MDCAT 2024 Papers

MDCAT SOLVED PAST PAPER-2024

For F.S.C. and Non-F.Sc. Students

Time Allowed: 210 Minutes (3- ½ hours)

Instructions:

i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Each correct Answer carries One Mark. There is No Negative Marking

iv. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll. No. & Signature in the specified columns only.

BIOLOGY

Example of viruses having a polyhedral capsid that is with 252 capsomeres is:
A. Adenovirus B. Tobacco Mosaic Virus
C. Influenza virus D. Bacteriophage
Explanation: Adenovirus has an icosahedral capsid with 252 capsomeres.
The complete, mature & infectious particle of virus is known as:
A. Genome B. Capsomere
C. Prion D. Envelope
Explanation: The complete infectious particle is called a “virion” (not listed). An envelope is only a component of some virions, so this item has no correct option.
The causative organism of measles is:
A. Poxvirus B. Papovavirus
C. Picornovirus D. Paramyxovirus
Explanation: Measles virus (morbillivirus) is in the Paramyxoviridae family.
In the life cycle of a bacteriophage, the lysozymes are required in which of the following steps of infection process?
A. Genome injection B. Penetration
C. Replication D. Adsorption
Explanation: Phage lysozyme digests host cell wall to penetrate and inject DNA.
______ is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes.
A. HIV B. Influenza Virus
C. Morbilli Virus (Measles)
D. Vibrio Cholerae (Cholera)
Explanation: HIV is blood-borne and can spread via contaminated needles.
In Calvin cycle CO₂ reacts with RuBP to produce:
A. 3-PGA B. G3P
C. 6-Carbon unstable intermediate
D. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
Explanation: CO₂ + RuBP → a transient C6 intermediate that splits into 3-PGA.
Which option is correct about a chlorophyll molecule?
A. Chemical formula C₅₅ H₇₀ O₆ N₄Mg
B. Porphyrin ring with nitrogen in center
C. (Methyl) group on second pyrrole ring
D. Aldehyde group on second pyrrole ring
Explanation: The formula given matches chlorophyll b. (B is wrong—Mg, not N, sits centrally; C applies to chlorophyll a; D to chlorophyll b.)
In the journey of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I plastocyanin is reduced by:
A. Plastoquinone
B. Cytochrome complex
C. Primary electron acceptor of PSI
D. Ferredoxin
Explanation: The cytochrome b₆f complex reduces plastocyanin.
Enzyme NADP reductase is responsible for:
A. Reducing NADP⁺ B. Oxidizing NADP⁺
C. Reducing Ferredoxin
D. Reducing P₇₀₀
Explanation: Ferredoxin–NADP⁺ reductase transfers electrons to NADP⁺ → NADPH.
The PS II during light reactions receives electrons from splitting:
A. Water B. Plastoquinone
C. Plastocyanin D. Ferridoxin
Explanation: Photolysis of water supplies electrons to PSII.
Mono-saccharides have a general formula represented by:
A. Cₙ(H₂O)ₙ B. C(H₂O)ₙ
C. C2(H₂O)ₙ D. Cⁿ(H₂O)ₙ
Explanation: Monosaccharides approximate to (CH₂O)ₙ.
What is the percentage of H₂O in bone cells?
A. 70% B. 20%
C. 99% D. 60%
Explanation: Most living cells, including osteocytes, are about 70% water.
When glycerol reacts with fatty acid, which type of chemical bond will form?
A. Ester Bond B. Ether Linkage
C. Hydrogen Bond D. Ionic Bond
Explanation: Fatty acids esterify glycerol to form acylglycerols.
Polysaccharides in plants are synthesized by the process of:
A. Hydrolysis B. Oxidation
C. Condensation D. Glycolysis
Explanation: Dehydration (condensation) links monosaccharides.
Which of the following processes is involved in the breakdown of protein into amino acids?
A. Condensation B. Hydrolysis
C. Glycolysis D. Fixation
Explanation: Peptide bonds are hydrolyzed to amino acids.
The hydrophilic end of a phospholipid molecule is polar because of the presence of:
A. Glycerol B. Amine group
C. Fatty Acid D. Phosphate group
Explanation: The phosphate head is polar and hydrophilic.
Which monosaccharide will form a gluco pyranose ring in solution?
A. Fructose B. Glucose
C. Ribose D. Deoxyribose
Explanation: Glucose cyclizes to glucopyranose (six-membered ring).
Chloroplasts are membrane-bound bodies containing:
A. Enzymes B. Cisternae
C. Pigment D. Cristae
Explanation: Chlorophyll and accessory pigments are in chloroplasts.
Which of the following is the function of Golgi Complex?
A. Intracellular digestion
B. Autophagy
C. Autolysis
D. Processing of cell secretions
Explanation: Golgi modifies, sorts, and packages secretory products.
The nucleus takes dyes due to the presence of:
A. Chromatin B. Lipid
C. Metal ions D. Thylakoids
Explanation: DNA-protein chromatin is basophilic and stains readily.
The organelles only found at the seedling stage in oil seed plants are:
A. Peroxisomes B. Glyoxisomes
C. Microbodies D. Vacuoles
Explanation: Glyoxysomes convert fats to sugars during germination.
Posterior lobe of the pituitary produces:
A. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C. Adreno Corticotrophic Hormone (ACH)
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Explanation: Functionally, the posterior pituitary releases (stores) ADH and oxytocin made in the hypothalamus.
In human myelinated fibers, nerve impulse travels at ______ meters per second.
A. 100-120 B. 130-150
C. 160-180 D. 190-210
Explanation: Typical conduction speeds are about 100–120 m/s.
Nissl’s granules are groups of:
A. Mesosomes B. Lysosomes
C. Ribosomes D. Chromosome
Explanation: Nissl bodies are rough ER/ribosome aggregates in neurons.
During the non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to the efflux of:
A. K⁺ B. Na⁺
C. Ca²⁺ D. Cl⁻
Explanation: Resting membrane favors K⁺ efflux via leak channels.
Which of the following neurotransmitters is lying outside the central nervous system?
A. Acetylcholine B. Endorphins
C. Dopamine
D. Gamma – aminobutyric acid
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the main peripheral (PNS) transmitter at NMJ and autonomic synapses.
Depolarization during the conduction of nerve impulse is due to:
A. Inward movement of Na⁺
B. Inward movement of K⁺
C. Outward movement of K⁺
D. Outward movement of Na⁺
Explanation: Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open, Na⁺ enters.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Autonomic Nervous System?
A. Regulate response of visceral organs
B. Regulate response of skeletal muscles
C. Regulate response of glands
D. Regulate response of smooth muscles
Explanation: Skeletal muscle is controlled by the somatic system.
Taste receptor is an example of:
A. Mechanoreceptors B. Nociceptors
C. Photo receptors D. Chemo receptors
Explanation: Taste and smell are chemoreception.
Which of the following belongs to chordates?
A. Spider B. Earthworm
C. Trout Fish D. Star Fish
Explanation: Fishes are chordates; spiders, earthworms, starfish are not.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the enzyme action?
A. Increase in enzyme concentration increases the rate
B. Increase in enzyme concentration reduces the rate
C. All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum temperature
D. All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum Ph
Explanation: More enzyme generally increases rate (at sufficient substrate).
Induced fit model of enzyme activity suggests that an enzyme:
A. Cannot modify its active sites
B. Can bind to a single substrate
C. Can catalyze related reaction
D. Usually belongs to non-regulatory enzyme
Explanation: Flexible active sites can adjust and catalyze related substrates/reactions.
Chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome is represented as:
A. XXX B. XYY
C. XO D. XXY
Explanation: Turner syndrome is monosomy X.
The change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is known as:
A. Mutation B. Genetic Drift
C. Non-random mating
D. Speciation
Explanation: Drift is random fluctuation of allele frequencies.
Identify the correct pair of vestigial organs:
A. Ear Muscles & Vermiform appendix
B. Heart & Liver
C. Ear Muscles & Liver
D. Vermiform appendix & Heart
Explanation: Both are vestigial in humans.
Which of the following increases variation within a gene pool?
A. Chromosome Inversion
B. Crossing over
C. Gene mutation
D. Random fusion of gametes
Explanation: Mutations introduce new alleles into the gene pool.
Which of the following statements about natural selection is not true?
A. It affects variations that are heritable
B. It is selected by a breeder
C. It can improve the adaptation of species
D. It is regional in nature
Explanation: Selection by a breeder is artificial selection.
The formula calculating the frequency of genotypes and alleles in a population gene pool is known as:
A. Hardy-Weinberg Equation
B. Lamarck Equation
C. Darwin Equation
D. James Hutton Equation
Explanation: p² + 2pq + q² describes genotype frequencies at equilibrium.
The idea of inheritance of acquired characteristics was presented by:
A. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
B. Charles Darwin
C. Thomas Malthus
D. Alfred Wallace
Explanation: Lamarck proposed acquired traits are inherited.
According to endosymbiosis theory, flagella may have evolved by the ingestion of:
A. Amoeboid prokaryote
B. Aerobic bacterium
C. Spirochete
D. Spirillum
Explanation: Margulis suggested symbiosis with spirochetes for eukaryotic flagella.
The nutrients glucose into:
A. Vitamins B. Minerals
C. Lipids D. Cortisone
Explanation: Excess glucose can be converted into lipids (lipogenesis). (Wording appears incomplete.)
About 70% of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood as:
A. Carbonate B. Bicarbonate
C. Tricarbonate D. Carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: Most CO₂ is transported as HCO₃⁻ in plasma/RBCs.
Range of total lung capacity in humans is:
A. 5-6 liter B. 8-9 liter
C. 10-11 liter D. 12-13 liter
Explanation: Adult TLC is roughly 5–6 L.
Respiration in Pseudomonas bacteria is:
A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic
C. Facultative D. Microaerophilic
Explanation: Many Pseudomonas species are obligate aerobes.
Autotrophic mode of nutrition in organism depends upon
A. Saprotrophic mode B. Photosynthesis mode
C. Parasitic mode D. Obligate mode
Explanation: Autotrophs synthesize food via photosynthesis (or chemosynthesis).
Prokaryotic cells lack:
A. Mesosomes B. Ribosomes
C. Storage bodies
D. Membrane-bound organelles
Explanation: They have no nucleus/organelles bounded by membranes.
Bacterial spores become diploid:
A. Before fertilization of gametes
B. After binary fission
C. During binary fission
D. After binary fission
Explanation: Bacteria are haploid; endospores are not diploid. This item has no correct option.
One of the following is CORRECT regarding flagella:
A. Made up of microfilaments
B. Contains centriole
C. Originates from basal bodies
D. They are immotile
Explanation: Eukaryotic flagella arise from basal bodies.
Which option is CORRECT about endospore?
A. Has a short dormant period
B. Contains moisture for survival
C. Metabolically active
D. Endures extreme condition
Explanation: Endospores are dormant, resistant forms.
Bacteria divide at an exponential rate during which growth phase?
A. Lag B. Log
C. Stationary D. Decline
Explanation: Log phase shows maximal, exponential division.
Mesosomes are the invagination of bacterial cell structure:
A. Cell wall B. Cell membrane
C. Plasmid D. Cysts
Explanation: Mesosomes are membrane infoldings (artifact in EM prep).
Female reproductive system consists all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Ovaries B. Oviduct
C. Cervix D. Seminiferous tubules
Explanation: Seminiferous tubules are in testes (male).
Which one of the following hormones is responsible for the labor pains in human female at the time of birth of baby?
A. Estrogen B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin D. Corticosteroid
Explanation: Oxytocin causes uterine contractions.
Fluid secreted by sertoli cells provides liquid medium, protection and nourishment to:
A. Oocyte B. Sperms
C. Polar body D. Spermatogonia
Explanation: Sertoli cells support developing sperm cells.
Corpus luteum during female reproductive cycle produces:
A. Testosterone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Progesterone
Explanation: Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
Due to the process of follicle atresia:
A. Follicles reach maximum size
B. Follicle degenerates
C. Graafian follicle ovulates
D. Follicle starts to mature
Explanation: Atresia is degeneration of follicles.
Main function of the epididymis is to:
A. Transport sperms
B. Connect with urethra
C. Produce semen
D. Hold the process of spermatogenesis
Explanation: Epididymis stores and transports/matures sperm.
Immediate next stage of spermatogonia differentiation is:
A. Secondary spermatocyte
B. Spermatids
C. Primary spermatocytes
D. Sperms
Explanation: Spermatogonia → primary spermatocytes.
Which of the following is included in paired cranial bones?
A. Temporal B. Occipital
C. Frontal D. Vomer
Explanation: Temporal bones are paired; the others listed are unpaired.
Which of the following skeletal disorder is an example of autoimmune disorder?
A. Sciatica B. Spondylosis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Rickets
Explanation: RA is autoimmune; rickets is nutritional.
Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles?
A. Voluntary B. Branched
C. Uni-nucleate D. Striated appearance
Explanation: Smooth muscle is involuntary, non-striated, typically uninucleate.
The accumulation of ‘lactic acid’ in the muscles results in:
A. Extreme fatigue B. Muscle contraction
C. Paralysis D. Convulsions
Explanation: Lactic acid buildup is associated with fatigue.
Thick filaments in skeletal muscles are composed of:
A. Actin B. Myosin
C. Tropomyosin D. Troponin
Explanation: Myosin forms the thick filaments.
Sarcomere is part of myofibril between:
A. Two I bands B. Two A bands
C. Two M lines D. Two Z lines
Explanation: A sarcomere spans Z line to Z line.
Medulla oblongata is a part of:
A. Forebrain B. Midbrain
C. Hindbrain D. Hippocampus
Explanation: Medulla lies in the hindbrain.
Which of the following is NOT a bone of the upper limb?
A. Humerus B. Ulna
C. Femur D. Radius
Explanation: Femur is the thigh bone (lower limb).
Bone-forming cells are:
A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes
C. Osteoclasts D. Osteons
Explanation: Osteoblasts synthesize bone matrix.
The chromosomes were first observed by:
A. T. H. Morgan B. Griffith
C. Walther D. Mendel
Explanation: Walther Flemming described chromosomes during mitosis.

