Federal Investigation Agency (FIA) Updates & Study Material
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA) Updates & Study Material
CIVIL SERVANTS ACT, 1973 AND RULES MADE THEREUNDER
THE CIVIL SERVANTS ACT, 1973 — PRELIMINARY AND DEFINITIONS
1. The Civil Servants Act, 1973 is:
a) Act No. LI of 1973
b) Act No. LXXI of 1973
c) Act No. XIV of 1973
d) Act No. XXI of 1973
Answer: b) Act No. LXXI of 1973
2. The Civil Servants Act, 1973 extends to:
a) Punjab and Sindh only
b) The whole of Pakistan
c) Federal Secretariat only
d) The Federal Capital only
Answer: b) The whole of Pakistan
3. The Act applies to every civil servant:
a) Working in Ministries only
b) Posted at Islamabad only
c) Wherever he may be
d) In BS-17 and above only
Answer: c) Wherever he may be
4. Definitions under the Civil Servants Act, 1973 are given in:
a) Section 1
b) Section 2
c) Section 3
d) Section 4
Answer: b) Section 2
5. The Civil Servants Act, 1973 repealed the:
a) Government Servants Ordinance, 1971
b) Civil Servants Ordinance, 1973
c) Public Servants Act, 1962
d) Services Reorganization Act, 1969
Answer: b) Civil Servants Ordinance, 1973
6. A person on deputation to Pakistan from a foreign government is:
a) A civil servant
b) Not a civil servant
c) A civil servant after two years
d) A civil servant if in BS-17
Answer: b) Not a civil servant
7. A person employed on contract basis is:
a) A permanent employee
b) A civil servant
c) Not a civil servant
d) A probationer
Answer: c) Not a civil servant
8. A person employed on work-charged basis is:
a) A temporary civil servant
b) An ad hoc civil servant
c) A civil servant
d) Not a civil servant
Answer: d) Not a civil servant
9. A person who is paid from contingencies is:
a) Not a civil servant
b) A temporary civil servant
c) A confirmed civil servant
d) A civil servant
Answer: a) Not a civil servant
10. “Initial appointment” means appointment made:
a) By transfer
b) Otherwise than by promotion or transfer
c) On acting charge basis
d) By promotion
Answer: b) Otherwise than by promotion or transfer
11. A “permanent post” means a post sanctioned:
a) For one year
b) For three years
c) Without limit of time
d) For the duration of a project
Answer: c) Without limit of time
12. A “temporary post” means:
a) An ad hoc post
b) A post in BS-1 to BS-4
c) A post sanctioned without limit of time
d) A post other than a permanent post
Answer: d) A post other than a permanent post
13. The word “prescribed” in the Act means prescribed by:
a) Rules
b) The Cabinet
c) Parliament
d) The President
Answer: a) Rules
14. “Government” for the purposes of the Civil Servants Act, 1973 means:
a) Provincial Government
b) Federal Government
c) Local Government
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: b) Federal Government
15. A “worker” or “workman” as defined in the Factories Act or the Workmen’s Compensation Act is:
a) A contract civil servant
b) A civil servant
c) Not a civil servant
d) A temporary civil servant
Answer: c) Not a civil servant
16. “Pay” as defined in the Act means the amount drawn monthly by a civil servant as:
a) All emoluments including allowances
b) Pay plus house rent
c) Only basic pay
d) Pay other than special pay or allowances
Answer: d) Pay other than special pay or allowances
17. “Selection post” and “non-selection post” are:
a) As may be prescribed
b) Defined by the FPSC
c) Defined by the Cabinet
d) Defined in the Constitution
Answer: a) As may be prescribed
18. An “ad hoc appointment” is an appointment made:
a) On a regular basis
b) On a temporary basis pending regular appointment
c) By promotion only
d) Permanently
Answer: b) On a temporary basis pending regular appointment
19. The Civil Servants Act, 1973 is a law relating to:
a) Land revenue
b) Local government
c) Terms and conditions of service of persons in the service of Pakistan
d) Municipal administration
Answer: c) Terms and conditions of service of persons in the service of Pakistan
20. Terms and conditions of service of a civil servant are dealt with in:
a) Section 3
b) Section 5
c) Section 7
d) Section 9
Answer: a) Section 3
21. Under the Act, a person appointed to a civil post connected with the affairs of the Federation is:
a) A civil servant
b) Not a civil servant
c) A public representative
d) A contract holder
Answer: a) A civil servant
22. The terms and conditions of service of a civil servant may be varied by:
a) The civil servant himself
b) Government, by law or rules
c) A court decree only
d) The departmental promotion committee
Answer: b) Government, by law or rules
TENURE, APPOINTMENT, PROBATION AND CONFIRMATION
23. Under Section 4, every civil servant holds office during the pleasure of:
a) The Establishment Division
b) The Prime Minister
c) The President
d) The Cabinet
Answer: c) The President
24. Tenure of office of civil servants is dealt with in:
a) Section 1
b) Section 2
c) Section 3
d) Section 4
Answer: d) Section 4
25. Appointments under the Civil Servants Act, 1973 are dealt with in:
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d) Section 8
Answer: a) Section 5
26. Probation is dealt with in:
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d) Section 8
Answer: b) Section 6
27. Confirmation of a civil servant is dealt with in:
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d) Section 8
Answer: c) Section 7
28. Seniority of civil servants is dealt with in:
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d) Section 8
Answer: d) Section 8
29. Promotion of civil servants is dealt with in:
a) Section 9
b) Section 10
c) Section 11
d) Section 12
Answer: a) Section 9
30. Posting and transfer of civil servants is dealt with in:
a) Section 9
b) Section 10
c) Section 11
d) Section 12
Answer: b) Section 10
31. Termination of service is dealt with in:
a) Section 9
b) Section 10
c) Section 11
d) Section 12
Answer: c) Section 11
32. Reversion to a lower post is dealt with in:
a) Section 9
b) Section 10
c) Section 11
d) Section 12
Answer: d) Section 12
33. Retirement from service is dealt with in:
a) Section 13
b) Section 14
c) Section 15
d) Section 16
Answer: a) Section 13
34. Employment after retirement is dealt with in:
a) Section 13
b) Section 14
c) Section 15
d) Section 16
Answer: b) Section 14
35. Conduct of civil servants is dealt with in:
a) Section 13
b) Section 14
c) Section 15
d) Section 16
Answer: c) Section 15
36. Disciplinary action against a civil servant is dealt with in:
a) Section 13
b) Section 14
c) Section 15
d) Section 16
Answer: d) Section 16
37. Pay of a civil servant is dealt with in:
a) Section 17
b) Section 18
c) Section 19
d) Section 20
Answer: a) Section 17
38. Leave of a civil servant is dealt with in:
a) Section 17
b) Section 18
c) Section 19
d) Section 20
Answer: b) Section 18
39. Pension and gratuity are dealt with in:
a) Section 17
b) Section 18
c) Section 19
d) Section 20
Answer: c) Section 19
40. Provident Fund is dealt with in:
a) Section 17
b) Section 18
c) Section 19
d) Section 20
Answer: d) Section 20
41. Benevolent Fund and Group Insurance are dealt with in:
a) Section 21
b) Section 22
c) Section 23
d) Section 24
Answer: a) Section 21
42. Right of appeal or representation is dealt with in:
a) Section 22
b) Section 23
c) Section 24
d) Section 25
Answer: b) Section 23
43. The power of the Federal Government to make rules under the Act is contained in:
a) Section 23
b) Section 24
c) Section 25
d) Section 26
Answer: c) Section 25
44. A person appointed on initial appointment to a service or post is normally placed on:
