trillion meter
   b) 10 trillion km
   c) 10 billion meter
   d) 10 billion km
2. More precisely one light-year is the distance traveled by light in one year which is equal to ………. meter.
   a) 9.5×10⁶
   b) 9.5×10⁹
   c) 9.5×10¹²
   d) 9.5×10¹⁵
3. How much time is taken by sunlight to reach our earth?
   a) 2 minutes
   b) 4 minutes
   c) 8 minutes
4. After the sun, which of the following star is nearest to our earth planet?
   a) Sirius
   b) Alpha Centauri
   c) Aries
5. What is the light-years distance between the earth and the 2nd closest star (Alpha Centauri)?
   a) 1
   b) 2
   c) 3
   d) 4.5
6. The distance between the earth and the most distant known object in the universe is …….. billion light-years.
   a) 2
   b) 3
   c) 20
   d) 32

Galaxy:

A galaxy is a gravitationally bound system of stars, stellar remnants, interstellar gas, dust, and dark matter. The word is derived from the Greek galaxias, literally ‘milky,’ a reference to the Milky Way galaxy that contains the Solar System.

1. Which of the following is/are collectively forms a galaxy?
   a) dust and gases
   b) stars
   c) solar systems
   d) all of these
2. There are thought to be over ………. galaxies in the observable parts of the universe.
   a) millions
   b) billions
   c) trillions
   d) thousands
3. Our Milky Way is the part of ……. galaxies known as the local group.
   a) 10
   b) 20
   c) 30
   d) 40

Explanation: The Milky Way is the galaxy that includes our Solar System, with the name describing the galaxy’s appearance from Earth: a hazy band of light seen in the night sky formed from stars that cannot be individually distinguished by the naked eye.

1. Galaxies can be broadly classified into how many main types?
   a) two
   b) three
   c) four
   d) six

Explanation: 1. Spiral, 2. Elliptical, and 3. Irregular galaxies.

1. Which one of the following is the most common galaxy type?
   a) spiral
   b) elliptical
   c) irregular
   d) rounded
2. Our Milky Way is a/an …….. galaxy.
   a) spiral
   b) elliptical
   c) irregular
   d) rounded
3. Our closest spiral galaxy is …….
   a) Sirius
   b) Andromeda
   c) NCG 1569
   d) ESO-305-G004

Explanation: The Andromeda Galaxy, also known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224 and originally the Andromeda Nebula, is a barred spiral galaxy with a diameter of about 46.56 kiloparsecs, approximately 2.5 million light-years from Earth, and the nearest large galaxy to the Milky Way.

1. Spiral galaxies are large rotating disks of stars and the central core region called …….
   a) bright spot
   b) galactic bulge

1. Which of the following galaxy is roughly egg-shaped (ellipsoidal)?
   a) spiral
   b) elliptical
   c) irregular
   d) none of these
2. Elliptical galaxies do not have ………
   a) bright stars
   b) galactic bulge
   c) stars
   d) elliptic bulge
3. Which of the following galaxies contain old stars?
   a) spiral
   b) elliptical
   c) irregular
   d) all of these

Explanation: An elliptical galaxy is a type of galaxy with an approximately ellipsoidal shape and a smooth, nearly featureless image. They are one of the four main classes of galaxy described by Edwin Hubble in his Hubble sequence and 1936 work The Realm of the Nebulae, along with spiral and lenticular galaxies.

1. Why do elliptical galaxies contain old stars?
   a) no formation of new stars
   b) little formation of new stars
   c) new stars engulfed by black holes
   d) all of these
2. How many estimated stars are present in an elliptical galaxy?
   a) 100 million
   b) 100 billion
   c) 100 trillion
   d) 100 million to 100 trillion
3. Which of the following galaxy has no definite shape?
   a) spiral galaxy
   b) elliptical galaxy
   c) irregular galaxy
   d) none of these

Explanation: An irregular galaxy is a galaxy that does not have a distinct regular shape, unlike a spiral or an elliptical galaxy. Irregular galaxies do not fall into any of the regular classes of the Hubble sequence, and they are often chaotic in appearance, with neither a nuclear bulge nor any trace of spiral arm structure.