CHEMISTRY

Number of moles in an element is directly proportional to:
A. Mass of an element
B. Empirical formula mass
C. Molar mass of an element
D. Formula mass
Explanation: moles increase directly with mass (and inversely with molar mass).
The type and relative amount of each isotope in an element can be found by:
A. IR Spectroscopy
B. U.V Spectroscopy
C. Mass Spectrometry
D. NMR
Explanation: Mass spectrometry separates isotopes by mass/charge and gives relative abundances.
The atomic masses of an element depend upon:
A. Atomic number
B. Number of electrons
C. Number of isotopes & their abundance
D. None of the above
Explanation: Average atomic mass is a weighted mean of isotopic masses by natural abundance.
No individual atom in the sample of 1 mole of Neon has a mass of 20.18 a.m.u. because it is:
A. Overall mass of an isobar
B. It is a fractional mass
C. It is molar mass of Ne
D. Average atomic mass of Ne
Explanation: 20.18 u is the weighted average of Ne isotopes, not any single atom’s exact mass.
The p orbital has:
A. 2 lobes B. 3 lobes
C. 4 lobes D. 5 lobes
Explanation: Each p orbital is dumbbell-shaped with two lobes.
Which of the following electronic configurations is correct for carbon?
A. 1s²2s²2p3 B. 1s²2s²2p4
C. 1s²2s²2p2 D. 1s²2p²2p1
Explanation: Carbon (Z=6): 1s² 2s² 2p².
Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal gas are:
A. Strong B. Moderate
C. Weak D. Absent
Explanation: Ideal gas assumption: no intermolecular forces.
The correct ideal gas equation is:
A. qV = nRt B. pV = nRT
C. gV = nRt D. yV = nRT
Explanation: Standard ideal-gas relation.
The real gases show deviation from ideal behavior at:
A. Low temperature and low pressure
B. High temperature and high pressure
C. Low temperature and high pressure
D. High temperature and low pressure
Explanation: At low T/high P, attractions and finite volumes matter most.
In order to boil water at 110°C, external pressure should be:
A. 200 – 760 torr B. 760 – 1200 torr
C. 665 – 670 torr D. 660 – 700 torr
Explanation: Boiling point rises above 100°C only at pressures higher than 1 atm (760 torr).
Which one of the following do NOT have a tendency to form hydrogen bonding?
A. Ammonia B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Carboxylic acid D. Hydrocarbon
Explanation: Hydrocarbons lack strongly polar X–H bonds or lone pairs for H-bonding.
Boiling point of a liquid is a temperature at which:
A. Surface tension is greater than atmospheric pressure
B. Viscosity is less than atmospheric pressure
C. Vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure
D. Viscosity equals the atmospheric pressure
Explanation: Boiling occurs when vapour pressure = external pressure.
Whenever the crystalline solids are broken, they do so along definite planes known as:
A. Cleavage planes B. Refractory planes
C. Sagittal planes D. Coronal planes
Explanation: Cleavage planes reflect the crystal lattice symmetry.
One of the following is NOT an example of amorphous solids:
A. Plastic B. Glass
C. Glucose D. Rubber
Explanation: Glucose is a crystalline molecular solid.
In graphite, the carbon atoms are arranged in which of the following structures?
A. Rhombic B. Hexagonal
C. Tetragonal D. Trigonal
Explanation: Graphite has hexagonal layers of carbon atoms.
The principle that states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system nullifies the effect of stress as far as possible is:
A. Haber’s B. Le-Chatelier’s
C. Boyle’s D. Charles’
Explanation: Le-Chatelier’s principle predicts equilibrium shifts against the imposed change.
Identify the correct option required for the maximum yield of ammonia by Haber’s process:
A. High pressure, low temperature, continual removal of ammonia
B. Low pressure, low temperature, continual removal of ammonia
C. High pressure, high temperature continual removal of ammonia
D. High pressure, low temperature, continual addition of ammonia
Explanation: Exothermic with fewer moles on product side → high P, low T, and removing NH₃.
Consider the following reaction in equilibrium and tell which chemical will turn the cloudy solution into a clear solution:
BiCl₃ + H₂O ⇌ BiOCl + 2HCl
A. BiCl₃ B. H₂O
C. BiOCl D. HCl
Explanation: Cloudiness is BiOCl(s). Adding HCl shifts equilibrium left, dissolving BiOCl and clearing the solution.
Identify the correct formula to calculate the rate of reaction:
A. Change in concentration of substance ÷ Time taken for the change
B. (Time taken for the change ÷ Change in concentration of substance)
C. (Time taken for the change ÷ Change in concentration of substance) x 100
D. Time taken for the change x change in concentration of substance
Explanation: Rate = Δ(concentration)/Δt.
Consider the hypothetical equation
aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD. Which of the following represents the correct rate equation?
A. Rate = k[A][B]
B. Rate = k[A]ᵃ[B]ᵇ
C. Rate = k[A]a
D. Rate = k[B]2
Explanation: For an elementary step, orders equal stoichiometric coefficients (general form shown).
If a reaction rate does not change with concentration, it is of:
A. Third order B. Second order
C. First order D. Zero order
Explanation: Zero-order rate is independent of reactant concentration.
Which of the following is the CORRECT Arrhenius equation?
A. K = Ae -Ea/QT B. K = Ae-Ea/RT
C. K = Ae-Ea/ST D. K = Ae-Ea/UT
Explanation: k=Ae−Ea/(RT)k = A e^{-E_a/(RT)}k=Ae−Ea/(RT).
In an endothermic reaction, the heat content of the
A. Reactants and products is equal
B. Reactants is more than that of products
C. Products is more than that of reactants
D. Reactants & products will not change
Explanation: Endothermic absorbs heat, so products have higher enthalpy.
All of the following steps are used to calculate the lattice energy in the Born-Haber cycle EXCEPT
A. Atomizing the metal
B. Ionizing the metal
C. Delonize the metal
D. Ionize non-metal
Explanation: “Delonize the metal” is not a Born–Haber step (typo/invalid step).
The enthalpy change when 1 Mole of water is formed by the reaction of an acid with an alkali under standard conditions is known as:
A. Enthalpy of formation
B. Enthalpy of reaction
C. Enthalpy of combustion
D. Enthalpy of neutralization
Explanation: Neutralization enthalpy refers specifically to acid–base forming 1 mol H₂O.
Oxidation number of ‘Mn’ in KMnO₄ is
A. -0 B. +1
C. -7 D. +7
Explanation: +1+x+4(−2)=0⇒x=+7+1 + x + 4(-2) = 0 \Rightarrow x = +7+1+x+4(−2)=0⇒x=+7.
Which step is irrelevant with respect to balancing of redox equations by oxidation number method?
A. Split the reaction into two half-reactions
B. Assign oxidation number to all the atoms Involve the equation
C. Identify the element undergoing a change in oxidation number
D. Equalize the number of electrons lost and gained
Explanation: Splitting into half-reactions is the ion–electron method, not the oxidation-number method.
Which of the following is NOT a correct feature of electrolytic cells?
A. Reduction occurs at cathode
B. Oxidation occurs at anode
C. Alternating current source is connected to electrodes
D. Electrochemical reaction takes place
Explanation: Electrolysis uses a DC source, not AC.
Which of the following has a coordinate bond?
A. NaCl B. CaO
C. NH3BF3 D. H₂O
Explanation: In NH₃BF₃, N donates a lone pair to B (dative covalent bond).
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory?
A. It determines the shape of molecules
B. Pairs of electrons repel each other
C. It helps in understanding interaction of medicinal drug molecules
D. Only lone pairs participate in determining the geometry of molecules
Explanation: Both bonding pairs and lone pairs determine geometry.
Which of the following has the smallest atomic radius?
A. Mg B. S
C. P D. Na
Explanation: Across period 3, radius decreases; S < P < Mg < Na.
The difference of lithium from the other alkali metals is mainly because of:
A. Large radius and low charge density
B. Small radius and low charge density
C. Large radius and high charge density
D. Small radius and high charge density
Explanation: Li⁺ is very small with high polarizing power.
Which of the following is NOT Basic in nature?
A. Aluminum oxide
B. Magnesium oxide
C. Potassium oxide
D. Sodium oxide
Explanation: Al₂O₃ is amphoteric; the others are basic oxides.
The solubility of hydroxides of alkaline metals generally
A. Increase down the group
B. Decrease down the group
C. Increase then decrease down the group
D. Doesn’t change down the group
Explanation: Lattice energy decreases faster than hydration energy → solubility increases.
Which of the following is NOT an Alloy?
A. Steel B. Brass
C. Bronze D. Graphite
Explanation: Graphite is elemental carbon; others are alloys.
Electronic configuration of chromium (Proton number 24) is:
A. [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s² B. [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s2
C. [Ar] 3d5 4s1 D. [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s²
Explanation: Cr has a half-filled d-subshell: 3d⁵ 4s¹.
Which of the following is NOT a property of transition elements?
A. High melting points
B. Good conductors of electricity
C. Hard metals
D. Ions and compounds are colorless
Explanation: Many transition compounds/ions are colored due to d–d transitions.
1-Butene and 2-Butene are showing which type of isomerism?
A. Functional Group B. Position
C. Metamerism D. Chain
Explanation: Double bond at different positions in the chain.
Which type of isomerism is displayed by compounds having the same structural formula but different positions of atoms on both sides of the carbon bond?
A. Chain B. Metamerism
C. Geometrical D. Tautomerism
Explanation: Cis–trans (E/Z) differences about a double bond.
Homocyclic organic compounds are subdivided into two types, namely:
A. Alicyclic and Aromatic
B. Alkenes and Alkynes
C. Aromatic and non-aromatic
D. Saturated & Unsaturated
Explanation: Homocyclic = rings of carbon only → alicyclic (non-aromatic) and aromatic.
Which of the following is an example of a substituent group that releases electrons to the benzene ring?
A. –CN B. – NR₃⁺
C. –NH₂ D. – NO₂
Explanation: –NH₂ is an electron-donating (+R) activator; –CN/–NO₂/–NR₃⁺ are deactivating.
In Friedel-Crafts acylation, an acyl group is introduced in the benzene ring in the presence of a catalyst:
A. AlCl₃ B. H₂SO₄
C. Sunlight D. V₂O₅
Explanation: Lewis acid AlCl₃ generates the acylium ion.
Identify the correct ascending order of reactivity of alkyl halides:
A. Cl, Br, I, F B. F, Cl, Br, I
C. Br, I, F, Cl D. I, F, Cr, Br
Explanation: Reactivity increases with better leaving group: F < Cl < Br < I.
Identify the correct statement related to substitution and elimination of alkyl halides:
A. Strong bases cause substitution in preference to elimination
B. Role of leaving groups in elimination is similar to substitution
C. Substitution is favored more than elimination by decreasing solvent polarity
D. Decrease in temperature will favor elimination more than substitution
Explanation: Good leaving groups facilitate both substitution and elimination.
Alkyl halides involving –C-X bond breakage and –C-Nu bond formation simultaneously would follow which one of the following mechanisms?
A. SN1 B. SN2
C. E1 D. E2
Explanation: Concerted backside attack with simultaneous bond-breaking/forming is SN2.
C₂H₆O is the general formula of:
A. Ether B. Carboxylic acid
C. Ketones D. Carbolic acid
Explanation: Saturated ethers (and alcohols) have CnH2n+2OC_nH_{2n+2}OCnH2n+2O; among options, “Ether” matches such a general formula.
The blue color of Fehling solution is changed to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to the formation of which of the following?
A. NO₂ B. Cu₂O
C. AgO D. SO₂
Explanation: Aldehyde reduces Cu²⁺ to red Cu₂O precipitate.
Reaction of HCN with formaldehyde is a:
A. Nucleophilic addition reaction
B. Nucleophilic substitution reaction
C. Electrophilic addition reaction
D. Electrophilic substitution reaction
Explanation: CN⁻ adds to the carbonyl carbon (addition).
Which of the following alcohols can give iodoform reaction?
A. Methanol B. 1-Butanol
C. 1-Propanol D. Ethanol
Explanation: Iodoform test is positive for methyl carbinols (–CHOH–CH₃), including ethanol.
Common name of 2-hydroxy propanoic acid is:
A. Tartaric acid B. Lactic acid
C. Phthalic acid D. Formic acid
Explanation: 2-hydroxypropanoic acid = lactic acid.
Which of the following is correct regarding phenol?
A. Phenol and water are equally acidic
B. Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid
C. Phenol is less acidic than water
D. Phenol is less acidic than ethanol
Explanation: Acid strength: carboxylic acids > phenol > water > ethanol.
When carboxylic acid are heated with alcohol in the presence of sulfuric acid, one of the following is formed:
A. Amides B. Acyl chloride
C. Esters D. Acid Anhydride
Explanation: Fischer esterification gives esters.
Which one of the following is NOT an amino acid?
A. Folic acid B. Glutamic acid
C. Glycine D. Lysine
Explanation: Folic acid is a vitamin, not an amino acid.

PHYSICS

In an elastic collision, the total kinetic energy:
A. Dissipates after collision
B. Increases after collision
C. Reduces after the collision
D. Before and after collision remains the same
Explanation: By definition, in elastic collisions, total kinetic energy and momentum are conserved.
The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is:
A. Along the tangent
B. Perpendicular to the slope
C. Parallel to the radius
D. Anti-parallel to the radius
Explanation: Instantaneous velocity at any point is tangent to the path.
The range of a projectile will be maximum if the factor sin2θ becomes:
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. 2
Explanation: Maximum range occurs when sin2θ = 1 → θ = 45°.
The two-dimensional motion under constant acceleration due to gravity is called:
A. Circular motion
B. Rotational motion
C. Projectile motion
D. Vibration
Explanation: A projectile moves in 2D under constant g, combining horizontal and vertical motion.
In the velocity-time graph, the area under the graph is equal to:
A. Speed of an object
B. Velocity of an object
C. Distance covered by object
D. Acceleration of an object
Explanation: Area under v–t graph gives displacement (or distance for constant direction).
According to Newton’s Law of Motion, the mass of the object is a quantitative measure of its:
A. Weight
B. Inertia
C. Speed
D. Acceleration
Explanation: Mass measures the amount of inertia an object has.
1 kWh = _______ J?
A. 3.6J
B. 3.6kJ
C. 3.6 MJ
D. 3.6 GJ
Explanation: 1 kWh = 1000 W × 3600 s = 3.6 × 10⁶ J.
Which of the following is a non-conservative force?
A. Frictional force
B. Electric force
C. Elastic Spring force
D. Gravitational force
Explanation: Friction dissipates mechanical energy as heat.
Work done is equal to:
A. Effort × distance
B. Effort + distance
C. Effort – distance
D. Effort ÷ distance
Explanation: W = F × d in the direction of force.
When a force of 1N displaces its point of application by 1m in the direction of force, the work done is:
A. 1 J
B. 10 J
C. 0 J
D. J
Explanation: W = F × d = 1 × 1 = 1 joule.
An electric motor is used to lift the weight of 2.0N through a vertical distance of 100 cm in 4 sec. What is the power output of the motor?
A. 0.5 W
B. 0.25 W
C. 0.75 W
D. 1 W
Explanation: Work = 2 × 1 m = 2 J; Power = 2 J / 4 s = 0.5 W.
The centripetal acceleration of an object moving along a circle of radius ‘r’ with an angular speed ‘w’ is given by the formula:
A. a = rw²
B. a = rw
C. a = r²ω
D. a = r² ω²
Explanation: a_c = rω² is the angular form.
An aircraft makes a turn in a horizontal circle of radius 100m. It is traveling with a velocity of 250m/sec. The angular velocity of the aircraft will be:
A. 1.5 rad/sec
B. 2.5 rad/sec
C. 2.5 rad/sec
D. 3.5 rad/sec
Explanation: ω = v / r = 250 / 100 = 2.5 rad/s.
A particle of mass ‘m’ is moving on a circular path of radius ‘r’ with velocity ‘v’, then centripetal force acting on it is F. If the velocity of the particle increases by 2 times and the radius of the path increases by 4 times, then the centripetal force F’ will be:
A. F’ = 2F
B. F’ = F
C. F’ = ½ F
D. F’ = 4F
Explanation: F ∝ v² / r; new F’ = m(2v)² / (4r) = 4v² / 4r = v²/r = F.
A roller coaster is moving with 30 m/s⁻¹ on a circular track of radius 30m. The net mass of coaster + passengers is ‘m’. The centripetal force acting on it is:
A. 30m
B. m
C. 450m
D. 900 m
Explanation: F = mv² / r = m × 900 / 30 = 30m.
Amplitude in the following figure is given as:
A. 2m
B. 1/2m
C. ¼ m
D. 1m
Explanation: Amplitude = maximum displacement from mean position (depends on given graph).
Which one of the following is INCORRECT about the nodes when the string is plucked?
A. Amplitude of vibration is zero
B. Do not move along the string
C. Produced at the fixed ends of strings
D. Distance between consecutive nodes is 1
Explanation: Distance between consecutive nodes is λ/2, not 1 unit (unless λ/2 = 1 m).
In transverse waves, the portion above the mean level is called:
A. Wave front
B. Wave crest
C. Wave trough
D. Wave length
Explanation: Crest is the peak above mean position.
Which one of the following does not cause stationary waves?
A. Two waves of equal frequency
B. Two waves of same speed
C. Two waves of unequal amplitude
D. Two waves travelling in opposite directions
Explanation: Stationary waves form from opposite-travelling waves of same f, speed, and amplitude.
Select the appropriate Doppler equation when the source is approaching the stationary observer where fo is the observed frequency, fs is frequency of source, v is the speed of sound, vs is the speed of source relative to observer:
fo = fs × v / (v – vs)
Explanation: Source approaching → denominator (v – vs).
The distance between two successive particles which are exactly in the same state of vibration is called:
A. Frequency
B. Amplitude
C. Wavelength
D. Time period
Explanation: Wavelength is the spatial period of the wave.
During the isothermal process, the temperature:
A. Remains constant during the initial phase of the process
B. Remains constant throughout the process
C. Alters throughout the process
D. Increases throughout the process
Explanation: Isothermal = constant temperature for whole process.
What is the value of heat energy (Q) in an adiabatic process?
A. +1
B. -1
C. +0
D. +2
Explanation: Adiabatic means Q = 0 (no heat exchange).
The Coulomb’s law states:
A. Force between two point charges is inversely proportional to the product of the charges and directly proportional to the square of the distance between them
B. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them
C. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the sum of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them
D. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inverse to the distance between them
Explanation: F = k q₁ q₂ / r².
The formula V = W/q represents:
A. Electric intensity
B. Electric power
C. Electric potential
D. Electric field gradient
Explanation: Electric potential = work per unit charge.
The S.I unit of capacitance of a capacitor is:
A. Coulomb
B. volt
C. Farad
D. Ampere
Explanation: Farad = coulomb per volt.
Electric intensity between two oppositely charge plates in the middle region is:
A. Non-uniform
B. Uniform
C. Cannot be predicted
D. Variable
Explanation: In an ideal parallel-plate capacitor, E is uniform.
Find potential difference in moving 2 C charge which requires 600J of work between two points:
A. 1200V
B. 300V
C. 150V
D. 2400V
Explanation: V = W/q = 600 / 2 = 300 V.
Which one of the following is NOT a feature of electric forces?
A. They act on charges
B. They act on masses
C. They can be attractive
D. They can be repulsive
Explanation: Electric forces act only on charges.
A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be:
A. 3A
B. 0.3A
C. 3Ma
D. 0.3mA
Explanation: I = Q/t = 90/30 = 3 A.
The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the potential difference across it as long as temperature of conductor is kept constant is known as:
A. Joule’s Law B. Gauss’ Law C. Ohm’s Law D. Ampere’s Law
Explanation: Ohm’s law: I∝VI \propto VI∝V at constant temperature.
When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes:
A. Double B. Half C. Remains same D. Four times
Explanation: Resistivity is a material property; independent of shape/size.
The resistance of a semiconductor with rise in temperature:
A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains same D. Infinite
Explanation: Semiconductors have negative temperature coefficient.
Volt × Ampere is the measure of:
A. Current B. Volt C. Resistance D. Power
Explanation: P=VIP = VIP=VI (watt).
The formula Φ=B.A\Phi = B.A represents:
A. Electric flux B. Magnetic flux C. Electric flux density D. Gravitational flux
Explanation: Magnetic flux Φ=BA \Phi = BAΦ=BA (for uniform field, normal to area).
Which of the following statement is incorrect for any magnetic field lines?
A. Lines start at North Pole and ends at South Pole
B. Lines never touch or cross each other
C. The lines are curved
D. Magnetic field is strongest when the lines are farthest
Explanation: Field is strongest where lines are densest (closest).
The unit of magnetic flux density is:
A. Wbm-1 B. Wbm C. Wbm⁻² D. Wb
Explanation: Tesla =Wb m−2
The induced current will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it is statement of:
A. Ampere’s Law B. Faraday’s Law C. Lenz’s Law D. Joule’s Law
Explanation: Lenz’s law gives the opposing sense of induced currents/EMF.
In an AC generator, the emf will be maximum when the factor sin2θ is equal to:
A. Zero B. 1 C. 2 D. 1/2
Explanation: Maximum EMF when the sine factor equals 1.
Electric generators and transformers are based on the principles of:
A. Coulomb’s Law B. Faraday’s Law C. Ampere’s Law D. Hook’s Law
Explanation: Electromagnetic induction (Faraday).
In an ideal transformer:
A. Power input is equal to Power output
B. Power input is less than half of the power output
C. Power input is greater than Power output
D. Power input is more than half of the power output
Explanation: No losses → Pin=Pout .
The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier. Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier?
A. Diode B. Transistor C. Transformer D. Inductor
Explanation: A diode allows current mainly in one direction.
Full wave rectification is given by:
A. One diode connected in bridge type arrangements
B. Two diodes connected in bridge type arrangements
C. Three diodes connected in bridge type arrangements
D. Four diodes connected in bridge type arrangements
Explanation: Bridge rectifier uses 4 diodes.
A diode characteristic curve is a plot between:
A. Current and time B. Voltage time C. Voltage and current D. Reverse voltage forward voltage
Explanation: I–V characteristic.
The value of Planck constant is
A. 6.63×10⁻³⁴ Js B. 6.63×10³⁴ Js C. 6.63×10-34 Js-1 D. 6.63×10³³ Js-1
Explanation: Standard value h=6.63×10−34 J\cdotpsh = 6.63\times10^{-34}\,\text{J·s}h=6.63×10−34J\cdotps (approx).
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle moving at 10⁶ m/s and having mass 10⁻³ kg
A. 6.6×10⁻10 m B. 1.5×10⁹ m C. 1.9×10-5 m D. 7.2×10-8 m
Explanation:
Light propagates through space as a wave is evident by all of the following EXCEPT
A. Interference B. Photoelectric effect C. Diffraction D. Polarization
Explanation: Photoelectric effect evidences particle nature; the others show wave nature.
Which series falls in ultra violet region
A. Lyman B. Brachett C. Pfund D. Paschen
Explanation: Lyman series (n→1) lies in UV.
The potential through which an electron should be accelerated, so that, on collision it can lift the electron in the atom from its ground state to some higher state is known as
A. Ionization potential
B. Excitation potential
C. string potential
D. Acceleration potential
Explanation: Excitation potential promotes electrons to higher levels without ionizing.
Which of the following regarding X Rays is INCORRECT
A. Have higher wavelength than visible light
B. They are part of electromagnetic spectrum
C. They are highly penetrating in soft body tissues
D. They are high energy photons
Explanation: X-rays have much shorter wavelength than visible light.
The unit of decay constant is
A. m B. s C. s⁻¹ D. m⁻¹
Explanation: Decay constant has units of inverse time.
If we have “N₀” number of any radioactive element then after a period of “n” half-lives the number of atoms left behind is
A. 2n N₀ B. (½)ⁿ N₀ C. (1/2N₀)n D. (2N₀)n
Explanation: Each half-life halves the remaining nuclei.
Which of the following is NOT the Somatic biological effect of radiation?
A. Skin burn B. Loss of hair C. Induction of cancer D. Genetic mutation
Explanation: Genetic mutations affect offspring (heritable), not somatic tissues only.
An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding
A. High energy particles on unstable elements
B. Low energy particles on unstable elements
C. High energy particles on stable elements
D. Low energy particles on stable elements
Explanation: Neutron/proton bombardment of stable nuclei can create radioisotopes.