a) Acting charge
b) Deputation
c) Permanent status
d) Probation
Answer: d) Probation
45. The period of probation of a civil servant is:
a) Such period as may be prescribed
b) Fixed by the civil servant
c) Always one year
d) Always two years
Answer: a) Such period as may be prescribed
46. The period of probation may be:
a) Never extended
b) Extended by the competent authority
c) Extended only by the President
d) Extended only by a court
Answer: b) Extended by the competent authority
47. If, during the period of probation, the performance of a civil servant is unsatisfactory, the competent authority may:
a) Grant him leave
b) Confirm him immediately
c) Dispense with his services or revert him to his former post
d) Promote him
Answer: c) Dispense with his services or revert him to his former post
48. A civil servant is confirmed in a service or post when he:
a) Passes the departmental examination only
b) Attains the age of 45 years
c) Completes ten years of service
d) Satisfactorily completes his probation and fulfils prescribed conditions
Answer: d) Satisfactorily completes his probation and fulfils prescribed conditions
49. Confirmation of a civil servant in a service or cadre is made:
a) Only once in that service or cadre
b) Every five years
c) At the time of retirement
d) Twice in service
Answer: a) Only once in that service or cadre
50. There shall be no confirmation against a:
a) Permanent post
b) Temporary post
c) Selection post
d) Cadre post
Answer: b) Temporary post
51. An officiating or ad hoc appointment does not confer any:
a) Obligation of conduct
b) Duty to serve
c) Vested right to the post
d) Liability to transfer
Answer: c) Vested right to the post
52. Appointments to civil posts are made in the manner:
a) Fixed by the Senate
b) Determined by the district administration
c) Decided by the candidate
d) Prescribed by rules
Answer: d) Prescribed by rules
SENIORITY, PROMOTION, POSTING AND TRANSFER
53. Seniority of a civil servant in a service, cadre or post is reckoned from the date of his:
a) Regular appointment to that service, cadre or post
b) First interview
c) Joining the training academy
d) Date of birth
Answer: a) Regular appointment to that service, cadre or post
54. Seniority inter se of civil servants appointed by initial appointment is determined by:
a) Alphabetical order of names
b) The order of merit assigned by the selection authority
c) Date of birth alone
d) Domicile
Answer: b) The order of merit assigned by the selection authority
55. Where two civil servants are appointed on the same date and hold equal merit position, seniority is generally determined by:
a) Domicile
b) Educational qualification
c) Date of birth, the elder being senior
d) Alphabetical order
Answer: c) Date of birth, the elder being senior
56. Persons appointed by promotion rank senior to those appointed by:
a) Deputation
b) Contract
c) Transfer
d) Initial appointment in the same year
Answer: d) Initial appointment in the same year
57. A civil servant possessing the prescribed minimum qualifications is eligible for promotion to a higher post:
a) Reserved for departmental promotion in the service or cadre
b) Only after 30 years of service
c) Only with a court order
d) As a matter of right
Answer: a) Reserved for departmental promotion in the service or cadre
58. Promotion to a selection post is made on the basis of:
a) Seniority alone
b) Selection on merit
c) Date of birth
d) Domicile quota
Answer: b) Selection on merit
59. Promotion to a non-selection post is made on the basis of:
a) Interview only
b) Merit alone
c) Seniority-cum-fitness
d) Written test only
Answer: c) Seniority-cum-fitness
60. A civil servant:
a) Is promoted automatically every five years
b) Is promoted on request
c) Has a vested right to promotion
d) Has no vested right to promotion
Answer: d) Has no vested right to promotion
61. Promotion or transfer to a post carrying a higher pay scale on acting charge basis does not confer any:
a) Vested right to regular promotion
b) Liability to transfer
c) Obligation of good conduct
d) Duty to perform
Answer: a) Vested right to regular promotion
62. Under Section 10, every civil servant is liable to serve:
a) Only in his home district
b) Anywhere within or outside Pakistan
c) Only in the Federal Capital
d) Only in his own department
Answer: b) Anywhere within or outside Pakistan
63. A civil servant may be transferred to serve under:
a) Only a foreign mission
b) Only his parent department
c) A Provincial Government, local authority or corporation set up by Government
d) Only a private firm
Answer: c) A Provincial Government, local authority or corporation set up by Government
64. No civil servant shall be ordinarily transferred from a post to a post carrying:
a) The same pay scale
b) Any pay scale
c) Higher pay scale
d) Lower pay scale
Answer: d) Lower pay scale
65. Efficiency and discipline of a civil servant on transfer to another organisation are governed by:
a) Rules of the borrowing organisation as prescribed
b) No rules at all
c) The Constitution only
d) Local bye-laws
Answer: a) Rules of the borrowing organisation as prescribed
66. A civil servant appointed on acting charge basis to a higher post draws:
a) No pay of the higher post
b) The pay of the higher post as admissible under the rules
c) Double pay
d) Half pay
Answer: b) The pay of the higher post as admissible under the rules
67. Current charge of a higher post is normally given for a period:
a) Until retirement
b) Of unlimited duration
c) Specified under the rules pending regular arrangements
d) Of ten years
Answer: c) Specified under the rules pending regular arrangements
TERMINATION, REVERSION, RETIREMENT AND RE-EMPLOYMENT
68. The service of a civil servant may be terminated without notice during:
a) Leave preparatory to retirement
b) Deputation abroad
c) Confirmed service
d) The period of probation
Answer: d) The period of probation
69. Where a post held by a civil servant on temporary basis is abolished, his service may be terminated after notice of:
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) Twelve months
d) One month
Answer: a) Three months
70. In lieu of the notice period on termination, a civil servant may be paid:
a) Nothing
b) Pay in lieu of the notice period
c) Double pay
d) Pension only
Answer: b) Pay in lieu of the notice period
71. Absorption of civil servants rendered surplus is dealt with in:
a) Section 11
b) Section 11-A
c) Section 12
d) Section 13
Answer: b) Section 11-A
72. A civil servant may be reverted to a lower post under:
a) Section 9
b) Section 10
c) Section 11
d) Section 12
Answer: d) Section 12
73. The age of compulsory retirement of a civil servant is:
a) 58 years
b) 60 years
c) 62 years
d) 65 years
Answer: b) 60 years
74. Government may retire a civil servant in the public interest after he has completed qualifying service of:
a) 20 years
b) 25 years
c) 30 years
d) 35 years
Answer: b) 25 years
75. A civil servant may seek retirement from service after completing qualifying service of:
a) 15 years
b) 20 years
c) 25 years
d) 30 years
Answer: c) 25 years
76. Retirement of a civil servant on attaining the prescribed age is:
a) At the discretion of the officer
b) Subject to court approval
c) Optional
d) Compulsory
Answer: d) Compulsory
77. Under Section 14, a retired civil servant seeking employment with a firm with which he had official dealings must obtain prior approval within:
a) Two years of retirement
b) Five years of retirement
c) Ten years of retirement