1. All the galaxies are in constant ……… as a group.
   a) stationary
   b) motion
   c) both a and b
   d) none
2. Which of the following is/are spiral galaxy/ies?
   a) Milky Way
   b) Andromeda
   c) NGC 1569
   d) both a and b
3. Which of the following is an elliptical galaxy?
   a) Milky Way
   b) Andromeda
   c) NGC 1569
   d) ESO-305-G004
4. Which of the following is an example of an irregular galaxy?
   a) Milky Way
   b) Andromeda
   c) NGC 1569
   d) ESO-305-G004

The Milky Way Galaxy

The Milky Way is the galaxy that includes our Solar System, with the name describing the galaxy’s appearance from Earth: a hazy band of light seen in the night sky formed from stars that cannot be individually distinguished by the naked eye.

1. Our own solar system is a very small part of the ……… galaxy.
   a) Milky Way
   b) Andromeda
   c) NGC 1569
   d) ESO-305-G004
2. The Milky Way galaxy is ……… than average galaxies, both in its number of stars and dimensions.
   a) smaller
   b) very smaller
   c) larger
   d) equal
3. Which of the following mobile app is used to identify the stars in the night sky?
   a) Facebook
   b) Whatsapp
   c) Sky Map
   d) Weather app
4. Explanation: Sky Map is a hand-held planetarium for your Android device. Use it to identify stars, planets, nebulae, and more. Originally developed as Google Sky Map, it has now been donated and open sourced.

1. Milky Way contains roughly about ……… stars.
   a) 2 million
   b) 200 million
   c) 400 billion
   d) 2 trillion
2. The diameter of the Milky Way galaxy is ……… light years.
   a) 4.5
   b) 100
   c) 1000
   d) 100,000
3. The thickness of the arm of Milky Way galaxy is ……… light years.
   a) 450
   b) 1000
   c) 2000
   d) 100,000
4. The central bulge of the Milky Way galaxy is about ……… light years across.
   a) 300
   b) 1000
   c) 10,000
   d) 100,000
5. Our sun is about ……… light years from the center.
   a) 4500
   b) 5000
   c) 26,000
   d) 10,000
6. Which of the following galaxy can be seen with the naked eye from the earth?
   a) Sires
   b) Andromeda
   c) NGC 1569
   d) ESO-305-G004

The Life of Stars

The exact lifetime of a star depends very much on its size. Very massive stars use up their fuel quickly. This means they may only last a few hundred thousand years. Smaller stars use up fuel more slowly, so will shine for several billion years.

1. Which one of the following is a star?
   a) Earth
   b) Moon
   c) Sun
   d) Asteroid
2. The sun was born about ……… billion years ago.
   a) 2
   b) 3
   c) 4
   d) 4.5
3. Which of the following instrument is used to see stars and their life cycle?
   a) Telescope
   b) Microscope
   c) Periscope
   d) Kaleidoscope
4. Stars are born when ……… contract due to the pull of gravity.
   a) Solid
   b) Liquid
   c) Gaseous cloud
   d) Plasma
5. As the particles of gaseous cloud of stars merge, their kinetic energy increases, which of the following reaction is started?
   a) Chemical
   b) Physical
   c) Nuclear
   d) Biological

Explanation: In nuclear physics and nuclear chemistry, a nuclear reaction is a process in which two nuclei, or a nucleus and an external subatomic particle, collide to produce one or more new nuclides. Thus, a nuclear reaction must cause a transformation of at least one nuclide to another.

1. Which of the following reactions change light elements into heavier ones and release energy in the process and stars appear to glow?
   a) Chemical
   b) Physical
   c) Nuclear
   d) Biological
2. In stars like our sun, which of the following is released in huge amount by the nuclear reactions?
   a) Mass
   b) Matter
   c) Energy
   d) None of these
3. How much time has taken by sun to contract and reach stability?
   a) 30 thousand years
   b) 30 million years
   c) 30 billion years
   d) 30 trillion years
4. For how much expected time, the sun will remain stable since its birth?
   a) 10 thousand years
   b) 10 million years
   c) 10 billion years
   d) 10 trillion years
5. Which of the following is used for nuclear reactions during the death of stars?
   a) Energy
   b) Mass
   c) Fuel
   d) Radiation
6. Nuclear reactions outside the core cause the dying star to expand outward in the ……… phase before it collapses.
   a) Red giant
   b) Blue giant
   c) Yellow giant
   d) White dwarf

Explanation: A red giant is a luminous giant star of low or intermediate mass in a late phase of stellar evolution. The outer atmosphere is inflated and tenuous, making the radius large and the surface temperature around 5,000 K or lower.