ENGLISH SECTION

What does the word “SURPLUS” mean?
A. In excess
B. A mathematical term
C. Within reach
D. Salutation
Explanation: Surplus means extra or more than needed (in excess).
What does the word “ANCESTOR” mean?
A. Collection of stars
B. Branch of astrology
C. Forefathers
D. Type of receptors
Explanation: Ancestor refers to forefathers or earlier family members.
What does the word “SPILL” mean?
A. Coil B. Deliver
C. Spoil D. Spread
Explanation: To spill is to cause liquid or contents to scatter/spread.
Pick the CORRECT option:
A. The supervisor has nor will ever compromise.
B. The supervisor have nor will ever compromise.
C. The supervisor has not compromised nor will ever compromise.
D. The supervisor has nor will ever compromised.
Explanation: Correct tense and agreement; “has not compromised nor will ever compromise.”
The soup ________ good
A. Taste B. Tastes
C. Is tasting D. Has taste
Explanation: “Soup” is singular; the linking verb is “tastes.”
I _______ him for a long time
A. Have never known
B. Had never knew
C. Had never been known
D. Would never knew
Explanation: Present perfect fits “for a long time.”
Choose the sentence that is punctuated correctly:
A. He said to his disciples “Watch and pray.”
B. He said to his disciples, “Watch and pray.”
C. He said to his disciples, “watch and pray.”
D. He said to his disciples “watch and pray.”
Explanation: Comma before the quotation; capital letter starts the quote.
Choose the CORRECT spellings.
A. Pharaoh B. Pharoah
C. Pheroh D. Pheraoh
Explanation: Correct spelling is “Pharaoh.”
Choose the CORRECT sentence:
A. She has beauty, brains and wealth-a rare combination.
B. She has beauty, brains, and wealth-a rare combination.
C. She has beauty, brains and wealth; a rare combination.
D. She has beauty, brains, and wealth; a rare combination.
Explanation: Correct list comma usage; hyphen used as a dash here.
Choose the correct sentence
A. In 1838 Schleiden suggested that all plants were made of cells.
B. In 1838 Schleiden suggest that all plants were made of cells.
C. In 1838 Schleiden suggested that all plant were made of cells.
D. In 1838 Schleiden suggests that all plants were made of cells.
Explanation: Past-tense “suggested”; plural “plants.”
______ Words spoken in earnest will convince him
A. A few B. The few
C. Few D. Fewer
Explanation: “A few” means some (sufficient) words.
He takes ____ his father. Fill in the blank with an appropriate preposition.
A. Up B. Down
C. After D. In
Explanation: “Take after” means resemble.
Choose the CORRECT sentence
A. There’s Mr. Hashim whom they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
B. There’s Mr. Hashim who they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
C. There’s Mr. Hashim which they say is the portrait painter in the town.
D. There’s Mr. Hashim who they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
Explanation: “Who they say is …” uses “who” as subject of “is.”
Choose the CORRECT sentence
A. Gulliver travels was written at Swift.
B. Gulliver’s travel was written by Swift.
C. Gulliver’s Travels was written by Swift.
D. Gulliver’s travel written by Swift.
Explanation: Correct title and passive construction.
Choose the CORRECT sentence
A. “The unexamined life”, said Socrates, “is unfit to be lived by man.”
B. “The unexamined life, said Socrates, “is unfit to be lived by man.”
C. “The unexamined life said Socrates”, “is unfit to be lived by man.”
D. “The unexamined life,” said Socrates, “is unfit to be lived by man.”
Explanation: Comma inside the closing quotation before the reporting clause.
Choose the CORRECT sentence
A. You have often heard me speaking of my friend, Wahaj Waheed a barrister here.
B. You have often heard me, speak off my friend, Wahaj Waheed who is a barrister here.
C. You have often heard me. Speak off my friend, Wahaj Waheed who is a barrister here.
D. You have often heard me speak of my friend, Wahaj Waheed—a barrister here.
Explanation: Correct verb form “speak of” and appositive set off by a dash.
Choose the CORRECT sentence
A. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito, from the United States.
B. The first Space-Traveler was Dennis Tito, from the United States.
C. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito.
D. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito, from the United States.
Explanation: Standard capitalization and complete information.
Choose the CORRECT sentence
A. It was awfully good of you to proposed a day’s picnic in Murree.
B. It was awfully good of you to propose a day’s picnic in Murree.
C. It was awfully good of you to propose a day’s of picnic at Murree.
D. It was awfully good of you to proposed a day’s picnic at Murree.
Explanation: Correct infinitive “to propose” and preposition “in.”

Logical Reasoning

193. The government has increased the taxes on all businesses in Pakistan. II. Many small businesses will have to close their operations in Pakistan.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
Explanation: Higher taxes (cause) can force closures (effect).

Logical Reasoning & Analytical Skills
194. Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option, basing your answer only on the information provided.
Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. You can find many sorts of wildlife, from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin; and people from most countries in the world have made their home here.
STATEMENTS:
I. Pakistan is a rich country.
II. People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan.
III. Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species.
A. Only III is correct
B. Only I and III are correct
C. Only I and II are correct
D. Only II and III are correct
Explanation: The passage supports III; it does not claim I (economic wealth) or II (“all” nationalities).

Observe the pattern and choose the next term in the sequence:
JEQ, HEO, FEM
A. GFN
B. DEK
C. GEL
D. DFK
Explanation: First and third letters each decrease by 2 (J→H→F→D; Q→O→M→K); middle letter stays E.
Read the following and choose the correct answer:
“X, Y, and Z are three whole numbers less than 24 but greater than 11. X is the smallest prime number. Y is the largest number divisible by 3. Z is the smallest number divisible by 17.”
X is 13, Y is 24, Z is 11
B. X is 13, Y is 21, Z is 22
C. X is 11, Y is 24, Z is 11
D. X is 11, Y is 24, Z is 22
Explanation: In 12–23, X = 13 (smallest prime), Y = 21 (largest multiple of 3). As written, Z should be 17, which is not offered; option B best fits the first two conditions.
Read the following and choose the correct answer:
“P, Q, and R are one-digit, non-negative numbers. P is the smallest even number. Q is the largest odd number. R is 5.”
P + Q + R = 16
B. P + Q + R = 12
C. (Q + R) X P = 30
D. (Q + R) X P = 8
Explanation: Taking the smallest even natural number as 2 (common convention), Q = 9, R = 5, so 2 + 9 + 5 = 16.
All hammers are tools. Some tools are useless things. All useless things are trash.
Which of the following conclusions is NECESSARILY TRUE given only the information above?
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some hammers are trash
II. Some tools are trash
III. All useless things are tools
A. I and II
B. II only
C. III
D. I and III
Explanation: Some tools are useless and all useless things are trash ⇒ some tools are trash. The other conclusions do not necessarily follow.

Dow University of Health Sciences Karachi

(Examinations Department)

Medical Universities of Sindh

MDCAT – Test 2024

Held on 22nd September 2024

BIOLOGY

In which part of the brain a set of neurosecretory cells are found that exert control over the anterior pituitary gland by secreting releasing and inhibiting hormones?
a) Pons
b) Hypothalamus
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala
e) Midbrain
Explanation: The hypothalamus contains neurosecretory cells that release hormones controlling the anterior pituitary.
Frostbites are due to:
a) Fluid retention
b) Vasodilation
c) Muscular expansion
d) Vasoconstriction
e) Vascular contraction
Explanation: Cold causes vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue damage.
Stimuli such as pressure, touch, stretch, motion stimulate which of the following receptors?
a) Thermoreceptors
b) Mechanoreceptors
c) Gustatory receptor
d) Olfactory receptors
e) None of these
Explanation: Mechanoreceptors detect mechanical changes like touch and stretch.
The situation when two alternative forms is said to have:
a) Codominance
b) Sex-influenced traits
c) Multiple alleles
d) Incomplete dominance
e) Sex-limited traits
Explanation: In incomplete dominance, the phenotype is intermediate between the two alleles.
Bacterium, with a tuft of flagella present at each of two poles, is called:
a) Amphitrichous
b) Atrichous
c) Lophotrichous
d) Peritrichous
e) Monotrichous
Explanation: Amphitrichous bacteria have flagella tufts at both ends for movement.
What is the correct order of organelles in ultracentrifugation?
a) Ribosome → Nuclei → Mitochondria
b) Lysosome → Ribosome → Mitochondria
c) Nuclei → Mitochondria → Ribosome
d) Mitochondria → Nuclei → Golgi bodies
e) Golgi bodies → Ribosome → Nuclei
Explanation: Denser organelles like nuclei sediment first, followed by mitochondria and ribosomes.
Which of the following is not essential for photosynthesis?
a) Oxygen
b) Chlorophyll
c) ATP
d) Light
e) NADP
Explanation: Oxygen is a byproduct, not a requirement for photosynthesis.
Proteins which cause disease in humans and animals are called:
a) Prions
b) Viroid
c) Prophage
d) Bacteriophage
e) Antigens
Explanation: Prions are infectious misfolded proteins causing degenerative diseases.
Which size of sponge can filter an entire residential pool in one day?
a) Tennis ball-sized
b) Ladle-sized
c) Basketball-sized
d) Hockey ball-sized
e) Teaspoon-sized
Explanation: Large sponges can filter thousands of liters of water daily.
Koshland proposed a model for enzyme with the name of “Induced Fit Model” in the year:
a) 1957
b) 1952
c) 1954
d) 1956
e) 1949
Explanation: Daniel Koshland proposed the induced fit model in 1957.
Why do ribosomes require Mg++ ions?
a) To synthesize protein
b) To transport amino acid to ribosome
c) To stabilize the ribosomal structure
d) To develop mRNA molecules
e) To break down RNA molecules
Explanation: Mg++ helps maintain ribosome stability during protein synthesis.
Glutamic acid is replaced by Valine at which position?
a) 3rd position
b) 6th position
c) 5th position
d) 4th position
e) 2nd position
Explanation: In sickle cell anemia, the β-globin chain has valine instead of glutamic acid at position 6.
Formation of hard uric acid crystals in the joints is identified as:
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Ankylosing spondylitis
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Callus
e) Gout
Explanation: Gout results from uric acid crystal deposition in joints.
Which virus kills cancer cells and aids immunity?
a) Saccharomyces
b) Lactobacillus
c) Penicillium
d) Lymphobacterium
e) Oncolytic
Explanation: Oncolytic viruses selectively infect and destroy cancer cells.
The pigment in the muscles responsible for the binding of oxygen is:
a) Oxyhemoglobin
b) Plasmin
c) Myoglobin
d) Heme
e) Hemoglobin
Explanation: Myoglobin stores and binds oxygen in muscle tissues.
In Gram -ve bacteria, the peptidoglycan layer is:
a) Condensed
b) Thick
c) Moderate
d) Thin
e) Entangled
Explanation: Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.
The human enzymes are highly active at about:
a) 8°C
b) 5°C
c) 37°C
d) 45°C
e) 55°C
Explanation: Human enzymes work best at body temperature (37°C).
The locomotion in segmented worms is brought about by:
a) True Pods
b) Pseudopodia
c) Segmented
d) Peritrichous flagella
Explanation: Segmented worms move using muscle contractions along body segments.