d) One year of retirement
Answer: a) Two years of retirement
78. Re-employment of a retired civil servant requires:
a) No approval
b) Prior approval of the competent authority
c) Approval of the Senate
d) Approval of the district court
Answer: b) Prior approval of the competent authority
79. A civil servant who is dismissed or removed from service is:
a) Entitled to gratuity only
b) Entitled to full pension
c) Not entitled to pension or gratuity
d) Entitled to double pension
Answer: c) Not entitled to pension or gratuity
80. Pension of a civil servant may be withheld if he is convicted of an offence involving:
a) A civil dispute
b) A property matter
c) A traffic violation
d) Moral turpitude
Answer: d) Moral turpitude
81. The competent authority may retire a civil servant from service in the public interest:
a) Without recording reasons in the order
b) Only after a judicial trial
c) Only with the consent of the officer
d) Only after 35 years of service
Answer: a) Without recording reasons in the order
82. On abolition of a permanent post, the civil servant holding it may be:
a) Dismissed immediately
b) Adjusted against another post or dealt with under the surplus provisions
c) Given double pension
d) Sent on deputation abroad
Answer: b) Adjusted against another post or dealt with under the surplus provisions
PAY, LEAVE, PENSION, FUNDS AND RIGHT OF APPEAL
83. A civil servant appointed to a post is entitled to the pay:
a) Of his previous post
b) Demanded by him
c) Sanctioned for that post
d) Of the next higher post
Answer: c) Sanctioned for that post
84. Leave of a civil servant is admissible:
a) Only on medical grounds
b) Only after ten years of service
c) As a matter of right
d) In accordance with the rules applicable to him
Answer: d) In accordance with the rules applicable to him
85. Leave cannot be claimed:
a) As a matter of right
b) Under any circumstances
c) After confirmation
d) During probation
Answer: a) As a matter of right
86. Pension and gratuity of a civil servant are regulated by:
a) The Constitution
b) Rules made under the Act
c) Local bye-laws
d) Departmental circulars only
Answer: b) Rules made under the Act
87. The Federal Employees Benevolent Fund and Group Insurance is provided for in:
a) Section 19
b) Section 20
c) Section 21
d) Section 22
Answer: c) Section 21
88. Where no appeal lies against an order, a civil servant may submit:
a) A resignation
b) A complaint to the police
c) A writ petition only
d) A representation to the prescribed authority
Answer: d) A representation to the prescribed authority
89. The right of appeal or representation is guaranteed to a civil servant under:
a) Section 23
b) Section 24
c) Section 25
d) Section 26
Answer: a) Section 23
90. Rules under the Civil Servants Act, 1973 are made by:
a) The President alone
b) The Federal Government or an authorised person
c) The Supreme Court
d) The Senate
Answer: b) The Federal Government or an authorised person
91. Orders, rules or notifications in force before the commencement of the Act, so far as not inconsistent with it, are:
a) Repealed automatically
b) Void
c) Continued in force
d) Suspended
Answer: c) Continued in force
92. Service disputes of civil servants are ordinarily adjudicated by:
a) A magistrate
b) The district council
c) A civil court
d) The Federal Service Tribunal
Answer: d) The Federal Service Tribunal
93. The Federal Service Tribunal was established under the:
a) Civil Servants Act, 1973
b) Service Tribunals Act, 1973
c) Rules of Business, 1973
d) Constitution of 1962
Answer: b) Service Tribunals Act, 1973
94. An appeal to the Service Tribunal must ordinarily be filed within:
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 60 days
d) 90 days
Answer: b) 30 days
95. A departmental appeal against an original order is ordinarily filed within:
a) 7 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 90 days
Answer: c) 30 days
96. Where a departmental representation is not decided, an aggrieved civil servant may approach the Tribunal after:
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 180 days
Answer: c) 90 days
97. Provident Fund of a civil servant is dealt with in:
a) Section 20
b) Section 21
c) Section 22
d) Section 23
Answer: a) Section 20
CIVIL SERVANTS (APPOINTMENT, PROMOTION AND TRANSFER) RULES, 1973
98. The Civil Servants (Appointment, Promotion and Transfer) Rules were framed in:
a) 1964
b) 1973
c) 1980
d) 1993
Answer: b) 1973
99. The APT Rules, 1973 were made under which section of the Civil Servants Act, 1973?
a) Section 15
b) Section 20
c) Section 25
d) Section 26
Answer: c) Section 25
100. Under the APT Rules, appointments to posts in BS-16 and above are made by:
a) The head of the attached department
b) The district officer
c) The Provincial Government
d) The Federal Government
Answer: d) The Federal Government
101. Appointments to posts in BS-1 to BS-15 are made by the authorities specified in:
a) The Schedule to the APT Rules
b) The Rules of Business
c) The Finance Act
d) The Constitution
Answer: a) The Schedule to the APT Rules
102. Under the APT Rules, the methods of appointment are:
a) Deputation and secondment only
b) Promotion, transfer and initial appointment
c) Nomination and election
d) Contract and daily wages
Answer: b) Promotion, transfer and initial appointment
103. Initial appointment to posts in BS-16 and above is ordinarily made on the basis of:
a) Nomination by the Secretary
b) Departmental seniority
c) Examination or test conducted by the FPSC
d) Interview by the Minister
Answer: c) Examination or test conducted by the FPSC
104. Initial appointment to posts in BS-1 to BS-15 is made on the recommendation of:
a) The Central Selection Board
b) The Cabinet
c) The FPSC
d) The Departmental Selection Committee
Answer: d) The Departmental Selection Committee
105. Promotion to posts in BS-19, BS-20 and BS-21 is considered by the:
a) Central Selection Board
b) Federal Public Service Commission
c) Cabinet Committee
d) Departmental Promotion Committee
Answer: a) Central Selection Board
106. Promotion to posts in BS-18 and below is considered by the:
a) Central Selection Board
b) Departmental Promotion Committee
c) Senate Committee
d) Service Tribunal
Answer: b) Departmental Promotion Committee
107. The Central Selection Board is headed by the:
a) Cabinet Secretary
b) Secretary Establishment Division
c) Chairman of the Federal Public Service Commission
d) Prime Minister
Answer: c) Chairman of the Federal Public Service Commission
108. Recommendations of the Central Selection Board for promotion are approved by the:
a) Chief Justice
b) Chairman FPSC
c) Establishment Secretary
d) Prime Minister
Answer: d) Prime Minister
109. The prescribed minimum length of service for promotion to BS-18 is:
a) 3 years in BS-17
b) 5 years in BS-17
c) 8 years in BS-17
d) 12 years in BS-17
Answer: b) 5 years in BS-17
110. The prescribed minimum length of service for promotion to BS-19 is:
a) 5 years
b) 8 years
c) 12 years
d) 17 years
Answer: c) 12 years
111. The prescribed minimum length of service for promotion to BS-20 is:
a) 12 years
b) 15 years
c) 17 years
d) 22 years
Answer: c) 17 years
112. The prescribed minimum length of service for promotion to BS-21 is:
a) 17 years
b) 20 years
c) 22 years
d) 25 years
Answer: c) 22 years
113. An officer must be on the promotion list and possess the prescribed length of service reckoned from the date of:
a) Regular appointment in BS-17 and above
b) Passing the CSS examination
c) Confirmation only
d) Date of birth