1. After the formation of red giant, the core of the star ends up as one of the ……… types.
   a) Two
   b) Three
   c) Four
   d) Six

Explanation:

1. White dwarf
2. Neutron star (or pulsar)
3. Black hole

1. If the initial mass of the star is less than ………

Equal to the mass of the solar mass, the red giant becomes…
a) white dwarf
b) neutron star
c) black hole
d) none of these

Explanation: A white dwarf is a stellar core remnant composed mostly of electron-degenerate matter. A white dwarf is very dense: its mass is comparable to the Sun’s, while its volume is comparable to the Earth’s. A white dwarf’s faint luminosity comes from the emission of residual thermal energy; no fusion takes place in a white dwarf. The nearest known white dwarf is Sirius B, at 8.6 light years.

1. What is the estimated size of a white dwarf?
   a) moon
   b) comet
   c) earth
   d) sun
2. The sun is about ……… billion years old.
   a) 4.5
   b) 5
   c) 10
   d) 15
3. The sun will take about ……… billion years to become a white dwarf.
   a) 4
   b) 5
   c) 9
   d) 15
4. Which one of the following is the nearest known white dwarf to us?
   a) Sirius B
   b) Alpha Centauri
   c) Aries
   d) Rigel
5. What is the distance between Earth and the nearest known white dwarf (Sirius B) in light years?
   a) 4.5
   b) 6.5
   c) 8.6
   d) 1.5
6. If the initial mass of the star is between one to five times the solar mass, the red giant becomes a ………
   a) white dwarf
   b) neutron star
   c) black hole
   d) none of these

Explanation: A neutron star is the collapsed core of a massive supergiant star, which had a total mass of between 10 and 25 solar masses, possibly more if the star was especially metal-rich.

1. The contraction of the star continues until it becomes so dense, such that it is composed almost entirely of ………
   a) electrons
   b) protons
   c) neutrons
   d) atoms
2. A neutron star is so dense that a teaspoon of neutron star material would weigh about ……… tons.
   a) 10
   b) 10 thousand
   c) 10 million
   d) 10 billion
3. What is the estimated diameter of a neutron star?
   a) 1-2 kilometers
   b) 10-20 kilometers
   c) 3-5 kilometers
   d) 100-200 kilometers
4. Which of the following is a highly magnetized rotating neutron star?
   a) pulsar
   b) double pulsar
   c) X-ray pulsar
   d) merger
5. The radiations from the pulsar neutron star can be observed when a beam of emission is pointing toward ………
   a) moon
   b) earth
   c) sun
   d) mars
6. If the initial mass of the star is more than five times the mass of the solar mass, the red giant becomes a ………
   a) white dwarf
   b) neutron star
   c) black hole
   d) none of these

Explanation: A black hole is a region of space-time where gravity is so strong that nothing—no particles or even electromagnetic radiation such as light—can escape from it. The theory of general relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact mass can deform space-time to form a black hole.

1. The massive star goes through uncontrolled contraction because of the inward pull of its own ………
   a) mass
   b) energy
   c) gravity
   d) all of these
2. The contraction of a star continues until the star ………

Becomes so dense that ……… cannot escape from its gravity.
a) mass
b) energy
c) light
d) all

1. A supermassive black hole is detected at the center of the Milky Way galaxy, which is about ……… million solar masses.
   a) 4.3
   b) 6.5
   c) 8.6
   d) 1.5
2. All the ……… emit a beam of electromagnetic radiations from its poles.
   a) black holes
   b) red giants
   c) white dwarfs
   d) neutron stars

The Life of Sun

This lifespan began roughly 4.6 billion years ago, and will continue for about another 4.5 – 5.5 billion years, when it will deplete its supply of hydrogen, helium, and collapse into a white dwarf. But this is just the abridged version of the Sun’s lifespan.

1. Like other stars, our sun is a star. Which of the following reactions energizes it at its core?
   a) chemical
   b) physical
   c) biological
   d) nuclear
2. About 4.6 billion years ago, a large cloud of gas mostly ……… and dust in our galaxy formed our sun.
   a) oxygen
   b) helium
   c) hydrogen
   d) nitrogen
3. In how much time, the formation of our sun was completed?
   a) 10 thousand years
   b) 10 years
   c) 100 million years
   d) 10 billion years
4. When we look at the closest star outside our solar system, Alpha Centauri, we are really looking into the ………
   a) future
   b) present
   c) past
   d) all of these
5. When we are looking at Alpha Centauri, it means that the light emitted by this star was ……… years ago that reaches the earth.
   a) 4.3
   b) 6.5
   c) 8.6
   d) 1.5
6. Which of the following is our neighboring galaxy?
   a) Sires
   b) Andromeda
   c) NGC 1569
   d) ESO-305-G004
7. When we are looking at Andromeda, it means that the light emitted by this galaxy was ……… million years ago that reaches the earth.
   a) 2.4
   b) 6.5
   c) 8.6
   d) 1.5

Death of the Sun

In about 5 billion years from now, the sun will begin to die. As the Sun grows old, it will expand. As the core runs out of hydrogen and then helium, the core will contract and the outer layers will expand, cool, and become less bright. It will become a red giant star.