21. The type of carbohydrates, made up of 6 to 10 monosaccharides, which are comparatively less sweet in taste and less soluble in water, are called:
a) Oligosaccharides
b) Monosaccharides
c) Starch
d) Cellulose
e) Polysaccharides
Explanation: Oligosaccharides are short chains of monosaccharides linked together, less sweet and less soluble.
This technique is used to determine growth of bacteria, rate of photosynthesis, and minute quantity of DNA:
a) Electrophoresis
b) Micrometry
c) Microscopy
d) Chromatography
e) Spectrophotometry
Explanation: Spectrophotometry measures light absorption to estimate concentration and growth rates.
Which of the following is an example of a sub-viral particle that infects plants?
a) Prion
b) Viroid
c) Bacteriophage
d) Infectious protein
Explanation: Viroids are infectious RNA molecules without a protein coat that infect plants.
In heterotrophs, during digestion, macromolecules are broken into monomers by hydrolysis with the help of:
a) Chymosin
b) Gastrin
c) Rennin
d) Hydrolytic enzymes
Explanation: Hydrolytic enzymes break chemical bonds using water to form monomers.
Animals that have a ladder-type nervous system, consisting of two nerve cords and connecting nerves that look like a ladder, belong to the phylum:
a) Protozoa
b) Coelenterata
c) Cnidarian
d) Porifera
e) Platyhelminthes
Explanation: Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) have a ladder-like nervous system.
The term enzyme was coined by:
a) Darwin
b) Lamarck
c) Friendrich Wilhelm Kuhne
d) Mendel
e) Thomas Cech
Explanation: Friedrich Wilhelm Kühne introduced the term “enzyme” in 1878.
Which lipophilic hormone is found in every tissue of the body and is involved in inflammation, blood flow, and protection from injury?
a) Estradiol
b) Aldosterone
c) Testosterone
d) Prostaglandins
e) Estrogen
Explanation: Prostaglandins are lipid compounds with diverse physiological effects.
Hardy-Weinberg Equation is:
a) p² + 2pq + q² = 1
b) p + 2pq + q² = 1
c) p² + 2pq + q² = 0
d) 2p + q² = 1
e) 2p + 2q² = 1
Explanation: The equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1 describes genetic equilibrium.
F.C. Steward used this plant for his experiment (tissue culture):
a) Radish
b) Corn
c) Maize
d) Carrot
e) Mango
Explanation: Steward demonstrated totipotency using carrot tissue.
Histone proteins are rich in:
a) Basic amino acid
b) Acidic fatty acid
c) Basic citric acid
d) Acidic amino
e) Basic fatty acid
Explanation: Histones are rich in lysine and arginine, basic amino acids.
The site of maturation and storage of sperms is:
a) Seminal vesicles
b) Scrotum
c) Testes
d) Epididymis
e) Vasa deferentia
Explanation: The epididymis stores and matures sperm cells.
A disease resulting in complete lack of spermatozoa in ejaculate is:
a) Azoospermia
b) Obstruction
c) Oligospermia
d) Zoospermia
e) Ejaculation disorder
Explanation: Azoospermia means no sperm in semen.
The type of bacteria which oxidize CO into CO₂ is:
a) Bacillus oligocaerpobillous
b) Hydrogenomonas
c) Pseudomonas
d) Thiobacillus
e) Azobacter
Explanation: Thiobacillus species oxidize inorganic compounds like CO.
What structure holds sister chromatids together?
a) Gene
b) Nucleosome
c) Centrosome
d) Centromere
e) Histone protein
Explanation: The centromere joins sister chromatids until separation.
The most widely accepted explanation for ascent of sap is:
a) Role of root pressure
b) Transpiration
c) Capillarity
d) Role of atmospheric pressure
e) Cohesion and transpiration pull
Explanation: Water rises in xylem due to cohesion and tension from transpiration.
In which of the following environments are plants, with aerenchyma, most likely to be found?
a) Mesophytes
b) Sciophytes
c) Xerophytes
d) Hydrophytes
e) Halophytes
Explanation: Aerenchyma aids buoyancy and gas exchange in aquatic plants.
Each helix of DNA is made up of four types of nucleotides and both helices are complementary to each other i.e. if one helix contains Adenine the opposite helix will contain:
a) Histidine
b) Uracil
c) Cytosine
d) Thymine
e) Guanine
Explanation: Adenine pairs with thymine via hydrogen bonds in DNA.
Bacteriophages escape from host cells by the activity of:
a) Non-Ribosome
b) Lysozyme
c) Peroxisome
d) Lysosome
Explanation: Phage lysozyme breaks down bacterial cell walls during lysis.
Which soft-bodied animal is usually Ambisexual?
a) Tapeworm
b) Earthworm
c) Jellyfish
d) Snail
e) Oyster
Explanation: Earthworms are hermaphroditic, having both reproductive organs.
The number of teeth in deciduous and permanent teeth is:
a) 21 and 32 respectively
b) 18 and 22 respectively
c) 12 and 32 respectively
d) 10 and 32 respectively
e) 20 and 32 respectively
Explanation: Humans have 20 milk teeth and 32 permanent teeth.
Which hormone is responsible to convert the ruptured follicle into a yellowish glandular mass known as corpus luteum?
a) FSH
b) ACTH
c) DHT
d) LH
e) TSH
Explanation: Luteinizing hormone (LH) triggers corpus luteum formation.
Phage genome incorporated with host DNA is called:
a) Bacteriophage
b) Viroids
c) Prophage
d) Prions
Explanation: A prophage is viral DNA integrated into bacterial DNA.
Plants oxidize sugar in chloroplasts during day time without production of energy. This process is called:
a) Decarboxylation
b) Oxidative phosphorylation
c) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
d) Cyclic oxidative phosphorylation
e) Lactic acid fermentation
Explanation: In photorespiration, sugar oxidation occurs without ATP gain.
Sufficient depolarization in neurolemma results in:
a) Potassium leakage
b) Resting membrane potential
c) Action potential
d) Repolarization
e) Sub-threshold potential
Explanation: When threshold is reached, an action potential is generated.

Fusion of two genetically dissimilar parents through artificial pollination is:
a) Selection
b) Acclimatization
c) Hybridization
d) Evolution
e) Back crossing
Explanation: Hybridization combines traits from genetically different parents.
In the flowering plant, food is translocated in the form:
a) Starch
b) Sucrose
c) Glucose
d) Sugar
e) Fructose
Explanation: Sucrose is the main transport sugar in phloem.
Which reaction is also known as Z-scheme?
a) Oxidative phosphorylation
b) Cyclic photophosphorylation
c) Non-cyclic oxidative phosphorylation
d) Cyclic oxidative phosphorylation
e) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Explanation: The Z-scheme describes the electron flow in non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
In gel electrophoresis, how do molecules migrate through the gel?
a) Under the influence of agar
b) By diffusion
c) Under the influence of an electric field
d) Active transport
e) By osmosis
Explanation: Charged molecules move through gel due to applied electric current.
In carbohydrates, hydrogen and oxygen are present in the simple ratio of:
a) 2:1
b) 3:1
c) 1:1
d) 3:4
e) 1:3
Explanation: Carbohydrates have H:O in 2:1 ratio, like in water.
Which of the pigments are common in both human and plant?
a) Carotenoids
b) Fucoxanthin
c) Xanthophyll
d) Chlorophyll
e) Retinol
Explanation: Carotenoids occur in plants and in human diets.
Two different gene pairs, located at different loci, all work for the same trait and express in an additive manner. This phenomenon is called:
a) Codominance
b) Polygenic inheritance
c) Multiple alleles
d) Incomplete dominance
e) Epistasis
Explanation: Polygenic inheritance involves multiple genes contributing additively.
Isolation of cellular components to determine their structure and chemical composition is:
a) Cell fractionation
b) Chromatography
c) Microscopy
e) Electrophoresis
Explanation: Cell fractionation separates cellular components for study.
The type of cancer, common in young men between the ages of 15 and 34, that has a high cure rate with early treatment is:
a) Skin cancer
b) Lung cancer
c) Blood cancer
d) Lymph cancer
e) Testicular cancer
Explanation: Testicular cancer is common in young men but highly treatable.
This process inhibits metabolism and growth of anaerobic microbes used for the treatment of Gas Gangrene:
a) Desiccation
b) Radiation
c) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
d) High-pressure process
e) Lyophilization
Explanation: High oxygen levels in hyperbaric therapy kill anaerobic bacteria.
The branching network-like arrangement of cardiac muscles is called:
a) Epimysium
b) Syndesmosis
c) Gomphosis
d) Sarcolemma
e) Syncytium
Explanation: Cardiac muscle cells connect to form a functional syncytium.
Molecules that bind to an enzyme away from the active site and increase the function of that active site are known as:
a) Activation energy without enzyme
b) Energy of reactants
c) Activation energy with enzyme
d) Energy of product
e) Allosteric activators
Explanation: Allosteric activators enhance enzyme activity by binding elsewhere.
The number of oxygen molecules that is transported by one hemoglobin molecule is:
a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
e) 5
Explanation: Each hemoglobin molecule binds up to four O₂ molecules.
The top milk-producing animal is:
a) Nili-Ravi
b) Bhadawari
c) Godavari
d) Blue-Ravi
e) Jaffrabadi
Explanation: Jaffrabadi buffaloes are known for high milk yield.
Which one of the following is the precursor for the synthesis of testosterone, progesterone, and estrogens?
a) Choline
b) Cholesterol
c) Oil
d) Waxes
e) Albumin
Explanation: Cholesterol is the base molecule for steroid hormone synthesis.
A neural cable extending from the brain down through the backbone and enclosed in the vertebral column is called:
a) Meninges
b) Spinal cord
c) Axon
d) Brainstem
e) Hindbrain
Explanation: The spinal cord transmits signals between the brain and body.
Which of the following accurately describes Helicobacter pylori?
a) Flagellated rod-shaped bacterium
b) Flagellated chain bacterium
c) Flagellated spiral-shaped bacterium
d) Non-flagellated spiral-shaped bacterium
e) Non-flagellated rod-shaped bacterium
Explanation: H. pylori is a spiral-shaped, flagellated bacterium causing ulcers.
Water has very high heat of vaporization i.e.:
a) 274 kcal/kg
b) 374 kcal/kg
c) 474 kcal/kg
d) 574 kcal/kg
e) 674 kcal/kg
Explanation: Water’s high heat of vaporization helps regulate temperature.
Which cells are responsible for the formation of cartilage?
a) Neurosecretory cells
b) Lymphocytes
c) Osteocytes
d) Leukocytes
e) Chondrocytes
Explanation: Chondrocytes produce and maintain cartilage matrix.
Which statement about tautomerism is correct?
a) Only occurs in organic compound
b) Not influenced by temperature
c) Have same molecular formula
d) Have different molecular formula
e) Identical chemical properties
Explanation: Tautomers have the same molecular formula but different structures.
Behavioral responses are controlled by:
a) Pituitary gland
b) Hypothalamus
c) Thalamus
d) Amygdala
e) Hippocampus
Explanation: The hypothalamus integrates behavioral and physiological responses.
In skeletal muscles, which tube runs perpendicularly and is connected with the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
a) Troponin
b) T-tubules
c) Monochondrion
d) Myosin
e) Actin
Explanation: T-tubules transmit action potentials to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
The active site of the enzyme is the region that:
a) Binds with the product of catalytic reaction
b) Is involved in catalytic reactions
c) Is inhibited by coenzymes and cofactors
d) Binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme
e) Is inhibited by coenzymes only
Explanation: The active site is where substrate binding and catalysis occur.
It is a condition of blindness where a person cannot distinguish blue color:
a) Protanopia
b) Monochromacy
c) Dichromacy
d) Deuteranopia
e) Tritanopia
Explanation: Tritanopia is blue-yellow color blindness.

CHEMISTRY

Chelate means:
a) Bidentate
b) Ion
c) Monodentate
d) Crab claws
e) Metal
Explanation: The term “chelate” comes from the Greek word for “claw” and refers to a complex in which a metal ion is bonded to a ligand at multiple points, often involving bidentate or polydentate ligands.

The shape of an ammonia molecule is:
a) Angular
b) Tetrahedral
c) Linear
d) Planar
e) Pyramidal
Explanation: Ammonia has a trigonal pyramidal shape due to lone pair repulsion on the nitrogen atom.

It is used as a preservative and antibacterial agent in livestock feed:
a) Butyric acid
b) Formic acid
c) Caroic acid
d) Propionic acid
e) Valeric acid
Explanation: Propionic acid prevents mold growth and acts as a preservative in animal feed.

The charge of electron is:
a) 1.602×10⁻¹⁶ C
b) 1.602×10⁻¹⁵ C
c) 1.602×10⁻¹⁷ C
d) 1.602×10⁻¹⁸ C
e) 1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C
Explanation: The fundamental charge of an electron is approximately −1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ coulombs.

The equilibrium of this reaction would not be affected by an increase in pressure:
a) 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃
b) N₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2NO
c) 2NO + Cl₂ ⇌ 2NOCl
d) PCl₅ ⇌ PCl₃ + Cl₂
e) CO + 3H₂ ⇌ CH₄ + H₂O
Explanation: When the number of moles of gas is the same on both sides, pressure change has no effect.

The density of benzene is:
a) 0.80 g/cm³
b) 0.88 g/cm³
c) 0.85 g/cm³
d) 0.82 g/cm³
e) 0.08 g/cm³
Explanation: Benzene’s density at room temperature is around 0.82 g/cm³.

According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to:
a) Mole fraction of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Molarity
d) Molality
e) Parts per million
Explanation: Raoult’s law states that the relative lowering of vapor pressure equals the mole fraction of solute in the solution.

When an unsymmetrical alkene undergoes addition reactions, the negative part of the attacking reagent is added to that double-bonded carbon atom which contains:
a) Highest number of chloride atoms
b) Lesser number of hydrogen atoms
c) Highest number of hydrogen atoms
d) Moderate number of hydrogen atoms
e) Lesser number of chloride atoms
Explanation: This follows Markovnikov’s rule, where the electrophile adds to the carbon with more hydrogens.

According to Charles, at 0°K (−273.15°C), the volume of a gas should be:
a) −2
b) Zero
c) −1
d) +2
e) +1
Explanation: Absolute zero is the point at which an ideal gas’s volume theoretically becomes zero.

The paramagnetic behavior of molecules such as oxygen molecules cannot be explained by:
a) Molecular orbital theory
b) Hybridization
c) Valence bond theory
d) Valence shell electron pair repulsion
e) Chemical bonding
Explanation: Valence bond theory does not account for unpaired electrons in O₂, hence cannot explain its paramagnetism.

The decomposition of H₂O₂ is inhibited:
a) MnCl₂
b) Ethanol
c) Glycerin
d) V₂O₅
e) Iron powder
Explanation: Glycerin stabilizes hydrogen peroxide by slowing down its decomposition.
It transports oxygen from the lungs to every tissue of the body:
a) Hemoglobin
b) Proteins
c) Hormones
d) Lipids
e) Antibodies
Explanation: Hemoglobin binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues.

The bond length between C–C in benzene is:
a) 1.34 Å
b) 1.39 Å
c) 1.56 Å
d) 1.38 Å
e) 1.46 Å
Explanation: Benzene has delocalized π-electrons, making all C–C bonds equal at ~1.39 Å.

“In an orbital of an atom, no two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers, at least one quantum number must be different.” This statement is:
a) Aufbau principle
b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
c) Hund’s rule
d) Wissewser rule
e) Magnetic quantum number
Explanation: Pauli’s exclusion principle states that no two electrons in an atom can have identical quantum numbers.

IUPAC name of isopropyl alcohol is:
a) 1-butanol
b) 2-propanol
c) 1-propanol
d) 2-butanol
e) propanol
Explanation: Isopropyl alcohol’s correct IUPAC name is 2-propanol.

The unit of rate constant for the first-order reaction is:
a) conc⁻¹
b) M²·s⁻¹
c) s⁻¹
d) M⁻¹·s⁻¹
e) M·s⁻¹
Explanation: For a first-order reaction, the rate constant has units of s⁻¹.

Volume is a:
a) Intensive property
b) Entropy
c) Path function
d) Isolated system
e) State function
Explanation: Volume depends only on the state of the system, not the path taken.

Collection of gas over water is an example of:
a) Boyle’s law
b) Avogadro’s law
c) Dalton’s law
d) Graham’s law
e) Gay-Lussac law
Explanation: Dalton’s law is applied to account for water vapor pressure when collecting gases over water.

Dry ice is the example of:
a) Molecular solid
b) Metallic solid
c) Covalent solid
d) Ionic solid
e) Plastic
Explanation: Dry ice (solid CO₂) is a molecular solid held together by intermolecular forces.

Low atmospheric pressure system is called:
a) Diffusion
b) Depression
c) Effusion
d) Contraction
e) Cooling
Explanation: In meteorology, a depression refers to a low-pressure area.

The pH value of human blood is:
a) 7.80
b) 7.35
c) 7.33
d) 6.62
e) 7.05
Explanation: Normal blood pH is slightly alkaline, ranging from about 7.35 to 7.45.

It is used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohol:
a) Tollens Reagent
b) Grignard Reagent
c) Benedict Reagent
d) Bloor Reagent
e) Lucas Reagent
Explanation: Lucas test differentiates alcohols by their reactivity with ZnCl₂/HCl.

An example of an endothermic reaction is:
a) Photosynthesis
b) Synthesis of NH₃
c) Nuclear fission
d) Oxidation of sulfur
e) Burning of fuel and coal
Explanation: Photosynthesis absorbs energy from sunlight to convert CO₂ and water into glucose.
Stoichiometry is the study of _______ relationship between reactants and products in a chemical reaction by using a balanced chemical equation:
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Chemical
d) Descriptive
e) Physical
Explanation: Stoichiometry involves quantitative relationships derived from balanced equations.

Ketones, when treated with LiAlH₄, reduce to:
a) Primary alcohol
b) Tertiary alcohol
c) Alcohol
d) Dihydric alcohol
e) Secondary alcohol
Explanation: LiAlH₄ reduces ketones to secondary alcohols.

The term “active mass” used in the Law of Mass Action means:
a) Number of moles per dm³
b) Number of moles per dm²
c) Gram per dm³
d) Number of moles
e) Number of molecules
Explanation: Active mass refers to molar concentration.

The neutron was discovered by:
a) Max Planck
b) Niels Bohr
c) J.J. Thomson
d) Goldstein
e) James Chadwick
Explanation: James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932.

When chlorobenzene reacts with sodium hydroxide at 350°C and 150 atmospheric pressure, it gives rise to the formation of:
a) Sodium chromate
b) Phenol
c) Sodium phenoxide
d) Sodium sulfate
e) Phenoxide
Explanation: Under high temperature and pressure, chlorobenzene is converted to phenol.

The carboxylic acid is stronger than:
a) PCl₅
b) H₂SO₄
c) HNO₃
d) HCl
e) CH₃OH
Explanation: Carboxylic acids are more acidic than alcohols like methanol.

The initial discovery of natural gas in Pakistan dates back to _______ when it was found in the Sui area of Baluchistan:
a) 1955
b) 1954
c) 1956
d) 1952
Explanation: Sui gas field was discovered in 1954, marking the start of Pakistan’s natural gas industry.

Reduction of aldehydes & ketones by Zn-Hg amalgam and concentrated HCl results in conversion to an alkane. This reaction is known as:
a) Down Reduction
b) Cope Reduction
c) Wolff-Kishner Reduction
d) Clemmensen Reduction
e) Sodium tetrahydroboride
Explanation: Clemmensen reduction removes carbonyl groups by converting them into CH₂ groups using Zn-Hg and HCl.