Answer: a) Regular appointment in BS-17 and above
114. Under the APT Rules, an ad hoc appointment is made:
a) Permanently
b) To meet an urgent requirement pending regular appointment
c) On the basis of seniority alone
d) Only for BS-22 posts
Answer: b) To meet an urgent requirement pending regular appointment
115. An ad hoc appointment does not confer any right to:
a) Be transferred
b) Draw pay
c) Regular appointment to the post
d) Take leave
Answer: c) Regular appointment to the post
116. Where an officer is appointed to hold current charge of a higher post, he:
a) Is deemed promoted
b) Becomes senior to all officers of that grade
c) Draws the pay of the higher post
d) Performs the duties of the higher post in addition to his own
Answer: d) Performs the duties of the higher post in addition to his own
117. An acting charge appointment is made where an officer:
a) Does not possess the prescribed length of service but is otherwise eligible
b) Is under suspension
c) Is on leave
d) Has no qualification at all
Answer: a) Does not possess the prescribed length of service but is otherwise eligible
118. Under the APT Rules, a probationer who fails to pass the prescribed departmental examination may be:
a) Confirmed at once
b) Discharged, reverted or granted extension as prescribed
c) Promoted
d) Sent abroad
Answer: b) Discharged, reverted or granted extension as prescribed
119. Deputation of a civil servant to another department or organisation requires:
a) Approval of the Senate
b) No consent
c) Consent of the lending and borrowing organisations
d) A court order
Answer: c) Consent of the lending and borrowing organisations
120. Relaxation of the upper age limit for initial appointment may be allowed by:
a) The Service Tribunal
b) The Auditor General
c) The candidate himself
d) The competent authority in accordance with the rules
Answer: d) The competent authority in accordance with the rules
121. Appointment by transfer is made from among persons holding appointment on a:
a) Regular basis in the same or another department
b) Daily wages basis
c) Work-charged basis
d) Contract basis
Answer: a) Regular basis in the same or another department
122. Regional or provincial quotas in initial appointment are observed in accordance with:
a) No policy at all
b) The recruitment policy of the Federal Government
c) The wishes of the appointing authority
d) The FPSC Chairman's discretion
Answer: b) The recruitment policy of the Federal Government
123. A candidate for initial appointment must possess:
a) Only a character certificate
b) Only a domicile certificate
c) The educational qualifications and experience prescribed for the post
d) Only a medical certificate
Answer: c) The educational qualifications and experience prescribed for the post
124. Verification of character and antecedents of a selected candidate is:
a) Required after ten years
b) Required only for BS-22
c) Not required
d) Required before appointment
Answer: d) Required before appointment
125. A civil servant appointed on probation who is subsequently found medically unfit may be:
a) Dealt with in accordance with the prescribed rules
b) Promoted
c) Given a foreign posting
d) Confirmed
Answer: a) Dealt with in accordance with the prescribed rules
126. Seniority of officers promoted in the same batch is determined by:
a) Educational qualification
b) Their seniority in the lower post
c) Alphabetical order
d) Domicile
Answer: b) Their seniority in the lower post
127. Supersession of an officer for promotion means that he:
a) Is transferred abroad
b) Is retired compulsorily
c) Is passed over while a junior is promoted
d) Is confirmed automatically
Answer: c) Is passed over while a junior is promoted
CIVIL SERVANTS (EFFICIENCY AND DISCIPLINE) RULES
128. The Civil Servants (Efficiency and Discipline) Rules, 1973 were replaced by the rules of:
a) 2010
b) 2015
c) 2020
d) 2022
Answer: c) 2020
129. The E&D Rules apply to:
a) Civil servants as defined in the Civil Servants Act, 1973
b) Only contract employees
c) Only members of the armed forces
d) Only BS-17 and above
Answer: a) Civil servants as defined in the Civil Servants Act, 1973
130. The grounds on which a civil servant may proceeded against under the E&D Rules include:
a) Foreign travel
b) Inefficiency, misconduct and corruption
c) Poverty
d) Ill health only
Answer: b) Inefficiency, misconduct and corruption
131. Wilful absence from duty without prior approval of leave amounts to:
a) Casual leave
b) Efficiency
c) Misconduct
d) Promotion ground
Answer: c) Misconduct
132. Conduct prejudicial to good order or service discipline is treated as:
a) Corruption
b) Insolvency
c) Inefficiency
d) Misconduct
Answer: d) Misconduct
133. Living beyond ostensible means or possessing assets disproportionate to known sources of income amounts to:
a) Corruption
b) Negligence
c) Inefficiency
d) Misconduct
Answer: a) Corruption
134. Under the E&D Rules, the minor penalties include:
a) Dismissal from service
b) Censure
c) Compulsory retirement
d) Removal from service
Answer: b) Censure
135. Withholding of promotion for a specified period is a:
a) Transfer order
b) Major penalty
c) Minor penalty
d) Reward
Answer: c) Minor penalty
136. Stoppage of increment for a specified period is a:
a) Reward
b) Suspension
c) Major penalty
d) Minor penalty
Answer: d) Minor penalty
137. Recovery from pay of the whole or part of any pecuniary loss caused to Government is a:
a) Minor penalty
b) Reward
c) Transfer
d) Major penalty
Answer: a) Minor penalty
138. Reduction to a lower post or a lower stage in the time scale is a:
a) Minor penalty
b) Major penalty
c) Reward
d) Warning
Answer: b) Major penalty
139. Compulsory retirement is classified as a:
a) Transfer order
b) Minor penalty
c) Major penalty
d) Reward
Answer: c) Major penalty
140. Removal from service is a:
a) Warning
b) Reward
c) Minor penalty
d) Major penalty
Answer: d) Major penalty
141. Dismissal from service is a:
a) Major penalty
b) Warning
c) Reward
d) Minor penalty
Answer: a) Major penalty
142. The essential difference between removal and dismissal from service is that dismissal:
a) Carries no consequence
b) Ordinarily disqualifies the person from future government employment
c) Is a minor penalty
d) Is temporary
Answer: b) Ordinarily disqualifies the person from future government employment
143. Proceedings under the E&D Rules are initiated by the:
a) Auditor General
b) Inquiry officer
c) Authorised officer or competent authority
d) Service Tribunal
Answer: c) Authorised officer or competent authority
144. A charge sheet against an accused civil servant is accompanied by a:
a) Leave application
b) Transfer order
c) Pay slip
d) Statement of allegations
Answer: d) Statement of allegations
145. A civil servant may be placed under suspension:
a) Where the competent authority considers it necessary during proceedings
b) Never
c) Only on his own request
d) Only after conviction
Answer: a) Where the competent authority considers it necessary during proceedings
146. Instead of suspension, a civil servant against whom proceedings are initiated may be:
a) Promoted
b) Sent on forced leave or transferred
c) Given an award
d) Retired
Answer: b) Sent on forced leave or transferred
147. An inquiry officer or inquiry committee is appointed to:
a) Fix the pay
b) Award the penalty
c) Conduct the inquiry and submit findings
d) Approve the transfer
Answer: c) Conduct the inquiry and submit findings
148. The accused civil servant is entitled to:
a) Only a written notice
b) Only an oral warning