1. The nuclear reaction at the core of the sun will continue for another ……… billion years.
   a) 4
   b) 5
   c) 1.6
   d) 1.5
2. What will happen when the sun runs out of nuclear fuel?
   a) the sun will disappear
   b) the sun will grow into a red giant
   c) the sun will become a black hole at once
   d) none of these
3. How many times the size of the sun will increase when it will run out of fuel and become a red giant?
   a) 10
   b) 20
   c) 30
   d) 100
4. The red giant phase of the sun will last for about ……… billion years.
   a) 4
   b) 2
   c) 1.6
   d) 1.5
5. When the sun becomes a red giant, it will ……… earth.
   a) go away from
   b) come close to
   c) remain at the same place
   d) none of these
6. At the end of the red giant phase, the sun will turn into ………
   a) neutron star
   b) black hole
   c) white dwarf
   d) none of these

Information from Space

Telescope

A telescope is an optical instrument using lenses, curved mirrors, or a combination of both to observe distant objects, or various devices used to observe distant objects by their emission, absorption.

or reflection of electromagnetic radiation.

1. Which of the following instruments is used by the astronomer to observe distant objects?
   a) microscope
   b) telescope
   c) ophthalmoscope
   d) periscope
2. Which of the following is/are used in a telescope?
   a) curved mirrors
   b) glasses
   c) plane mirrors
   d) both a and b
3. The bigger the mirrors or lenses, the ……… light the telescope can gather?
   a) less
   b) same
   c) more
   d) independent
4. Which of the following is called an optical telescope?
   a) visible light telescope
   b) UV light telescope
   c) reflective telescope
   d) none of these
5. Which of the following is/are used in modern broad-spectrum telescopes?
   a) radio waves
   b) UV, IR, and X-Rays
   c) Gamma Rays
   d) all of these

Space Telescope

A space telescope or space observatory is a telescope in outer space used to observe astronomical objects. Suggested by Lyman Spitzer in 1946, the first operational telescopes were the American Orbiting Astronomical Observatory, OAO-2 launched in 1968, and the Soviet Orion 1 ultraviolet telescope aboard space station Salyut 1 in 1971.

1. Where is the space telescope located to observe distant planets, galaxies, and other astronomical objects?
   a) on earth
   b) on the moon
   c) in space
   d) all of these
2. Which one of the following is an example of a space telescope?
   a) optical telescope
   b) visible light telescope
   c) Hubble Space Telescope
   d) all of these

Explanation: The Hubble Space Telescope is a space telescope that was launched into low Earth orbit in 1990 and remains in operation. It was not the first space telescope, but it is one of the largest and most versatile, renowned both as a vital research tool and as a public relations boon for astronomy.

1. The Hubble Space Telescope was discovered by which scientist?
   a) James Webb
   b) Edwin Hubble
   c) Einstein
   d) Stephen Hawking
2. When was the Hubble Space Telescope launched into its orbit?
   a) 1970
   b) 1980
   c) 1990
   d) 20
3. Which of the following is the largest space telescope flown in space?
   a) James Webb Space Telescope
   b) visible light telescope
   c) Hubble telescope
   d) all of these

Explanation: The James Webb Space Telescope is a space telescope designed primarily to conduct infrared astronomy. As the largest optical telescope in space, its high infrared resolution and sensitivity allow it to view objects too early, distant, or faint for the Hubble Space Telescope.
Launching date and time: December 25, 2021, at 5:20 PM GMT+5

1. Which of the following telescope/s is/are used to observe more distant objects and events in the universe?
   a) James Webb Space Telescope
   b) Visible light telescope
   c) Hubble telescope
   d) All of these
2. Which of the following telescope/s is/are used to observe the oldest stars and first galaxy in the universe?
   a) Hubble telescope
   b) Visible light telescope
   c) James Webb Space Telescope
   d) All of these
3. Which of the following telescope/s is/are used to provide atmospheric details about planets other than the solar system for potential habitability?
   a) Visible light telescope
   b) James Webb Space Telescope
   c) Hubble telescope
   d) All of these

Space Probe:

A space probe is an artificial satellite that travels through space to collect scientific data. A space probe may orbit Earth; approach the Moon; travel through interplanetary space; flyby, orbit, or land or fly on other planetary bodies; or enter interstellar space.