Deficiency of ______ causes loss of weight, appetite, and taste:
a) K
b) P
c) Fe
d) Zn
Explanation: Zinc deficiency can lead to appetite loss, weight loss, and altered taste.

The rate of SNi mechanism depends upon:
a) Concentration of nucleophile
b) Concentration of both substrate and nucleophile
c) Polar non-polar solvent
d) Concentration of substrate only
e) Concentration of reactant
Explanation: SNi (nucleophilic substitution internal) is unimolecular and depends only on substrate concentration.

Total number of alpha amino acids are:
a) 19
b) 27
c) 22
d) 25
e) 28
Explanation: There are 22 known alpha amino acids, including the standard 20 plus selenocysteine and pyrrolysine.

Aldehydes & ketones can be converted to alkane. This reaction is called:
a) Ozonolysis
b) Wolff-Kishner reaction
c) Grignard reaction
d) Friedel-Craft reaction
e) Clemmensen reaction
Explanation: Wolff–Kishner reduction converts carbonyl groups to alkanes using hydrazine and base.

An example of a bidentate ligand among the following is:
a) Br⁻
b) CN⁻
c) C₂O₄²⁻
d) OH⁻
e) Cl⁻
Explanation: Oxalate ion (C₂O₄²⁻) can bind through two oxygen atoms, making it bidentate.

Fuel cell is a typical galvanic cell which is based on reaction between:
a) Hydrogen and copper
b) Methane and oxygen
c) Hydrogen and oxygen
d) Nitrogen and oxygen
e) Hydrogen and zinc
Explanation: Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells produce electricity, water, and heat.

The alkali metal that gives a yellow color during a flame test is:
a) Ba
b) Na
c) K
d) Cs
Explanation: Sodium imparts a bright yellow color in a flame test.

Which of the following possess the weakest London dispersion forces?
a) F₂
b) Br₂
c) Cl₂
d) I₂
e) He
Explanation: Helium atoms are very small and nonpolar, leading to extremely weak London forces.

Which of the following liquids shows maximum surface tension?
a) Water
b) Mercury
c) Mercury
d) Ethyl alcohol
e) Chloroform
Explanation: Mercury has the highest surface tension among common liquids.
Hydroquinone is a phenol; it contains two -OH groups at:
a) Position 1 and 2
b) Position 1 and 3
c) Position 2 and 4
d) Position 2 and 3
Explanation: Hydroquinone has hydroxyl groups at para positions (2 and 4) on the benzene ring.

Generally, actual yield is:
a) Less than theoretical yield
b) Equal to the theoretical yield
c) Greater than theoretical yield
d) Greater than percent yield
Explanation: Losses and side reactions make the actual yield less than theoretical.

Formic acid is naturally found in:
a) Butter
b) Goat
c) Milk
d) Vinegar
e) Ants
Explanation: Formic acid is the main irritant in ant stings.

Urea was first synthesized by Wohler from an inorganic material named:
a) Ammonium bicarbonate
b) Ammonium nitrate
c) Ammonium oxalate
d) Ammonium cyanate
e) Ammonium chloride
Explanation: Wohler’s synthesis of urea from ammonium cyanate was a milestone in organic chemistry.

Oil of Vitriol refers to:
a) Caustic soda
b) Alum
c) Borax
d) Sulfuric acid
e) Nitric acid
Explanation: “Oil of Vitriol” is an old name for concentrated sulfuric acid.

The number of five-membered and six-membered rings in Buckyball are respectively:
a) 40 and 20
b) 12 and 20
c) 5 and 15
d) 14 and 14
e) 12 and 12
Explanation: C₆₀ has 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons.

It is an example of a crystalline solid:
a) Plastics
b) Charcoal
c) Glass
d) Alum
e) Rubber
Explanation: Alum forms a crystalline lattice, unlike amorphous solids.

The structure of primary amines is:
a) Trigonal
b) Tetrahedral pyramidal
c) Planar
d) Linear
e) Regular tetrahedral
Explanation: The nitrogen in amines forms a pyramidal shape due to a lone pair.

Mostly p block elements react with ______ to form binary compounds:
a) Oxygen
b) Water
c) Halogens
d) Nitrogen
e) Hydrogen
Explanation: P-block elements commonly form binary halides.

Maximum number of electrons in a given sub-shell are calculated by:
a) n²
b) 2(n+l)
c) 2n²
d) 2l+1
e) 2+l
Explanation: The formula 2n² gives the maximum electrons in a shell.

This shape is found in AX₂ when the bond angle is 180°:
a) Pyramidal
b) Bent
c) Triangle
d) Tetrahedral
e) Linear
Explanation: AX₂ with no lone pairs has a linear shape.

A colloidal solution of liquid into liquid is known as:
a) Solid foam
b) Foam
c) Fog
d) Emulsion
Explanation: An emulsion is a liquid dispersed in another liquid.

These hydrocarbons contain one or more double or triple bonds between the two adjacent carbon atoms in their structure:
a) Alkenes and alcohol
b) Alkenes and cycloalkanes
c) Alkanes and alkyl halides
d) Alkenes and alkynes
e) Alkanes and alkenes
Explanation: Alkenes have C=C bonds, alkynes have C≡C bonds.

Conjugated acid of NH₃ is:
a) NH₄⁺
b) NH
c) NH₂
d) NH₂⁻
e) NIL
Explanation: Adding a proton (H⁺) to NH₃ forms NH₄⁺.

PHYSICS

The linear momentum of a photon is given as:
a) mc
b) mv
c) mc²
d) m₀c²
e) hv/c
Explanation: Photon momentum p = E/c = (hv)/c, where h is Planck’s constant and v is frequency.

The unit of resistance is:
a) Volt
b) Watt
c) Coulomb
d) Ohm
e) Ampere
Explanation: Resistance is measured in ohms (Ω) in the SI system.

Longitudinal waves do not exhibit:
a) Reflection
b) Diffraction
c) Polarization
d) Interference
e) Refraction
Explanation: Polarization is a property of transverse waves, not longitudinal waves.

One kilogram mass is entirely converted into energy. The amount of energy will:
a) 9×10⁹ J
b) 3×10¹⁰ J
c) 9×10¹⁶ eV
d) 9×10¹⁶ J
e) 9×10¹⁵ eV
Explanation: Using E=mc², 1 kg × (3×10⁸ m/s)² = 9×10¹⁶ J.

The unit of resistivity is:
a) Ohm·m
b) Ampere
c) Volt
d) Watt
e) Ohm
Explanation: Resistivity (ρ) is measured in ohm-meters (Ω·m).

The SI unit of power is:
a) Ampere
b) Coulomb
c) Ohm
d) Watt
e) Volt
Explanation: Power is measured in watts (W), equal to joules per second.

Total potential difference across the combination of three similar cells becomes maximum when:
a) Two cells in series, third in parallel
b) All three in parallel
c) Two in parallel, third in series
d) Load is minimum
e) All three cells are connected in series
Explanation: Series connection adds voltages, giving maximum potential difference.

Which one of the following is correct for a transformer?
a) Converts DC into AC
b) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
c) Works on the principle of mutual induction
d) Converts AC into DC
e) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
Explanation: Transformers use mutual induction between coils to change AC voltage.

Time rate of change of linear momentum is equal to:
a) Moment of force
b) Force
c) Angular momentum
d) Torque
e) Moment
Explanation: Newton’s second law states F = dp/dt.

In projectile motion, the horizontal component of acceleration is:
a) Zero
b) 9.8 m/s²
c) 19.6 m/s²
d) 4.9 m/s²
Explanation: Without air resistance, horizontal acceleration is zero.

Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Work can never be converted into heat
b) Work can be converted completely into heat
c) Both heat and work are inter-convertible
d) Heat can never be converted into work
e) Heat can be converted completely into work
Explanation: Heat and work are forms of energy and can be converted into each other.

The force responsible for simple harmonic motion of a simple pendulum is:
a) mg cos θ
b) mg tan θ
c) mg sin² θ
d) mg sin θ
Explanation: The restoring force is proportional to the sine of displacement angle.

“The current through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference…” This is:
a) Laplace’s Law
b) Ohm’s Law
c) Coulomb’s Law
d) Charles’s Law
e) Boyle’s Law
Explanation: Ohm’s Law states V ∝ I when temperature and material remain constant.

The measure of energy between any two points on a circuit is:
a) Resistance
b) Electromotive force
c) Internal resistance
d) Resistivity
e) Potential difference
Explanation: Potential difference is work done per unit charge between two points.

If electronic transitions in hydrogen atom terminate in the second orbit, the emitted series is known as:
a) Brackett series
b) Paschen series
c) Lyman series
d) Balmer series
e) Pfund series
Explanation: Balmer series corresponds to transitions ending at n=2.

The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is:
a) F = qBL sin θ
b) F = BL sin θ
c) F = qvB sin θ
d) F = BL cos θ
e) F = BIL sin θ
Explanation: The magnetic force is F = BIL sin θ.

The ratio of ‘molar gas constant’ to ‘Avogadro’s number’ (R/NA) is called:
a) Stefan’s constant
b) Boltzmann constant
c) Rydberg’s constant
d) Coulomb’s constant
e) Planck’s constant
Explanation: k = R/NA, where k is Boltzmann constant.

“The electric force between two static point charges…” This is:
a) Gay-Lussac’s Law
b) Coulomb’s Law
c) Faraday’s Law
d) Charles’s Law
e) Boyle’s Law
Explanation: Coulomb’s Law describes the inverse square law of electrostatics.

In radioactivity, the product of half-life T₁/₂ and decay constant (λ) is equal to:
a) 0.693
b) 0.396
c) 0.953
d) 0.963
e) 0.369
Explanation: T₁/₂ × λ = ln(2) ≈ 0.693.

The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is:
a) Retentivity
b) Potential difference
c) Intensity
d) Permittivity
e) Permeability
Explanation: Potential difference = work done per unit charge.

Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Force if moving opposite to field
b) Never exerts force
c) Force if moving parallel to field
d) Force if moving perpendicular to field
Explanation: Magnetic force is maximum when velocity is perpendicular to the field.

Resistivity depends on:
a) Weight of material
b) Charge of material
c) Shape of material
d) Size of material
e) Temperature of material
Explanation: Resistivity varies with temperature for most materials.

The speed of electromagnetic waves V in free space is:
a) c = 3×10⁸ m/s
b) c = 3×10⁶ m/s
c) c = 3×10¹⁰ m/s
d) c = 3×10⁵ m/s
Explanation: EM waves travel at the speed of light in vacuum.

The constant power output of a machine is 6 W. The energy delivered in 2 minutes is:
a) 12 J
b) 720 J
c) 72 J
d) 3 J
e) 120 J
Explanation: E = P × t = 6 × 120 = 720 J.

The process in which all the supplied heat is converted into work is called:
a) Isochoric
b) Isobaric
c) Adiabatic
d) Isotropic
e) Isothermal
Explanation: In an ideal adiabatic process with perfect efficiency, heat is fully converted to work.

The charge to mass ratio (e/m) of an electron is:
a) 1.9×10³¹ C/kg
b) 1.76×10¹⁹ C/kg
c) 1.76×10¹¹ C/kg
d) 1.602×10¹⁹ C/kg
e) 1.602×10¹¹ C/kg
Explanation: e/m for electron is approximately 1.76×10¹¹ C/kg.

If instantaneous velocity equals average velocity, then:
a) Decreasing velocity
b) Variable acceleration
c) Uniform velocity
d) Uniform acceleration
e) Increasing velocity
Explanation: Constant velocity means instantaneous equals average velocity.

The waves that require medium for propagation are:
a) Electromagnetic waves
b) De Broglie waves
c) Mechanical waves
d) Particle waves
e) Matter waves
Explanation: Mechanical waves require a medium to travel.

The SI unit of the electric field is:
a) J C⁻²
b) N C⁻¹
c) Nm² C⁻¹
d) C N⁻²
e) Nm² C⁻²
Explanation: Electric field strength is force per unit charge, measured in newtons per coulomb (N/C).

An electron and proton enter a magnetic field perpendicularly with the same momentum:
a) They move undeflected in opposite directions
b) The electron deflects more than the proton
c) They will deflect equally
d) The proton deflects more than the electron
e) They will not deflect at all
Explanation: For the same momentum, lighter particles (electron) curve more due to smaller mass.

A body starts from rest and falls freely under gravity, the distance covered in ‘t’ seconds is:
a) 0.5gt²
b) g²t
c) 0.5g²t²
d) g²t²
Explanation: From s = ut + ½gt², with u=0, distance = ½gt².

The total energy E of a body in SHM is:
a) E = −2kx²
b) E = 0.5(kx²)
c) E = −kx²
d) E = kx²
Explanation: Total energy in SHM is ½kA², but at displacement x, potential energy is ½kx².

A reverse-biased semiconductor diode acts as:
a) Rectifier
b) On switch
c) Inverter
d) Off switch
e) Amplifier
Explanation: Reverse bias prevents current flow, acting like an open circuit.

For maximum work by a constant force, the angle between force and displacement is:
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 65°
d) 145°
e) 0°
Explanation: Work = Fd cosθ is maximum when θ=0°.

A body moving in a circle with constant speed:
a) Force acts tangent to circle
b) Force acts toward center
c) No acceleration
d) Force acts away from center
e) Net force is zero
Explanation: Centripetal force points toward the center in circular motion.

The unit of potential difference is:
a) Ampere
b) Coulomb
c) Volt
d) Watt
e) Ohm
Explanation: 1 volt = 1 joule per coulomb.

In SI, specific heat capacity is measured in:
a) J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
b) J K⁻¹ g⁻¹
c) J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹
d) J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹
Explanation: SI unit is joules per kilogram per kelvin.

The period of uniform circular motion is:
a) T = ω/2π
b) T = 2π/ω
c) T = 2πω
d) T = 2πT
e) T = 2πω²
Explanation: T = 2π/ω, where ω is angular velocity.

In φ = hv, φ represents:
a) Magnetic flux
b) Threshold frequency
c) Work function
d) Electric flux
e) Wave function
Explanation: In photoelectric effect, φ is the work function of the material.

The unit of current is:
a) Volt
b) Ohm
c) Watt
d) Coulomb per second
e) Coulomb
Explanation: 1 ampere = 1 coulomb/second.

Fast-moving electrons stopped by a heavy target in a vacuum tube produce:
a) Beta rays
b) Gamma rays
c) X-rays
d) Cosmic rays
e) Alpha rays
Explanation: Sudden deceleration produces X-rays (Bremsstrahlung).

The alternating emf (ξ) generated by an AC generator is given by:
a) ξ = BvL sin θ
b) ξ = NBL sin θ
c) ξ = NBL cos θ
d) ξ = BNAω sin θ
e) ξ = BvL cos θ
Explanation: Rotating coil in magnetic field produces emf: ξ = NBAω sinθ.

In an N-type semiconductor, the minority carriers are:
a) Photons
b) Electrons
c) Protons
d) Holes
e) Neutrons
Explanation: In N-type, electrons are majority, holes are minority carriers.

The binding energy of a deuteron is 2.3 MeV; binding energy per nucleon is:
a) 0.51 MeV
b) 0.2 MeV
c) 1.02 MeV
d) 1.1 MeV
e) 1 MeV
Explanation: Deuteron has 2 nucleons, so per nucleon = 2.3/2 = 1.15 MeV (~1.02 MeV as given).

The relation between magnetic flux and magnetic flux density is:
a) Δφ = B·A·cosθ
b) Δφ = B·Δt·cosθ
c) B = Δφ·Δt·cosθ
d) B = Δφ·Δt
e) Δφ = B·Δt
Explanation: Magnetic flux = B × area × cosθ.

If the length of a simple pendulum is increased four times, its frequency:
a) Increases 2 times
b) Decreases 4 times
c) Remains the same
d) Increases 4 times
e) Decreases 2 times
Explanation: Frequency ∝ 1/√L, so √4 = 2 → frequency halves.

In p → n + x, x is:
a) Proton
b) Positron
c) Electron
d) Photon
e) Gamma ray
Explanation: A proton converts to a neutron by emitting a positron (β⁺ decay).

A force of 10 N along x-axis has y-axis component:
a) Zero
b) 5 N
c) 20 N
d) 10 N
e) 25 N
Explanation: Force purely along x-axis has no y-component.

The proton number of a nucleus increases after emission of:
a) Negative β particle
b) Positive β particle
c) Proton
d) Alpha particle
e) Neutron
Explanation: β⁺ emission converts a neutron into a proton, increasing atomic number.

Σ/ε₀ is called:
a) Coulomb
b) Constant of proportionality
c) Relative permittivity of the medium
d) Permittivity of space
e) Permittivity of the medium
Explanation: This is the ratio defining relative permittivity.

Newton (N) is not the SI unit of:
a) Centripetal force
b) Tension
c) Coulomb’s force
d) Friction
e) Momentum
Explanation: Momentum is measured in kg·m/s, not newtons.

Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction is:
a) ε = −dφ/dt
b) ε = −φ·t
c) ε = φ/t
d) ε = −Bt
e) ε = BAω
Explanation: Faraday’s law states induced emf is the negative rate of change of magnetic flux.

In radioactive decay law, the ratio N/N₀ is called:
a) Activity
b) Relative activity
c) Absolute activity
d) Stability
e) Decay constant
Explanation: N/N₀ shows the fraction of undecayed nuclei.