c) No hearing at all
d) A reasonable opportunity of defence and personal hearing
Answer: d) A reasonable opportunity of defence and personal hearing
149. Under the E&D Rules, the accused may be assisted during the inquiry by:
a) An assisting officer or, in specified cases, counsel as permitted
b) A journalist
c) A member of Parliament
d) An advocate in every case as of right
Answer: a) An assisting officer or, in specified cases, counsel as permitted
150. After receiving the inquiry report, the competent authority issues a:
a) Promotion order
b) Show cause notice indicating the proposed penalty
c) Pay slip
d) Leave sanction
Answer: b) Show cause notice indicating the proposed penalty
151. If the accused fails to submit a reply to the show cause notice within the stipulated time, the authority may:
a) Grant him leave
b) Drop the proceedings
c) Proceed ex parte and pass an order
d) Promote him
Answer: c) Proceed ex parte and pass an order
152. The competent authority may dispense with a regular inquiry where:
a) The accused is junior
b) There is no complaint
c) The accused is senior
d) The facts are admitted or the charge is based on documentary evidence, subject to the rules
Answer: d) The facts are admitted or the charge is based on documentary evidence, subject to the rules
153. An appeal against an order imposing a penalty lies to the:
a) Appellate authority prescribed under the rules
b) Police
c) District council
d) Inquiry officer
Answer: a) Appellate authority prescribed under the rules
154. A departmental appeal under the E&D Rules is ordinarily to be filed within:
a) 7 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 90 days
Answer: c) 30 days
155. During suspension, a civil servant is ordinarily entitled to:
a) Double pay
b) Full pay
c) Subsistence allowance as prescribed
d) No payment
Answer: c) Subsistence allowance as prescribed
156. If a civil servant is exonerated after suspension, the period of suspension is ordinarily treated as:
a) Break in service
b) Absence without leave
c) Extraordinary leave without pay
d) Duty for all purposes
Answer: d) Duty for all purposes
157. Proceedings under the E&D Rules may be initiated against a civil servant who has:
a) Retired, in respect of acts committed during service, as provided in the rules
b) Been promoted
c) Gone abroad
d) Been transferred only
Answer: a) Retired, in respect of acts committed during service, as provided in the rules
GOVERNMENT SERVANTS (CONDUCT) RULES, 1964
158. The Government Servants (Conduct) Rules were framed in:
a) 1962
b) 1964
c) 1973
d) 1980
Answer: b) 1964
159. Conduct of civil servants is regulated under which section of the Civil Servants Act, 1973?
a) Section 11
b) Section 13
c) Section 15
d) Section 17
Answer: c) Section 15
160. Under the Conduct Rules, acceptance of gifts by a government servant is:
a) Allowed for BS-17 and above
b) Allowed on Eid only
c) Freely allowed
d) Prohibited except as permitted by the rules
Answer: d) Prohibited except as permitted by the rules
161. A gift received from a foreign dignitary must be:
a) Reported and deposited in the Toshakhana as prescribed
b) Sold in the open market
c) Given to a colleague
d) Retained by the officer
Answer: a) Reported and deposited in the Toshakhana as prescribed
162. Acceptance of foreign awards, titles or decorations by a government servant requires:
a) No permission
b) Prior approval of the Government
c) Approval of the district officer
d) Approval of the press
Answer: b) Prior approval of the Government
163. Public demonstrations in honour of a government servant are:
a) Allowed on promotion only
b) Encouraged
c) Prohibited or restricted under the rules
d) Compulsory on retirement
Answer: c) Prohibited or restricted under the rules
164. Under the Conduct Rules, lending money at interest by a government servant is:
a) Compulsory
b) Allowed for BS-20 only
c) Permitted freely
d) Prohibited or restricted
Answer: d) Prohibited or restricted
165. A government servant must declare his assets:
a) At the time of entry into service and thereafter as prescribed
b) Never
c) Only when transferred
d) Only at retirement
Answer: a) At the time of entry into service and thereafter as prescribed
166. Speculation in stocks, shares or other investments by a government servant is:
a) Allowed
b) Prohibited
c) Encouraged
d) Allowed with a broker
Answer: b) Prohibited
167. Engaging in private trade or employment while in service is:
a) Allowed after office hours
b) Allowed
c) Prohibited without the sanction of Government
d) Compulsory
Answer: c) Prohibited without the sanction of Government
168. Subletting of government-allotted accommodation by a government servant is:
a) Encouraged
b) Allowed to relatives only
c) Allowed
d) Prohibited
Answer: d) Prohibited
169. A government servant may not, without previous sanction, publish or communicate to the press:
a) Any document or information of an official character
b) Family news
c) Sports scores
d) Personal poetry
Answer: a) Any document or information of an official character
170. Public criticism of the policy of the Government by a government servant is:
a) Encouraged
b) Prohibited
c) Rewarded
d) Compulsory
Answer: b) Prohibited
171. A government servant taking part in politics or standing for election is:
a) Given extra leave
b) Permitted
c) Prohibited
d) Rewarded
Answer: c) Prohibited
172. Canvassing or bringing political or other outside influence to bear upon a superior authority is:
a) Encouraged
b) Necessary for promotion
c) Permitted
d) Prohibited
Answer: d) Prohibited
173. Propagation of sectarian creeds or feelings by a government servant is:
a) Prohibited
b) Encouraged
c) Rewarded
d) Permitted
Answer: a) Prohibited
174. Nepotism, favouritism and victimisation in official dealings are:
a) Permitted
b) Prohibited
c) Encouraged
d) Neutral
Answer: b) Prohibited
175. Marriage of a government servant with a foreign national requires:
a) Approval of the press
b) No permission
c) Prior permission of the Government
d) Approval of the local council
Answer: c) Prior permission of the Government
176. Consumption of intoxicating drinks or drugs by a government servant in a public place is:
a) Allowed off duty
b) Allowed on holidays
c) Permitted
d) Prohibited
Answer: d) Prohibited
177. A government servant who is insolvent or habitually indebted may be:
a) Proceeded against under the rules
b) Promoted
c) Confirmed
d) Rewarded
Answer: a) Proceeded against under the rules
178. Vindication by a government servant of his public acts through the press requires:
a) No sanction
b) Previous sanction of the Government
c) Approval of colleagues
d) A court order
Answer: b) Previous sanction of the Government
179. A government servant giving evidence before a committee or authority requires, where prescribed:
a) Approval of a lawyer
b) No permission
c) Prior sanction of the competent authority
d) Permission of the media
Answer: c) Prior sanction of the competent authority
180. Under the Conduct Rules, approaching a Member of Parliament to intervene in a service matter is:
a) Encouraged
b) Compulsory
c) Permitted
d) Prohibited
Answer: d) Prohibited
181. Purchase or sale of immovable property by a government servant must be:
a) Reported to the prescribed authority
b) Done through an agent only
c) Avoided entirely
d) Kept secret
Answer: a) Reported to the prescribed authority
182. A breach of the Government Servants (Conduct) Rules, 1964 renders the officer liable to:
a) A reward
b) Disciplinary action under the E&D Rules