1. Which one of the following is a space vehicle without astronauts in it, that is launched into space to explore the universe?
   a) Space probe
   b) James Webb Space Telescope
   c) Hubble telescope
   d) All of these
2. Which of the following is used to achieve measurements that are difficult on Earth and can be designed not to return back?
   a) Space probe
   b) James Webb Space Telescope
   c) Hubble telescope
   d) All of these
3. Which of the following is the first space probe?
   a) Space Probe Galileo
   b) Voyager 2
   c) Voyager 1
   d) Hubble Space Telescope

Explanation: Galileo was an American robotic space probe that studied the planet Jupiter and its moons, as well as the asteroids Gaspra and Ida. Named after the Italian astronomer Galileo Galilei, it consisted of an orbiter and an entry probe. It was delivered into Earth orbit on October 18, 1989, by Space Shuttle Atlantis.

1. Which was the first spacecraft to orbit and give information about planet Jupiter, its moons, and rings?
   a) Space Probe Galileo
   b) Voyager 2
   c) Voyager 1
   d) Hubble Space Telescope
2. When was the Space Probe Galileo launched?
   a) October, 1978
   b) October, 1980
   c) October, 1985
   d) October, 1989
3. When did the Space Probe Galileo arrive close to Jupiter?
   a) October, 1978
   b) December, 1980
   c) October, 1985
   d) December, 1995
4. When was the Space Probe Galileo deliberately crashed into Jupiter?
   a) September, 2003
   b) December, 1999
   c) October, 2010
   d) December, 1995

1. Which of the following traveled toward many planets in our solar system and even beyond the orbit of Pluto?
   a) Space Probe Galileo
   b) James Webb Space Telescope
   c) Voyager 1
   d) Hubble Space Telescope

Explanation: Voyager 1 is a space probe launched by NASA on September 5, 1977, as part of the Voyager program to study the outer Solar System and interstellar space beyond the Sun’s heliosphere.

1. Which of the following is Pakistan’s space agency?
   a) NASA
   b) SUPARCO
   c) NIH
   d) PSF

Explanation: The Space & Upper Atmosphere Research Commission (SUPARCO) is the executive and national space agency of Pakistan. It is headquartered in Islamabad in the northern part of Pakistan, with additional facilities at the University of Punjab in Lahore.

![SUPARCO Logo]

1. Which of the following has been improved due to artificial satellites?
   a) Telecommunication
   b) Internet broadcasting
   c) Both a & b
   d) None of them

Exercise:

1. The distances in space are measured in:
   a) Meters
   b) Miles
   c) Light years
   d) Kilometers
2. The Milky Way is classified as a:
   a) Spiral galaxy
   b) Elliptical galaxy
   c) Irregular galaxy
   d) Spherical galaxy
3. With no or very little star formation, a galaxy is called:
   a) Spiral
   b) Elliptical
   c) Irregular
   d) Spherical
4. When the mass of a star is equal to our Sun, it will turn into a:
   a) White dwarf
   b) Neutron star
   c) Black hole
   d) Singularity
5. During star formation, the stars are prevented from collapsing under gravity by:
   a) Nuclear reactions
   b) Other stars
   c) Mass of gases
   d) Black hole
6. A Pulsar is a type of:
   a) White dwarf
   b) Neutron star
   c) Black hole
   d) Red giant
7. To form a black hole, the initial mass of the star in the solar system should be:
   a) 0.5
   b) 1
   c) 3
   d) 7
8. The total life of the Sun (from birth to its death) is:
   a) 100 million years
   b) 4.6 billion years
   c) 5 billion years
   d) 10 billion years
9. Optical telescopes make use of:
   a) X-rays
   b) Infrared light
   c) Visible light
   d) Radio waves
10. The unmanned object launched into space to study celestial objects is:
    a) Satellite
    b) Star
    c) Space probe
    d) Space telescope

Note: Stay connected with our website for more materials and updates! Visit regularly to access fresh content, resources, and the latest updates. Don’t miss out—stay informed and engaged!