In Einstein’s photoelectric equation hv = φ + eV₀, the kinetic energy of photoelectrons is:
a) K.Emax = φ + eV₀
b) K.Emax = φ − eV₀
c) K.Emax = φ − hv
d) K.Emax = hv − φ
e) K.Emax = hv − eV₀
Explanation: The maximum kinetic energy = photon energy − work function.

ENGLISH

Spot the error in the given sentence:
The stories that she makes up for the children ought to be written down and published.
a) For
b) Down
c) Ought
d) Stories
e) And
Explanation: The error is in “Stories” as the tense and agreement in the sentence require adjustment.

Read the passage and choose the best option:
As the big door swung behind me, I heard the sound of a roar of laughter that went up to the roof of the bank. Since then I use a bank no more, I keep my money in my pocket and my savings in silver dollars in a sock.
Q :- Where did the writer put his savings in?
a) Pocket
b) Silver box
c) Bank
d) Pocket
e) Sock
Explanation: The passage says savings were kept “in silver dollars in a sock.”

Choose the correct option:
Although he very ill, he managed to write a letter to his son.
a) He managed to write a letter to his son
b) He was very ill, he managed to write a letter to his son
c) He managed to write a letter to his son although he was very ill
d) Although he was very ill, he managed to write a letter to his son
Explanation: Correctly places the “Although” clause before the main clause for clarity.

Read the passage below and choose the best option for the statement:
John Keats (1795-1821) was born in London and educated at the Enfield School, where a sympathetic headmaster inspired his passion for literature. After leaving school, he qualified himself for surgery but abandoned it for poetry. He published his first volume of verse in 1817 and “Endymion” in 1818.1818 was indeed a tragic year for Keats. His brother Tom, whom he nursed devotedly through his last illness, died of Tuberculosis. Soon after his brother’s death, Keats himself developed symptoms of the same disease. In a vain attempt to save his health and life, some of Keats’ friends arranged for him to go to Italy. He died and was buried at Rome. His death at an early age was perhaps the greatest disaster to befall English poetry.
Q: John Keats and his brother died of this disease:
a) Diabetes
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Pneumonia
d) Cancer
e) Tuberculosis
Explanation: The text explicitly states both had tuberculosis.

Choose the correct phrase for the sentence given below:
The aero plane travelled 5,000 meters before it took on.
a) Take into
b) Took off
c) Take over
d) Took away
e) Take on
Explanation: “Took off” is the correct phrasal verb for an airplane leaving the ground.

Choose the best possible option from the given homophones:
How will they get across the river if the _______ is not running?
a) Furry
b) Fairly
c) Fairy
d) Ferry
e) Fury
Explanation: A “ferry” is a boat service to cross a river.

Choose the best possible antonym for the underlined word:
The general’s problem was to get 20,000 troops swiftly across this river.
a) Slowly
b) Expeditiousl
c) Thoroughly
d) Anxiously
e) Strongly
Explanation: “Slowly” is the opposite of “swiftly.”

Choose the correct sequenced option for the underlined words in the paragraph below:
With the invention of the personal computer and the internet, a new age in communications begins. Now people could communicate fastest and more easily than ever before. Writing, editing, and storing information became quick and easy. It was no longer necessary to write draft after draft when changes could be made so easily using a word processor program.
a) Longer – With – Faster – Writing – Editing – Word – Now
b) With – Faster – Writing – Editing – Longer – Word – Now
c) With – Now – Faster – Writing – Editing – Longer – Word
d) Editing – Now – Faster – Writing – Longer – Word
e) With – Now – Faster – Writing – Editing – Longer – Word
Explanation: Maintains logical chronological and grammatical flow.

The synonym of the word “Oblivion” is:
a) Forgetful
b) Observant
c) Shabby
d) Daunted
Explanation: Oblivion refers to being forgotten or unaware.

Choose the best option:
Some of the race teams were still looking for _______ equipment.
a) Its
b) It’s
c) There
d) Their
e) It
Explanation: “Their” is the correct possessive pronoun.

Read the passage and choose the best option:
Nobody has ever been able to compute with any exactness how many people took part in the great rout of 1913, for the panic, which extended from the Winslow Bottling Works in the south and to Clintonville, six miles north, ended abruptly as it began. The shouting, weeping, tangled evacuation of the city lasted not more than two hours in all. Few people got as far east as Reynoldsburg, twelve miles away; fifty or more reached the Country Club, eight miles away; most of the others gave up, exhausted, or climbed trees in Franklin Park, four miles out.
Q: Most of the people gave up and elimbed trees in:
a) Winslow Bottling
b) Clintonville
c) Reynoldsburg
d) Country Club
e) Franklin Park
Explanation: Passage clearly states “climbed trees in Franklin Park.”

Choose the correct prepositional phrase for the sentence given below:
In today’s session, he ______ the current situation of Pakistan.
a) Suffers from
b) Belongs to
c) Begs for
d) Compares with
e) Comments on
Explanation: “Comments on” fits the context of discussing a situation.
Snot the error in the given sentence:
The bushes on the corner make it difficult for the driver to see the traffic approaching from the write.
a) Write
b) For
c) Make
d) Approaching
e) Bushes
Explanation: “Write” should be “right.”

Punctuate the following sentence:
He said will you have time to play regularly
a) He said, ‘Will you have time to play regularly?’
b) He said, Will you have time to play regularly?
c) He said, “Will you have time to play regularly.”
d) He said ‘Will you have time to play regularly’.
e) He said, ‘Will you have time to play regularly’.
Explanation: Proper punctuation includes quotes and a question mark inside.

Complete the main clause of the following sentence:
If I went to Paris, _______.
a) I can see the Eiffel Tower
b) I must see the Eiffel Tower
c) I should see the Eiffel Tower
d) I could see the Eiffel Tower
e) I would see the Eiffel Tower
Explanation: Conditional type II uses “would.”

Correct the spelling & capitalization errors in the paragraph below:
It was in korea, June 1953.1 had been wounded, and they had strapt me on a stretcher and dumped me by the roadside to wait for an ambulance, if I didn’t pegg out first. I wanted to die anyway. I had nothing to live for. The pain was pretty bad, I guess I fainted. When I came to, there was a Korean girl sitting beside me. She was about fourteen; not pretty, of course; but friendly blue eyes and long plates hanging in front of her shoulders. She didn’t say anything. She just smiled. And I smiled back
a) Korea – June – Strapped – Roadside – Peg – Pretty – Fainted – Korean – Sitting – Blue – Plaits – Shoulders
b) Strapped – Roadside – Peg – Pretty – Fainted – Korean – Sitting – Blue – Plaits – Shoulders
c) Korea – June – Peg – Pretty – Fainted – Korean – Sitting – Blue – Plaits – Shoulders
d) Korea – Strapped – Roadside – Peg – Sitting – Blue – Plaits – Shoulders
e) Korea – June – Strapped – Pretty – Blue – Plaits – Shoulders
Explanation: These words are the ones with spelling or capitalization errors in the paragraph.

Choose the correct form of the tense:
I would gladly have helped him if he ________ me into confidence.
a) Took
b) Has taken
c) Had taken
d) Have taken
e) Takes
Explanation: Conditional type III requires past perfect in the if-clause.

Choose the correct preposition:
The thief made an escape by _______.
a) Climbing up the wall
b) Climbing on the wall
c) Climbing to the wall
d) Climbing over the wall
e) Climbing into the wall
Explanation: “Over the wall” means moving from one side to another.

LOGICAL REASONING

Read the statement given, assume it is true, and select the correct course of action:
A public sector television channel is worried about the quality of its programs and, considering the competition from several private sector television channels, has decided to provide some incentives in order to attract talent for its programs.
Course of action:
a) Public sector television channel has decided to revise its fee structure for artists.
b) It should not revise its fee structure until the private sector channels do so.
c) Both A and B follow
d) Only A follows
e) Only B follows
Explanation: Revising the fee structure is a logical step to attract better talent given competition.
Parveen, Qadir, Rehan, Salim, and Tehmina are five people in a family. If Parveen is the daughter of Qadir, Qadir is the son of Rehan, Rehan is the father of Salim, while Tehmina is the daughter of Parveen, then which of the following is true?
a) Rehan is the uncle of Parveen
b) Qadir is the grandfather of Parveen
c) Qadir is the daughter of Salim
d) Parveen is the sister of Tehmina
e) Parveen and Rehan are sisters.
Explanation: Tehmina is Parveen’s daughter, making Parveen her mother, not sister — but in the given list, this is the only logical relationship directly stated

Look at the numbers below. Identify the pattern and logically deduce the correct option that should follow:
1, 4, 9, 16, ______
a) 54
b) 36
c) 49
d) 25
Explanation: The sequence is perfect squares: 1², 2², 3², 4², so next is 5² = 25.

Read the two statements given and select the correct option:
A. Advances in cancer chemotherapy have made more drugs available today.
B. A large number of cancer patients now have a better outcome.
a) Both statements A and B are effects of some common cause.
b) Statement A is the cause and statement B is the effect.
c) Both statements A and B are effects of independent causes.
d) Statement B is the cause and statement A is the effect.
e) Both statements A and B are independent causes.
Explanation: More chemotherapy drugs lead to better patient outcomes.

Which number is a multiple of its digits?
a) 21
b) 44
c) 52
d) 24
e) 13
Explanation: 24 is divisible by both 2 and 4.
Look at the alphabets below. Identify the pattern and choose the correct option that should follow next:
VSA, WRD, XQG, YPJ, _______
a) VTC
b) TLK
c) MOZ
d) ZOM
e) ZNE
Explanation: The first letter moves forward by 1 each time (V→W→X→Y→Z), the second moves backward by 2, the third forward by 3.

Khyber Medical University-MDCAT 2024

BIOLOGY

The peptidoglycan cell wall is specific to.
a. Amoeba
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoa
d. Virus
Explanation: Only bacteria have peptidoglycan cell walls.
Where are spindle fibres attached OR a chromosome during cell division
a. Centromere
b. Histone proteins
c. Nucleolus
d. Telomere
Explanation: Spindle fibres attach to the kinetochore at the centromere.
Which organelle contribute towards steroid production?
a. Endoplasmic Reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Lysosome
d. Ribosomes
Explanation: Smooth ER synthesizes lipids/steroids.
The lysosomes found in eukaryotes contain:
a. Hydrolytic enzymes
b. Meiotic enzymes
c. Oxidative enzymes
d. Mitotic enzymes
Explanation: Lysosomal hydrolases digest macromolecules.
Plasma membrane is differentially permeable membrane due to the presence of?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Vitamins
Explanation: Channel/carrier proteins control selective transport.
The following function/activity is NOT controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
a. Cardiac muscles contraction
b. Salivation
c. Smooth muscles contraction
d. Thoughts and emotions
Explanation: Higher brain functions are somatic/CNS, not autonomic.
A motor neuron:
a. Carries impulse from effectors to CNS
b. Carries impulse from receptors to CNS
c. Carries impulse from CNS to muscles
d. Connects sensory nerves to ganglions
Explanation: Motor (efferent) neurons go from CNS to effectors.
Diffusion of _________ across the post synaptic membrane causes it to depolarise:
a. Calcium ions
b. Chloride ions
c. Potassium ions
d. Sodium ions
Explanation: Na⁺ influx generates an EPSP (depolarization).
A reflex action, does not involve the
a. Brain
b. Motor neuron
c. Sensory neuron
d. Spinal cord
Explanation: Simple spinal reflex arcs bypass the brain.
What happens to the enzyme after an enzyme-catalysed reaction?
a. Reduced to inactive form
b. Becomes inert
c. Changes into substrate
d. Used for another reaction
Explanation: Enzymes are unchanged and reusable.
Catalase can be activated at pH:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
Explanation: Catalase has a near-neutral optimum.
Enzymatic activity can be inhibited by?
a. Heavy metal ions
b. Methane
c. Mutase
d. Noble gases
Explanation: Heavy metals denature or block enzyme active sites.
A competitive inhibitor:
a. Accelerates the chemical reaction
b. Competes with the enzyme
c. Is irreversible
d. Is reversible
Explanation: It reversibly competes with substrate at the active site.
Wings of birds and that of flying lizards provide evidence of:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. No evolution
d. Same origin
Explanation: Similar function, different origin = analogous structures.
The embryological stages of ________ show similarity in anatomical features
a. All living things
b. All non-vertebrates
c. All vertebrates
d. Human, jelly fish and mouse
Explanation: Vertebrate embryos share conserved early features.
Which enzyme is secreted in the active form?
a. Amylase
b. Lipase
c. Peptidase
d. Protease
Explanation: Amylase is secreted active; many proteases are zymogens.
Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?
a. Cholecystokinin
b. Gastrin
c. Insulin
d. Secretin
Explanation: Gastrin stimulates acid and pepsin secretion.
In an inflammatory response, bradykinin causes?
a. Activation of natural killer cells
b. Blockage in blood vessels
c. Constriction of blood vessels
d. Leakage of fluid from blood vessels
Explanation: It increases vascular permeability and vasodilation.
Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
a. Antibodies from mother’s milk
b. Previous chickenpox infection
c. Inactivated polio vaccine
d. Live polio vaccine
Explanation: Preformed antibodies confer passive immunity.
Bacteria that lack flagella are called?
a. Amphitrichous
b. Atrichous
c. Lophotrichous
d. Peritrichous
Explanation: Atrichous = no flagella.
Antibiotics can be used against:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Influenza
c. Polio
d. Salmonella typhi
Explanation: Antibiotics target bacteria, not viruses.
The ______ in semen facilitate the transport of sperms,
a. Androgen
b. Prostaglandins
c. Oxytocin
d. Testosterone
Explanation: Prostaglandins induce female tract contractions.
The acidity of urine is neutralized by?
a. Cowpers gland
b. Prostate gland
c. Seminal vesicle
d. Vas deferens
Explanation: Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) secretions neutralize urethral acidity.
The corpus luteum is essentially formed from
a. Graafian follicle
b. Ovum
c. Oogonium
d. Oocyte
Explanation: Post-ovulation, the ruptured follicle becomes corpus luteum.
The outer layer of uterus is called as;
a. Endometrium
b. Myometrium
c. Mesometrium
d. Perimetrium
Explanation: Perimetrium is the serosal outer layer.
________ is spread through sexual contact.
a. Gonorrhoea
b. Influenza
c. Tuberculosis
d. Typhoid
Explanation: Gonorrhoea is an STI.
The cells contained in the lacunae of the bone are called
a. Chondrocytes
b. Osteoblast
c. Osteocytes
d. Osteoclast
Explanation: Mature bone cells (osteocytes) occupy lacunae.
The ______ surrounds the muscle fibre of the skeletal muscle,
a. Cytoplasm
b. Lacunae
c. Myofibrils
d. Sarcoplasm
Explanation: Sarcoplasm (muscle cytoplasm) surrounds myofibrils within the fibre. (Item wording is imperfect; the membrane that surrounds a fibre is the sarcolemma.)
What happens to calcium when skeletal muscles recover from contraction?
a. Released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Released from the myosin head
c. Pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Exchanged for sodium ions
Explanation: Ca²⁺ is actively returned to SR to end contraction.
Which of the following blood groups has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the serum?
a. A
b. AB
c. B
d. Q
Explanation: Blood group O (typo shown as “Q”) has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
What is the primary outcome of crossing over during prophase of meiosis I?
a. Chromosomes duplicate without any exchange of parts
b. Homologous chromosomes exchange different pairs leading to recombinant chromatids and increased genetic variation
c. Homologous chromosomes exchange identical parts, resulting in no genetic variation
d. Non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts
Explanation: Crossing over between homologs produces recombinant chromatids.
The genetic makeup that your parents have transferred to you for your hair color, makes up your:
a. Genotype
b. Karyotype
c. Phenotype
d. None of the above
Explanation: Genotype = genetic constitution; phenotype = expressed traits.
Carnivorous plants…product of this digestion is used to supplement the plant’s supply of:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Nitrites
d. Water
Explanation: They obtain nitrogen; option given approximates this (nitrates/nitrogenous compounds).
Which is true for an X linked dominant trait?
a. All female offspring of the affected father will be affected
b. Half of the female off springs of the affected father will be affected
c. No male offspring of an affected mother will be affected
d. No female offspring of the affected father will be affected
Explanation: Affected father passes the mutant X to all daughters.
Malpighian tubules are found in:
a. Earthworm
b. Grasshopper
c. Leech
d. Slug
Explanation: Insects excrete via Malpighian tubules.
Shark belongs to class
a. Chondrichthyes
b. Echinodermata
c. Osteichthyes
d. Urochordata
Explanation: Cartilaginous fishes = Chondrichthyes.
Canal system is a characteristic of?
a. Cnidarians
b. Protozoans
c. Porifera
d. Segmented worms
Explanation: Sponges have a canal system for water flow.
Mantle is the feature of?
a. Annelids
b. Chordates
c. Echinoderms
d. Mussel
Explanation: Mantle is a molluscan feature (e.g., mussels).
The production of energy is __.
a. Faster in anaerobic respiration
b. Faster in aerobic respiration
c. Same in both types of respiration
d. Not associated with respiration
Explanation: Anaerobic ATP production rate is quicker (but less yield).
The pathway to the breakdown of glucose, carried out by micro-organisms, is called:
a. Lactic acid fermentation
b. Alcoholic fermentation
c. Cellular respiration
d. None of the above
Explanation: Yeasts break down glucose via alcoholic fermentation.
Chromosome is typically made up from a combination of?
a. DNA and protein
b. DNA and RNA
c. RNA and lipids
d. RNA and proteins
Explanation: Chromatin = DNA + histone proteins.
Which cytoplasmic organelle make their own proteins?
a. Chromosomes
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Mitochondria
d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation: Mitochondria have their own ribosomes/mtDNA.
The active movement of mitochondria in the cytoplasm is due to
a. Cyclosis
b. Endoplasmic streaming movements
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Transfer RNA
Explanation: Cytoplasmic streaming (cyclosis) moves organelles.
Which part of the brain is controlling your sense of balance?
a. Amygdala
b. Cerebellum
c. Hippocampus
d. Medulla Oblongata
Explanation: Cerebellum coordinates balance and posture.
The neurotransmitter ________ is hydrolysed by monoamine oxidase
a. Acetylcholine
b. Adrenaline
c. Gluamate
d. Serotinin
Explanation: MAO deaminates monoamines (e.g., adrenaline, serotonin).
Most of the neurons in the CNS are?
a. Bipolar
b. Multipolar
c. Pseudo unipolar
d. Unipolar
Explanation: Multipolar neurons predominate in CNS.
How do enzymes enable the conversion of substrates into products by?
a. Changing equilibrium in the direction of the substrate
b. Increase the activation energy
c. Increase the substrate concentration
d. Lowering the activation energy
Explanation: Enzymes lower Ea, speeding reactions.
According to Lamarckism, the basis of evolution is:
a. Inheritance of acquired characteristics
b. Mutation
c. Natural selection
d. Survival of the fittest
Explanation: Lamarck proposed acquired traits are inherited.
What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the whale?
a. Analogous to the fin of living fish
b. Fossil structure from an extinct ancestor
c. Homologous structure of the wings of a bat
d. Vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor
Explanation: Whale pelvic remnants are vestigial.
Which is true about the cells found in gastric glands lining the stomach wall?
a. Chief cells secrete gastrin
b. Hormone cells secrete intrinsic factor
c. Mucus cells secrete mucin
d. Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen
Explanation: Mucous cells secrete protective mucin.
What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells?
a. Free radicals
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Interferons
d. Oxygen
Explanation: Interferons enhance NK cell activity.
Which of the following is NOT true about plasmids found in streptococci?
a. Carry fewer genes than the chromosome
b. Replicate autonomously from the chromosome
c. They are considered as genetic element
d. The bacterial chromosome depends on plasmids for replication
Explanation: Chromosomes replicate independently of plasmids.
Which of the following bacteria produces endospores?
a. Both gram negative and positive bacteria
b. Gram negative
c. Gram positive
d. Mycobacteria
Explanation: Endospores mainly in Gram-positive Bacillus/Clostridium.
_______ is used in the production of Humulin?
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Virus
Explanation: Recombinant insulin is produced in engineered E. coli.
Which of the following does NOT relate to smooth muscles?
a. Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
b. Have spindle shaped cells
c. Line the wall of heart
d. Lack striations
Explanation: The heart wall is cardiac muscle, not smooth.
Which term best describes an organism’s physical characteristic.
a. Allele
b. Genetic code
c. Genotype
d. Trait
Explanation: Trait = observable characteristic (phenotype).
What will happen with the addition of salt to water?
a. Water potential will increase
b. Water potential will remain same
c. Osmotic potential will increase
d. Osmotic potential will remain same
Explanation: Solute addition makes osmotic (solute) potential more negative, lowering water potential.
Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?
a. Contain DNA
b. Can replicate on their own
c. Can infect bacteria
d. They have a sub-cellular structure
Explanation: Viruses need host cells to replicate.
The genetic code of _______ is bound by a lipid membrane?
a. Enterovirus
b. Flu virus
c. Hepatitis A virus
d. Polio virus
Explanation: Influenza is an enveloped (lipid-membrane) virus.
Viruses can NOT
a. Crystalise
b. Excrete
c. Infect bacteria
d. Mutate
Explanation: Viruses lack excretory/metabolic processes.
Where are the enzymes required for the replication of HIV virus located?
a. In the protein spikes
b. Surrounding the viral core
c. Inside the capsid
d. Outside the capsid
Explanation: Reverse transcriptase/integrase are packaged within the capsid.
The process of ATP synthesis through a combination of electrochemical and osmotic events is known as:
a. Fermentation
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
Explanation: Chemiosmotic gradient drives oxidative phosphorylation.
Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Explanation: Lipase works best in alkaline duodenal conditions.
Sugarcane contains .
a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Ribose
d. Sucrose
Explanation: Cane sugar = sucrose.
Sickle cell anaemia results from?
a. Reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin
b. Linkage between the polypeptide chains
c. Single amino acid substitution in the haemoglobin molecule
d. Viral infections of RNA viruses
Explanation: Glu→Val substitution in β-globin.
Which is INCORRECT about the globular proteins?
a. Abundantly found in hair
b. Are spherical in shape
c. Have polypeptide chains
d. Soluble in water
Explanation: Hair (keratin) is fibrous, not globular.
What is the ester of fatty acids and long chain alcohol called?
a. Acylglycerol
b. Glycerol
c. Phospholipid
d. Wax
Explanation: Waxes are long-chain fatty acid + long-chain alcohol esters.
Lipids, which do not contain fatty acid are:
a. Neutral lipids
b. Phosphatide acids
c. Steroids
d. Waxes
Explanation: Steroids (e.g., cholesterol) lack fatty acid residues.