c) Automatic promotion
d) Extra leave
Answer: b) Disciplinary action under the E&D Rules
REVISED LEAVE RULES, 1980
183. The Revised Leave Rules were issued in:
a) 1973
b) 1980
c) 1993
d) 2001
Answer: b) 1980
184. Under the Revised Leave Rules, 1980, leave is earned by a civil servant at the rate of:
a) 1 days per month of duty
b) 2 days per month of duty
c) 3 days per month of duty
d) 4 days per month of duty
Answer: d) 4 days per month of duty
185. Leave earned in a year of full duty under the Revised Leave Rules is:
a) 30 days
b) 36 days
c) 48 days
d) 60 days
Answer: c) 48 days
186. Leave on full pay may be converted into leave on half pay at the ratio of:
a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:3
d) 2:1
Answer: b) 1:2
187. Leave on full pay that may be granted at one time without medical certificate ordinarily does not exceed:
a) 60 days
b) 90 days
c) 120 days
d) 180 days
Answer: c) 120 days
188. The maximum leave on full pay that may be accumulated for the purpose of encashment is:
a) 180 days
b) 270 days
c) 365 days
d) 730 days
Answer: c) 365 days
189. Leave Preparatory to Retirement (LPR) may be taken up to a maximum of:
a) 90 days
b) 180 days
c) 365 days
d) 730 days
Answer: c) 365 days
190. Maternity leave under the Revised Leave Rules is granted for a period of:
a) 45 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days
Answer: c) 90 days
191. Maternity leave is ordinarily admissible during the entire service for:
a) One occasion
b) Two occasions
c) Three occasions
d) Unlimited occasions
Answer: c) Three occasions
192. Disability leave may be granted to a civil servant disabled by injury attributable to service up to:
a) 180 days
b) 365 days
c) 540 days
d) 720 days
Answer: d) 720 days
193. Extraordinary leave (leave without pay) may be granted up to a maximum of:
a) Five years
b) One year
c) Two years
d) Three years
Answer: a) Five years
194. Casual leave is:
a) Governed by the Revised Leave Rules, 1980
b) Not a form of leave under the Revised Leave Rules and is regulated separately
c) Granted for 90 days
d) Encashable at retirement
Answer: b) Not a form of leave under the Revised Leave Rules and is regulated separately
195. Leave cannot be claimed as a matter of right, and may be refused or revoked by:
a) A court
b) The applicant
c) The leave sanctioning authority in the exigencies of service
d) The Auditor General
Answer: c) The leave sanctioning authority in the exigencies of service
196. Special leave to a female civil servant on the death of her husband is admissible for:
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 130 days
Answer: d) 130 days
197. A civil servant who remains absent beyond the sanctioned leave is liable to:
a) Disciplinary action
b) Extra pay
c) A reward
d) Promotion
Answer: a) Disciplinary action
198. Leave salary during leave on half pay is equal to:
a) The full pay
b) Half of the pay
c) One-third of the pay
d) No pay
Answer: b) Half of the pay
199. Leave ex-Pakistan may be granted subject to:
a) Approval of the Senate
b) No conditions
c) The conditions and approval prescribed in the rules
d) A court order
Answer: c) The conditions and approval prescribed in the rules
200. Encashment of Leave Preparatory to Retirement is allowed in lieu of:
a) Gratuity
b) Provident fund
c) Pension
d) Availing the LPR
Answer: d) Availing the LPR
RULES OF BUSINESS, 1973
CONSTITUTIONAL BASIS, PRELIMINARY AND DEFINITIONS
1. The Rules of Business, 1973 have been framed under which Article of the Constitution of Pakistan?
a) Article 90
b) Article 91
c) Article 99(3)
d) Article 101
Answer: c) Article 99(3)
2. Article 99 of the Constitution deals with:
a) Fundamental rights
b) Conduct of business of the Federal Government
c) Appointment of Governors
d) Provincial finance
Answer: b) Conduct of business of the Federal Government
3. Under Article 99(1), all executive actions of the Federal Government are expressed to be taken in the name of:
a) The Chief Justice
b) The Prime Minister
c) The President
d) The Cabinet Secretary
Answer: c) The President
4. The Rules of Business, 1973 regulate the:
a) Recruitment of civil servants
b) Assessment of income tax
c) Conduct of elections
d) Allocation and transaction of the business of the Federal Government
Answer: d) Allocation and transaction of the business of the Federal Government
5. The executive authority of the Federation under Article 90 is exercised in the name of the President by the:
a) Federal Government
b) Senate
c) Supreme Court
d) Election Commission
Answer: a) Federal Government
6. Under the Constitution, the Federal Government consists of:
a) The President alone
b) The Prime Minister and the Federal Ministers
c) All members of the National Assembly
d) The Cabinet Secretary and Secretaries
Answer: b) The Prime Minister and the Federal Ministers
7. Article 91 of the Constitution relates to the:
a) Provincial Assembly
b) Auditor General
c) Cabinet
d) Judiciary
Answer: c) Cabinet
8. Definitions for the purposes of the Rules of Business, 1973 are contained in:
a) Rule 1
b) Rule 2
c) Rule 3
d) Rule 4
Answer: b) Rule 2
9. Under the Rules of Business, “Cabinet” means:
a) The Prime Minister and the Federal Ministers
b) All Federal Secretaries
c) The National Assembly
d) The Council of Common Interests
Answer: a) The Prime Minister and the Federal Ministers
10. Under the Rules of Business, a “Division” means:
a) A district administrative unit
b) A self-contained administrative unit responsible for the business of the Federal Government in a specified sphere
c) A section of the National Assembly
d) A field office of a province
Answer: b) A self-contained administrative unit responsible for the business of the Federal Government in a specified sphere
11. Under the Rules of Business, a “Ministry” means:
a) A subordinate office
b) A single section
c) A Division or group of Divisions constituted into a Ministry
d) An attached department
Answer: c) A Division or group of Divisions constituted into a Ministry
12. Under the Rules of Business, a “Department” means:
a) A provincial secretariat
b) A local council
c) A statutory corporation
d) A self-contained unit of a Division
Answer: d) A self-contained unit of a Division
13. A “Section” under the Rules of Business is:
a) The basic working unit in a Division
b) A committee of the Cabinet
c) A provincial department
d) A chapter of an Act
Answer: a) The basic working unit in a Division
14. A Section in a Division is ordinarily headed by a:
a) Secretary
b) Section Officer
c) Joint Secretary
d) Minister
Answer: b) Section Officer
15. Under the Rules of Business, a “case” means:
a) A pending bill
b) A court proceeding only
c) A document or documents including papers, notes and orders relating to a matter
d) A police challan
Answer: c) A document or documents including papers, notes and orders relating to a matter
16. An “Attached Department” is a department which has:
a) Only judicial functions
b) Only provincial functions
c) No link with any Division
d) Direct relation with a Division and executes its policies
Answer: d) Direct relation with a Division and executes its policies
17. A “Subordinate Office” is an office which:
a) Functions under an Attached Department or a Division
b) Is independent of the Federal Government
c) Reports to the Supreme Court
d) Belongs to a province
Answer: a) Functions under an Attached Department or a Division
18. Under the Rules of Business, “Secretary” means the:
a) Private secretary to the Minister
b) Administrative head of a Ministry or Division
c) Secretary of the National Assembly
d) Secretary of a political party
Answer: b) Administrative head of a Ministry or Division
19. Under the Rules of Business, “Schedule” means a schedule to:
a) The Civil Servants Act
b) The Constitution
c) These Rules
d) The Finance Act
Answer: c) These Rules
20. “Additional Secretary Incharge” means an officer who:
a) Heads a subordinate office
b) Is a Minister of State
c) Assists a Section Officer
d) Holds independent charge of a Division in the absence of a Secretary
Answer: d) Holds independent charge of a Division in the absence of a Secretary
21. Under the Rules of Business, the Prime Minister allocates business among:
a) Divisions and Ministers
b) Provinces
c) Courts
d) Districts
Answer: a) Divisions and Ministers
22. The validity of an order made in the name of the President under Article 99(2):
a) May be questioned on the ground that it was not made by the President
b) Shall not be called in question on the ground that it was not made by the President
c) Is void
d) Requires ratification by Parliament
Answer: b) Shall not be called in question on the ground that it was not made by the President
23. The Rules of Business, 1973 apply to the business of the:
a) Cantonment boards
b) Provincial Governments
c) Federal Government
d) Local governments
Answer: c) Federal Government
24. Provincial Governments transact their business under:
a) No rules
b) Municipal bye-laws
c) The same Rules of Business, 1973
d) Their own Rules of Business framed under Article 139
Answer: d) Their own Rules of Business framed under Article 139
25. Article 139 of the Constitution corresponds to Article 99 in respect of:
a) The Provinces
b) Local bodies
c) The judiciary
d) The Federation
Answer: a) The Provinces
26. The Rules of Business are made by the:
a) Election Commission
b) Federal Government
c) Supreme Court
d) Senate
Answer: b) Federal Government
27. “Federal Government” for the purposes of the Rules of Business means:
a) The Parliament
b) The bureaucracy
c) The Prime Minister and the Federal Ministers
d) The President alone
Answer: c) The Prime Minister and the Federal Ministers
28. A Minister of State is:
a) The head of a Division always
b) A civil servant
c) Senior to a Federal Minister
d) Junior to a Federal Minister and assists him
Answer: d) Junior to a Federal Minister and assists him
29. An Adviser to the Prime Minister exercises functions:
a) As assigned by the Prime Minister
b) Of a judge
c) Of a provincial minister
d) Identical to a Secretary
Answer: a) As assigned by the Prime Minister
30. Under the Rules of Business, business allotted to a Division includes:
a) Only policy matters
b) All matters, including legislation and rules, in the sphere allotted to it
c) Only financial matters
d) Only foreign matters
Answer: b) All matters, including legislation and rules, in the sphere allotted to it
ALLOCATION OF BUSINESS, SCHEDULES AND ORGANISATION
31. The list of Divisions of the Federal Government is contained in:
a) Schedule III
b) Schedule IV
c) Schedule I
d) Schedule II
Answer: c) Schedule I
32. The distribution of business among the Divisions is contained in:
a) Schedule III
b) Schedule V
c) Schedule I
d) Schedule II
Answer: d) Schedule II
33. Cases required to be submitted to the Prime Minister are listed in:
a) Schedule III
b) Schedule IV
c) Schedule V
d) Schedule II
Answer: a) Schedule III
34. Cases required to be brought before the Cabinet are listed in:
a) Schedule III
b) Schedule IV
c) Schedule V
d) Schedule II
Answer: b) Schedule IV
35. Cases required to be submitted to the President are listed in:
a) Schedule III
b) Schedule IV
c) Schedule V
d) Schedule II
Answer: c) Schedule V
36. The business of Government is distributed among Divisions in the manner indicated in:
a) The Finance Act
b) The Civil Servants Act
c) The Constitution
d) Schedule II to the Rules of Business
Answer: d) Schedule II to the Rules of Business
37. Where a matter is not specifically allotted to any Division, it is dealt with by the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Finance Division
c) Law and Justice Division
d) Foreign Affairs Division
Answer: a) Cabinet Division
38. Amendments to the Schedules of the Rules of Business are notified by the:
a) Interior Division
b) Cabinet Division
c) Finance Division
d) Establishment Division
Answer: b) Cabinet Division
39. The Cabinet Division functions as the:
a) Recruiting agency
b) Legal adviser
c) Secretariat to the Cabinet
d) Auditor of accounts
Answer: c) Secretariat to the Cabinet
40. Appointments, postings and transfers of civil servants are principally the concern of the:
a) Finance Division
b) Law and Justice Division
c) Interior Division
d) Establishment Division
Answer: d) Establishment Division
41. Matters relating to the framing of the federal budget fall within the sphere of the:
a) Finance Division
b) Planning Division
c) Commerce Division
d) Revenue Division
Answer: a) Finance Division
42. Drafting and vetting of legislation is the responsibility of the:
a) Finance Division
b) Law and Justice Division
c) Interior Division
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: b) Law and Justice Division
43. Matters relating to Pakistan’s relations with foreign states are handled by the:
a) Commerce Division
b) Defence Division
c) Foreign Affairs Division
d) Interior Division
Answer: c) Foreign Affairs Division
44. Development plans and the Public Sector Development Programme are the concern of the:
a) Finance Division
b) Cabinet Division
c) Revenue Division
d) Planning, Development and Special Initiatives Division
Answer: d) Planning, Development and Special Initiatives Division
45. An Attached Department is created to:
a) Provide executive direction for the implementation of Government policy
b) Legislate on federal subjects
c) Hear appeals
d) Audit accounts
Answer: a) Provide executive direction for the implementation of Government policy
46. A Division may be placed in charge of:
a) A provincial secretary
b) A Minister, Minister of State or Adviser as the Prime Minister directs
c) A Section Officer
d) The Auditor General
Answer: b) A Minister, Minister of State or Adviser as the Prime Minister directs
47. More than one Division may be placed in charge of:
a) One clerk
b) One district officer
c) One Minister
d) One Section Officer
Answer: c) One Minister
48. Where a Division is not assigned to any Minister, it is deemed to be in charge of:
a) The President
b) The Cabinet Secretary
c) The Chief Secretary
d) The Prime Minister
Answer: d) The Prime Minister
49. The creation of a new Division requires the approval of:
a) The Prime Minister
b) A Section Officer
c) The Auditor General
d) A provincial assembly
Answer: a) The Prime Minister
50. The hierarchy of officers in a Division ordinarily runs from Secretary downwards through:
a) Judge, Registrar, Reader
b) Additional Secretary, Joint Secretary, Deputy Secretary, Section Officer
c) Section Officer, Deputy Secretary, Secretary
d) Director, Commissioner, Collector
Answer: b) Additional Secretary, Joint Secretary, Deputy Secretary, Section Officer
51. Reorganisation of Divisions and Ministries is processed through the:
a) Commerce Division
b) Defence Division
c) Cabinet Division
d) Foreign Affairs Division
Answer: c) Cabinet Division
52. The instructions for the transaction of business supplementing the Rules are issued by the:
a) Establishment Division
b) Finance Division
c) Law Division