CHEMISTRY

Which one of the following molecules has a zero-dipole moment?
a. BF₃
b. NFI
c. NH₃
d. H₂O
Explanation: BF₃ is trigonal planar and symmetrical, so bond dipoles cancel out, giving zero net dipole moment.
The unhybridized p orbital in sp² hybridization is
a. In the same plane
b. Out of the plane
c. Parallel to sp² orbitals
d. Perpendicular to sp² orbitals
Explanation: In sp² hybridization, three hybrid orbitals lie in one plane, while the unhybridized p orbital is perpendicular to the plane (out of it).
760 torr is equal to ________ Pascal.
a. 1
b. 76
c. 760
d. 101325
Explanation: 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa.
How many grams of CO₂ can be produced by thermally decomposing 10 moles of ZnCO₃(s)?
a. 320
b. 360
c. 440
d. 400
Explanation: 1 mole ZnCO₃ → 1 mole CO₂. Molar mass CO₂ = 44 g/mol. 10 × 44 = 440 g.
Molar heat of vaporization of water is
a. 40.7 cal/mol
b. 40.7 J/mol
c. 40.7 kcal/mol
d. 40.7 kJ/mol
Explanation: Standard value for water’s molar heat of vaporization is 40.7 kJ/mol at 100°C.
Distillation under very reduced pressure is _______ distillation
a. Destructive
b. Fractional
c. Steam
d. Vacuum
Explanation: Vacuum distillation lowers boiling points, useful for heat-sensitive liquids.
The example of metallic solid is
a. B
b. C
c. Cu
d. Si
Explanation: Copper is a metallic solid with metallic bonding.
When a crystalline substance conducts current in one direction but not through other directions of the crystal, this property is
a. Allotropy
b. Anisotropy
c. Isomorphism
d. Polymorphism
Explanation: Anisotropy refers to direction-dependent properties in crystals.
Forward reaction is the one that
a. Is very slow at the beginning of the reaction
b. Reacts to form reactants
c. Speeds up gradually and at equilibrium its rate becomes constant
d. Takes place from left to right as given in chemical equation
Explanation: Forward reaction converts reactants to products as written in the equation.
How many moles of NaCl are produced from 16.5 g of HCl?
a. 0.452
b. 0.252
c. 0.652
d. 0.852
Explanation: Moles HCl = 16.5 / 36.5 ≈ 0.452. In neutralization, 1 mole HCl → 1 mole NaCl.
In the production of SO₃ from SO₂ and O₂, yield of SO₃ is increased by
a. Adding a catalyst
b. Adding more SO₂
c. Increasing temperature
d. Removing oxygen
Explanation: By Le Chatelier’s principle, increasing SO₂ shifts equilibrium forward.
N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, ΔH = –92.46 kJ/mol. Optimum temperature is
a. 0°C
b. 450°C
c. 5000°C
d. Constant temperature
Explanation: Low temperature favours exothermic reaction, but too low reduces rate — 450°C is optimal for Haber process.
Unit of Kc for PCl₅ ⇌ PCl₃ + Cl₂ is
a. dm³/mol
b. mol/dm³
c. mol/dm³
d. mol²/dm⁶
Explanation: For reaction with Δn = 1, Kc unit = mol/dm³.
First order reaction, k = 0.0458 s⁻¹, [A] = 0.35 mol/dm³. Rate = ?
a. 0.012 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
b. 0.016 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
c. 0.014 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
d. 0.018 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
Explanation: Rate = k[A] = 0.0458 × 0.35 = 0.01603 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹.
A reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B. The rate equation is
a. Rate = k [A]
b. Rate = k [A][B]
c. Rate = k [A]²[B]
d. Rate = k [A][B]²
Explanation: Reaction order is sum of exponents; 1 (A) + 2 (B) = 3 overall order.
Mass of Al₂O₃ from 18.5 g Al, 4Al + 3O₂ → 2Al₂O₃
a. 30.8 g
b. 32.6 g
c. 34.9 g
d. 36.5 g
Explanation: Moles Al = 18.5/27 ≈ 0.685; ratio 4 mol Al → 2 mol Al₂O₃, so 0.685 × (2/4) = 0.3425 mol Al₂O₃; molar mass ≈ 102 g/mol → mass ≈ 32.6 g.
Work done when 1 mol gas expands from 15 dm³ to 20 dm³ at 2 atm
a. -10 atm·dm³
b. -5 atm·dm³
c. 5 atm·dm³
d. 10 atm·dm³
Explanation: W = –PΔV = –2 × (20 – 15) = –10 atm·dm³ (negative for expansion).
Ice melting at 0°C, q = 6025 J, ΔV = –0.002 dm³, 1 dm³·atm = 101.33 J
a. 6010.20 J
b. 6015.20 J
c. 6020.20 J
d. 6025.20 J
Explanation: Work = PΔV = 1 atm × (–0.002 dm³) × 101.33 = –0.20266 J; ΔE = q + w ≈ 6025 – 14.8 ≈ 6010.2 J.
Energy from 20 g carbs, 10 g protein, 9 g fat
a. 158 kcal
b. 173 kcal
c. 201 kcal
d. 218 kcal
Explanation: Carbs/protein: 4 kcal/g, fat: 9 kcal/g → 20×4 + 10×4 + 9×9 = 80 + 40 + 81 = 201 kcal ).
ΔH measured indirectly by
a. Avogadro’s law
b. Faraday’s law
c. Gas law
d. Hess’s law
Explanation: Hess’s law states enthalpy change is path-independent.
Lattice energy of KBr given data
a. -679.3
b. -669.5
c. 669.5
d. 679.3
Explanation: Born-Haber cycle sums all steps; correct magnitude positive for release → 679.3 kJ/mol.
Strong electrolyte in solution
a. Acetic acid
b. Ammonium hydroxide
c. Carbonic acid
d. Potassium iodide
Explanation: KI is fully dissociated in water.
Mg + O₂ → MgO; 4 g Mg theoretical yield MgO
a. 3.7 g
b. 4.2 g
c. 6.6 g
d. 5.4 g
Explanation: Moles Mg = 4/24.3 ≈ 0.165; molar mass MgO ≈ 40.3 → mass = 6.65 g.
Standard hydrogen electrode potential
a. -1 V
b. 0 V
c. 1 V
d. 2 V
Explanation: By definition, SHE = 0 V.
Electronegativity of Al ~ equal to
a. B
b. Be
c. Mg
d. Na
Explanation: Al (1.5 Pauling scale) ~ B (2.0) most comparable in periodic context.
Alkali metal forming only normal oxide with O₂
a. K
b. Li
c. Na
d. Rb
Explanation: Lithium forms only Li₂O; heavier alkalis form peroxides/superoxides.
Third period element forming protective oxide layer
a. Al
b. Mg
c. Na
d. Si
Explanation: Al forms an oxide layer preventing further corrosion.
Cu²⁺ blue colour due to
a. d to d orbital
b. p to d orbital
c. p to p orbital
d. s to p orbital
Explanation: Transition metals show d–d electronic transitions.
Potassium ferrocyanide is
a. Complex
b. Double
c. Mixed
d. Normal
Explanation: Contains complex ion [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻.
Name of ketone functional group
a. Amino
b. Carbonyl
c. Carboxyl
d. Formyl
Explanation: Ketones have C=O carbonyl group bonded to two carbons.
Pyridine belongs to
a. Alicyclic
b. Heterocyclic
c. Homocyclic
d. Hydrocarbon
Explanation: Pyridine has a nitrogen atom in its aromatic ring.
Element not directly detected in organic compound
a. Chlorine
b. Nitrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Phosphorus
Explanation: Oxygen detection requires indirect methods (not simple elemental analysis).
Homolytic fission of C–H in alkane gives
a. Alkyl free radical
b. Carbanion
c. Carbocation
d. Methylpropane
Explanation: Each atom takes one electron → free radicals.
HBr addition to isobutylene mainly gives
a. isobutyl bromide
b. n-butyl bromide
c. sec-butyl bromide
d. tert-butyl bromide
Explanation: Markovnikov addition favours tertiary carbocation.
Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide uses
a. Alcoholic KOH
b. Aqueous KOH
c. Conc. H₂SO₄
d. Zn dust
Explanation: Alcoholic KOH promotes elimination.
pKb of n-propyl amine
a. 3.24
b. 3.36
c. 3.32
d. 3.35
Explanation: pKb ~ 3.36, matching weak base strength.
Carbon with +ve charge and 3 groups
a. Carbanion
b. Carbene
c. Carbocation
d. Oxonium
Explanation: Carbocation = positively charged carbon with three bonds.
Highest boiling point
a. ethyl alcohol
b. isopropyl alcohol
c. n-propyl alcohol
d. tert-butyl alcohol
Explanation: Less branching → stronger intermolecular forces → higher BP.
Alcohol + sodium produces
a. Aldehyde
b. Alkoxide
c. Ethane
d. Ethene
Explanation: Sodium reacts to give alkoxide and H₂ gas.
Oxidation of secondary alcohol gives
a. Carboxylic acid
b. Ether
c. Ketone
d. Phenol
Explanation: Secondary alcohols oxidize to ketones.
More reactive aldehyde in nucleophilic addition
a. Acetaldehyde
b. Butyraldehyde
c. Formaldehyde
d. Propionaldehyde
Explanation: Formaldehyde has least steric hindrance.
Acetic acid can be prepared by hydrolysis of
a. Ethanal
b. Ethanol
c. Methanoic acid
d. Methyl cyanide
Explanation: Nitrile hydrolysis gives carboxylic acid.
Protein in haemoglobin has ______ structure.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary
Explanation: Hemoglobin = 4 polypeptide chains → quaternary structure.
In competitive inhibition, inhibitor
a. Binds with substrate
b. Competes with enzyme
c. Competes with substrate
d. Irreversibly binds enzyme
Explanation: Inhibitor binds to active site, blocking substrate.
How many moles are there in 60g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)?
1.5
4
6
8
Explanation: Molar mass = 40 g/mol. 60 / 40 = 1.5 mol
Heating 24.8 g CuCO₃ gives 13.9 g CuO. % yield = ?
a. 81.79%
b. 83.985%
c. 86.87%
d. 89.68%
Explanation: Theoretical yield from stoichiometry ≈ 17.0 g, actual / theoretical × 100.
Efficiency checked by
a. Actual yield
b. Theoretical yield
c. Percentage yield
d. Unused reactant amount
Explanation: % yield = actual/theoretical × 100.
Actual yield = theoretical when % yield =
a. 0%
b. 50%
c. 90%
d. 100%
Explanation: 100% means no loss.
Sub-shell that doesn’t exist
a. 1p
b. 1s
c. 5d
d. 6f
Explanation: n=1 has only s sub-shell.
Splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field
a. Aufbau principle
b. Pauli exclusion
c. Stark effect
d. Zeeman effect
Explanation: Zeeman effect = splitting due to magnetic field.
Element with [Kr] 5s² 4d²
a. Mo
b. Se
c. Sr
d. Zr
Explanation: Zirconium atomic number 40, configuration matches.
Total electron pairs in water’s valence shell
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Explanation: 2 bonding pairs + 2 lone pairs = 4.
Mass of 1 mole CaCO₃
a. 50 g
b. 75 g
c. 100 g
d. 125 g
Explanation: Ca (40) + C (12) + O₃ (48) = 100 g/mol.
Molecule with pyramidal structure
a. C₂H₄
b. CH₄
c. H₂O
d. NH₃
Explanation: NH₃ has trigonal pyramidal geometry due to one lone pair.

PHYSICS

A wheel makes 3 complete revolutions. What is the total number of radians through which a point on wheel has rotated?
a. 2π
b. 3π
c. 6π
d. 9π
Explanation: One revolution equals 2π radians, so 3 revolutions = 3 × 2π = 6π radians.
For rigid body that rotates about a fixed axis, the angle swept out by a line passing through any point on the body and intersecting the axis of rotation perpendicularly is called?
a. Angular acceleration
b. Angular displacement
c. Angular momentum
d. Angular velocity
Explanation: Angular displacement is the angle through which a point or line moves in a circular path about a fixed axis.
In a rotating spaceship, to produce artificial gravity, what does the centripetal force do?
a. Has no effect inside the spaceship
b. Increases spaceship’s rotation
c. Pulls objects towards the centre
d. Pushes the objects towards the outer wall
Explanation: In the rotating frame, occupants feel a centrifugal effect pushing them to the wall, simulating gravity.
When the mass of a body moving along a circle becomes half and radius becomes double, and v is constant, the centripetal force becomes?
a. Double
b. Half
c. One-fourth
d. Remains Same
Explanation: Fc=mv2rF_c = \frac{mv^2}{r}Fc=rmv2. New Fc=(m/2)v22r=14F_c = \frac{(m/2)v^2}{2r} = \frac{1}{4}Fc=2r(m/2)v2=41 of original.
What happens when two waves of the same frequency and amplitude meet in phase?
a. They cancel each other out resulting in a destructive interference
b. They combine to form a wave double the amplitude, resulting in constructive interference
c. They produce a wave with zero amplitude
d. They produce a wave with the same amplitude as the individual waves
Explanation: In-phase waves add their amplitudes, giving constructive interference.
Which type of waves can be polarized?
a. Longitudinal waves
b. Mechanical waves
c. Sound waves
d. Transverse waves
Explanation: Only transverse waves can be polarized because their vibrations are perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
For longitudinal waves _________.
a. The particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the wave’s propagation
b. The particles of the medium remain stationary as the wave passes through
c. The particles of the medium oscillate along the direction of the wave’s propagation
d. Their velocity is enhanced when they travel through vacuum
Explanation: In longitudinal waves, particle displacement is parallel to the wave direction.
According to the principle of supenmposition, when 2 or more waves overlap at a point in space, the amplitude of the resultant wave at that point is
a. Always zero
b. The product of the individual wave amplitude
c. The product of the frequencies of the individual waves
d. The sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves
Explanation: The superposition principle states the resultant displacement is the algebraic sum of individual displacements.
The speed of sound in a medium containing ideal gas is NOT dependent on
a. Density
b. Moisture
c. Pressure
d. Temperature
Explanation: For an ideal gas, speed of sound depends on temperature, not pressure.
A tuning fork having angular frequency equal 440Hz produces sound waves which travel with the speed of 340 m/s. What is the separation between a compression and the adjacent rarefaction of the sound waves?
a. 0.57 m
b. 0,67 m
c. 0.77 m
d. 0385 m
Explanation: Wavelength λ = v/f = 340/440 ≈ 0.77 m; compression to adjacent rarefaction is λ/2 ≈ 0.385 m. )
A police car, with its siren on, is moving towards a stationary listener. How does the stationary listener receive the frequency of the sound emitted by the siren? It
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Stays the same
d. Varies randomly
Explanation: Due to Doppler effect, frequency increases when the source moves toward the listener.
In an adiabatic process, how does the temperature of a gas change as its volume decreases?
a. The temperature decreases
b. The temperature increases
c. The temperature remains constant
d. The temperature first increases then decreases
Explanation: In adiabatic compression, no heat is lost, so work done on gas increases its temperature.
During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which of the following statement is true?
a. Pressure and temperature of the gas increase
b. The internal energy of the gas increases
c. The temperature of the gas remains constant
d. The work done by the gas is zero
Explanation: Isothermal means constant temperature; internal energy stays constant, heat equals work.
Consider an ideal gas confined to the cylinder with a fixed piston, on heating the gas. all the heat supplied increases
a. Kinetic energy of the molecules
b. Potential Energy of the molecules
c. The intermolecular forces between gas molecules
d. The number of gas molecules
Explanation: For an ideal gas, internal energy is purely kinetic.
What is the increase in force between two charges if the separation between them is decreased by 50 percent?
a. Becomes four times
b. Doubles
c. Increases by half
d. Triples
Explanation: Coulomb’s law: F ∝ 1/r²; halving r makes force 4×.
According to Coulomb’s (aw, what happens to the electrostatic force between the 2-point charges if the distance between them is doubled?
a. The force becomes one-fourth
b. The force becomes half
c. The force doubles
d. The force remains the same
Explanation: Doubling r reduces force to 1/4.
What does one Coulomb represent in terms of charge?
a. The amount of charge transported by a current of 1 Ampere in 1 second
b. The charge of 1 proton
c. The charge of 1 electron
d. The charge required to create a force of 1 Newton between two charges separated by 1 meter
Explanation: 1 C = 1 A × 1 s.
Two points charges, +5μC and -5|JC are placed at points A and BT respectively, which are separated by a distance 2d. What is the electric potential at the midpoint M of the line joining A and B?
a. 2kQ/d
b. kQ/d
c. -kQ/d
d. zero
Explanation: Potentials from equal and opposite charges cancel at the midpoint.
In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the two plates is reduced to half and the area of the plate doubled, the capacitance
a. Increases four times
b. Increases six times
c. Is doubled
d. Remains the same
Explanation: C ∝ A/d, so change = (2)/(0.5) = 4×.

If the dielectric material between the plates of the capacitor is removed, what happens to the electric field between the plates?
a. The electric field becomes zero
b. The electric field decreases
c. The electric field increases
d. The electric field remains the same
Explanation: Removing the dielectric increases the electric field because the dielectric reduces the effective field inside the capacitor.
Capacitance of a capacitor increases with a decrease in:
a. Dielectric constant
b. Plate area
c. Permittivity
d. Plate separation
Explanation: C∝AdC \propto \frac{A}{d}C∝dA, so decreasing separation increases capacitance.
The l-V Graph for a non-Ohmic material is always
a. Curved
b. Horizontal
c. Linear
d. Perpendicular
Explanation: Non-ohmic materials do not follow Ohm’s law, so I–V is non-linear.
Temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as increase in resistance per ohm original resistance per ______?
a. Degree rise in temperature
b. Unit increase in electric current
c. Unit decrease in capacitance
d. Degree drop in temperature
Explanation: It is measured per °C increase in temperature.
For metals, the temperature coefficient of resistance is:
a. Infinity
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. Zero
Explanation: Resistance of metals increases with temperature.
If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistance of a 100-Watt bulb and 200-Watt bulb designed to operate on the same voltage, then power of:
a. R1 is two times R2
b. R2 is two times R1
c. R2 is four times R1
d. R1 is four times R2
Explanation: R=V2PR = \frac{V^2}{P}R=PV2; for same voltage, R ∝ 1/P, so 100 W bulb has twice the resistance of 200 W bulb.
The maximum power transfer theorem states that maximum power is delivered to the load when
a. The load resistance is half of the source resistance
b. The load resistance is zero
c. The load resistance is double the source resistance
d. The load resistance is equal to the source resistance
Explanation: Maximum power transfer occurs when RL=RSR_L = R_SRL=RS.
Electron Volt (eV) is another unit of
a. Charge
b. Current
c. Energy
d. Power
Explanation: 1 eV is the energy gained by an electron accelerated through 1 volt.
An electron is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, which of the following is correct statement about electromagnetic force acting on the electron?
a. Force acting is equal to electron charge
b. Force acting is equal to the magnetic field strength
c. Force acting is maximum
d. Zero force is acting on it
Explanation: F=qvBsin⁡θF = qvB\sin\thetaF=qvBsinθ; maximum at 90°.
For a positive charged particle (q) moving with a velocity (v) in a magnetic Filed of flux density B, the force (F) acting on the charge particle is given by the expression?
a. q = Fv × B
b. F = qv × B
c. F = v × B/q
d. q = v × B/F
Explanation: Lorentz force law for a particle moving in a magnetic field.
When the PN junction is reverse-biased, its reverse current is of the order of:
a. Gigaamperes
b. Kiloamperes
c. Megaamperes
d. Microamperes
Explanation: Reverse leakage current is very small, in microampere range.
The momentum of moving photon is:
a. mcz
b. λ/h
c. h / λ
d. zero
Explanation: Photon momentum p=hλp = \frac{h}{\lambda}p=λh.
In every instant of time, wavelength associated with a freely falling body:
a. Decreases
b. Increases two times
c. Increases four times
d. Remains constant
Explanation: As velocity increases, de Broglie wavelength decreases.
As per 2nd photoelectric experiment, photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency of the incident light is?
a. Below the threshold frequency
b. Equals the threshold frequency
c. Three times the threshold frequency
d. Twice the threshold frequency
Explanation: Below threshold frequency, photons lack enough energy to eject electrons.
If an electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from second to first orbit, the emitted radiation has a wavelength of?
a. 4/3RH
b. 3/4RH
c. RH
d. 4RH
Explanation: Energy difference corresponds to 34RH\frac{3}{4}R_H43RH in wavelength formula.
Black body is an ideal radiator that radiates __________ at all wavelengths
a. Inconsistently
b. Distinctly
c. Equally
d. Unequally
Explanation: A perfect black body emits equally at all wavelengths at a given temperature.
Mass number A refers to _____
a. Number of electrons
b. Number of nucleons
c. Number of neutrons
d. Number of protons
Explanation: Nucleons = protons + neutrons.
λ is a _______ constant:
a. Decay
b. Dielectric
c. Plank’s
d. Proportionality
Explanation: λ represents decay constant in radioactivity.
Gamma ray camera can observe radiations from the ______ that are concentrated in the organs
a. Atoms
b. Isotopes
c. Nucleons
d. Neutrons
Explanation: Radioisotopes emit gamma rays detectable by such cameras.
A car is moving in a circular path at a constant speed. What provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the car moving in this path?
a. The car’s inertia resisting any change in direction
b. The car’s mass pulling it towards the centre of the circle
c. The engine’s power pushing the car forward
d. The friction between the tyres and the road
Explanation: Friction supplies the centripetal force for circular motion.
Which of the following pairs correctly matches a physical quantity with its SI unit?
a. Energy- Newton
b. Force – Joule
c. Power- Watt
d. Velocity-m/s2
Explanation: Watt is the SI unit of power.
_______ is the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with constant velocity?
a. Friction
b. Inertia
c. Mass
d. Weight
Explanation: Inertia resists changes in motion.
A car in motion hits and gets crashed into a tree trunk, what is NOT conserved?
a. Kinetic energy alone
b. Momentum alone
c. Momentum and kinetic energy both
d. Neither kinetic energy nor momentum
Explanation: In an inelastic collision with external forces, both are not conserved.
The vertical and horizontal component of the projectile motion are
a. Correlated with each other
b. Dependent on each other
c. Independent of each other
d. Associated with each other
Explanation: They act independently—gravity affects only vertical motion.
A ball is kicked horizontally from the top of a 10m high cliff with an initial speed of 15m/s. After 2 seconds, which of the following statement describes the ball’s horizontal and vertical components?
a. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards
b. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 15m/s downwards
c. The horizontal velocity is 30m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards
d. The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is Om/s
Explanation: Horizontal velocity stays 15 m/s; vertical velocity after 2 s = g × t = 9.8 × 2 ≈ 20 m/s downward.
How does an angle between the force applied and the direction of motion influence the work done on an object?
a. Work is constant regardless of the angle
b. Work is maximum when the angle is 0°
c. Work is negative when the angle is 90°
d. Work is 0 when the angle is 45°
Explanation: Work = Fd cosθ; maximum at θ = 0°.
A nurse is pushing a wheelchair with an 80kg patient sitting on it. How much work is done by the patient’s weight?
a. Half of the work
b. Maximum work £
c. Minimum work
d. No work
Explanation: Weight acts vertically; motion is horizontal, so no work done by weight.
If a constant force of 10N is applied to move an object 5m in the direction of the force, what is the work done?
a. 2 J
b. 5 J
c. 15 J
d. 50 J
Explanation: W = F × d = 10 × 5 = 50 J.
The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on:
a. Angle on which it is thrown
b. Both mass of the body and the angle at which it is thrown
c. Mass of earth
d. Mass of the body
Explanation: ve=SQRT(2GME/REv_e) = depends on Earth’s mass and radius, not body’s mass or launch angle.

ENGLISH

Choose the sentence with the correct tense and sentence structure:
a. He is going to the market yesterday.
b. I had been waiting for the bus, and it arrives.
c. She will finish her homework before she went to bed.
d. They were playing football when it started to rain.
Explanation: Past continuous + simple past correctly describe an ongoing action interrupted by another past action.
Choose the correct sentence.
a. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
b. My father is talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle.
c. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fell from the bicycle.
d. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I am falling from the bicycle.
Explanation: Both verbs should be in past tense to match the narrative.
Choose the correct sentence:
a. She didn’t knew about the surprise party.
b. She hasn’t knew about the surprise party.
c. She didn’t know about the surprise party.
d. She doesn’t knew about the surprise party.
Explanation: After “didn’t,” the base form of the verb (“know”) is used.
After she ________ the stairs, her heart almost gave out from exhaustion.
a. Has climbed
b. Have climbed
c. Had climbed
d. Was climbing
Explanation: Past perfect is used to show the earlier past action.
Correct punctuation: The teacher asked did you complete your homework
a. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework?
b. The teacher asked, “Did you complete your homework?”
c. The teacher asked, “did you complete your homework”.
d. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework.
Explanation: Direct speech needs quotation marks and correct capitalization.
Correct punctuation: Lets meet at Sarahs house after school
a. Let’s meet at Sarah’s house after school.
b. Let’s meet at Sarahs’ house after school,
c. Lets meet at Sarah’s house after school.
d. Lets meet, at Sarah’s house after school,
Explanation: “Let’s” = let us; “Sarah’s” = possessive.
Do you usually take a bus _________ the market?
a. By
b. For
c. Of
d. To
Explanation: Correct preposition for destination is “to.”
He has been working _______ this project for two
a. At
b. By
c. To
d. On
Explanation: “Work on a project” is the correct collocation.
Sentence with an error in style/vocabulary/word order:
a. He has a talent for solving complex problems.
b. She enjoys reading, writing, and to paint.
c. The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog.
d. They quickly adapted to the new environment.
Explanation: Parallel structure error — “reading, writing, and painting” is correct.
Error in: The chef quickly prepared, delicious and it served a meal.
a. Punctuation
b. Style
c. Vocabulary
d. Word order
Explanation: The correct order: “The chef quickly prepared a delicious meal and served it.”
Order is the law of civilization as chaos is the law of the ______.
a. City
b. Metropolis
c. Universe
d. Wilderness
Explanation: “Wilderness” contrasts with civilization.
Blueprint is to architect as algorithm is to _____
a. Designer
b. Engineer
c. Physician
d. Programmer
Explanation: Architect uses blueprint; programmer uses algorithm.
Inference from paragraph:
a. Busy schedules and lack of motivation are barriers to regular exercise.
b. Chronic diseases cannot be prevented by regular exercise.
c. Exercise is only beneficial for physical health, not mental health.
d. People who exercise regularly never experience stress or anxiety.
Explanation: The passage states busy schedules/lack of motivation as reasons for irregular exercise.
Synonym for “meticulous”:
a. Abhorrent
b. Heedless
c. Incautious
d. Precise
Explanation: “Meticulous” = very careful and exact.
A person who sells goods and services is a _______.
a. Consumer
b. Purchaser
c. Patron
d. Vendor
Explanation: A vendor sells goods; others are buyers/customers.
“Subtle” most likely means:
a. Dramatic
b. Notable
c. Obvious
d. Slight
Explanation: “Subtle” = delicate, not obvious.
Despite the complicated situation, she remained _______.
a. Composed
b. Erratic
c. Frantic
d. Hysterical
Explanation: “Composed” means calm and self-controlled.
Synonym of “Elated”:
a. Confused
b. Disappointed
c. Nervous
d. Overjoyed
Explanation: “Elated” = extremely happy.

LOGICAL REASONING

Cause–effect relation about Sara’s productivity and nearby construction:
a. Sara’s decreased productivity is causing the construction work.
b. The ongoing construction work is causing Sara’s decreased productivity.
c. Sara’s productivity was already decreasing before the construction work began.
d. The construction work is unrelated to Sara’s productivity.
Explanation: Frequent interruptions (cause) plausibly reduce productivity (effect).
After a 10% discount, price = Rs. 450. Original price?
a. Rs. 490
b. Rs. 495
c. Rs. 500
d. Rs. 505
Explanation: 450 = 90% of original ⇒ Original = 450 / 0.90 = 500.
Walks: +10E, +15N, –12W, –15S. Distance from start?
a. 0 m
b. 1 m
c. 2 m
d. 3 m
Explanation: Final x = 10 − 12 = −2; y returns to 0 ⇒ 2 m west of start.
If a > b, b > c, and d > a, then?
a. b < d
b. a < c
c. b > d
d. c > d
Explanation: Order is d > a > b > c, so b < d is true.
Sequence: 15, 14, 12, 9, ?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Explanation: Differences −1, −2, −3, next −4 ⇒ 9 − 4 = 5.
All omnivores ⊆ herbivores; no herbivores are carnivores; some carnivores are humans. True conclusions?
a. I and II
b. I and
c. II and
d. III
Explanation: I: Some humans are carnivores (given) — true. II: No carnivores are omnivores (since omnivores ⊆ herbivores, and herbivores disjoint from carnivores) — true. III is false.

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BIOLOGY

CHEMISTRY

ENGLISH SECTION

Logical Reasoning

BIOLOGY

CHEMISTRY

PHYSICS

ENGLISH

LOGICAL REASONING

Khyber Medical University-MDCAT 2024

BIOLOGY

CHEMISTRY

PHYSICS

ENGLISH

LOGICAL REASONING

Ikram Malik