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: d) Cabinet Division
53. Interpretation of the Rules of Business, in case of doubt, rests with the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Finance Division
c) Law and Justice Division
d) Interior Division
Answer: a) Cabinet Division
54. Statistics and the national census are dealt with by the Division to which the subject is allocated in:
a) Schedule I
b) Schedule II
c) Schedule III
d) Schedule IV
Answer: b) Schedule II
55. A Ministry may consist of:
a) Only subordinate offices
b) Only autonomous bodies
c) One or more Divisions
d) Only attached departments
Answer: c) One or more Divisions
56. Autonomous bodies and corporations are administratively controlled by:
a) The Supreme Court
b) Parliament directly
c) The Auditor General
d) The Division to which the subject is allocated
Answer: d) The Division to which the subject is allocated
57. The Establishment Division deals with matters relating to:
a) Services, personnel and training
b) Import and export
c) Foreign aid
d) Defence procurement
Answer: a) Services, personnel and training
58. The subject of internal security and citizenship falls to the:
a) Finance Division
b) Interior Division
c) Defence Division
d) Commerce Division
Answer: b) Interior Division
59. Federal taxation and revenue administration falls within the sphere of the:
a) Planning Division
b) Interior Division
c) Revenue Division
d) Commerce Division
Answer: c) Revenue Division
60. A Division is a self-contained administrative unit responsible for the conduct of business in a:
a) District
b) Province
c) Foreign country
d) Distinct and specified sphere
Answer: d) Distinct and specified sphere
ORGANISATION OF A DIVISION AND DUTIES OF THE SECRETARY
61. The official head of a Division is the:
a) Secretary
b) Joint Secretary
c) Section Officer
d) Minister
Answer: a) Secretary
62. The Secretary of a Division is responsible for:
a) Only foreign correspondence
b) The efficient administration and discipline of the Division and the proper conduct of business
c) Only the personal staff of the Minister
d) Only the accounts branch
Answer: b) The efficient administration and discipline of the Division and the proper conduct of business
63. The Secretary is the Principal Accounting Officer of his:
a) Province
b) Corporation
c) Division
d) District
Answer: c) Division
64. As Principal Accounting Officer, the Secretary is answerable to the:
a) District Council
b) Union Council
c) Election Commission
d) Public Accounts Committee
Answer: d) Public Accounts Committee
65. It is the duty of the Secretary to keep the Minister informed of:
a) The working of the Division and any important case
b) Only leave matters
c) Only foreign tours
d) Only personal matters
Answer: a) The working of the Division and any important case
66. The Secretary submits cases to the Minister:
a) Only through Parliament
b) Directly or through such officers as prescribed
c) Only through the Prime Minister
d) Only through the President
Answer: b) Directly or through such officers as prescribed
67. Where the Secretary is absent, the charge of the Division is held by:
a) A Minister of State only
b) The Auditor General
c) An officer designated in accordance with the Rules
d) A Section Officer of the personal staff
Answer: c) An officer designated in accordance with the Rules
68. The Secretary is responsible for careful observance of the Rules of Business in his:
a) Home district
b) Political party
c) Private business
d) Division
Answer: d) Division
69. When the Secretary is of the opinion that a case requires the personal attention of the Minister, he:
a) Submits it to the Minister
b) Sends it to the press
c) Destroys it
d) Files it
Answer: a) Submits it to the Minister
70. The Secretary is required to bring to the notice of the Minister and, where necessary, the Prime Minister, any case in which:
a) The stationery is short
b) He personally disagrees with an order that appears contrary to the rules or public interest
c) The file is thin
d) A junior officer is on leave
Answer: b) He personally disagrees with an order that appears contrary to the rules or public interest
71. Officers of a Division dispose of cases in accordance with:
a) Directions of a political party
b) Their personal preference
c) The distribution of work and standing orders of the Division
d) Instructions of the press
Answer: c) The distribution of work and standing orders of the Division
72. A Section Officer is responsible for:
a) Signing international treaties
b) Presiding over Cabinet meetings
c) Auditing accounts
d) The disposal of business allotted to his section and its proper maintenance of records
Answer: d) The disposal of business allotted to his section and its proper maintenance of records
73. Every Division is required to maintain:
a) A proper record of cases and files
b) Only oral records
c) Only newspaper clippings
d) No record
Answer: a) A proper record of cases and files
74. Orders passed by a Minister on a case are:
a) Not recorded
b) Recorded on the file and communicated as required
c) Kept secret from the Secretary
d) Announced in the press first
Answer: b) Recorded on the file and communicated as required
75. Where a Minister has passed orders and the Secretary considers a legal objection exists, he should:
a) Leak it to the media
b) Ignore it
c) Bring the objection on record and seek the advice of the Law and Justice Division
d) Resign
Answer: c) Bring the objection on record and seek the advice of the Law and Justice Division
76. Delegation of powers within a Division is regulated by:
a) A verbal understanding
b) The press
c) A political party
d) Standing orders and instructions issued under the Rules
Answer: d) Standing orders and instructions issued under the Rules
77. The personal staff of a Minister:
a) Does not exercise the powers of officers of the Division
b) Supersedes the Secretary
c) Signs the budget
d) Deals with official cases independently
Answer: a) Does not exercise the powers of officers of the Division
78. The Secretary is expected to keep the Prime Minister informed, through the Minister, of matters of:
a) Personal interest
b) Importance affecting Government policy
c) Household expenditure
d) Private travel
Answer: b) Importance affecting Government policy
79. Attached Departments correspond with the Division on matters of:
a) Private trade
b) Party politics
c) Policy and sanction, in accordance with the Rules
d) No matter
Answer: c) Policy and sanction, in accordance with the Rules
80. Inspection of Attached Departments and Subordinate Offices is the responsibility of the:
a) Election Commission
b) Supreme Court
c) Senate
d) Administrative Division concerned
Answer: d) Administrative Division concerned
81. Efficient and expeditious disposal of business in a Division is primarily the responsibility of the:
a) Secretary
b) Peon
c) Minister’s driver
d) Press
Answer: a) Secretary
82. Standing orders regulating the internal working of a Division are issued by the:
a) Auditor General
b) Secretary
c) Prime Minister personally
d) President
Answer: b) Secretary
83. Where a case involves more than one section of the same Division, it is coordinated by:
a) The press office
b) A provincial secretary
c) The officer designated under the Division’s standing orders
d) A private consultant
Answer: c) The officer designated under the Division’s standing orders
84. Files marked “Secret” or “Top Secret” must be handled in accordance with:
a) Newspaper practice
b) Personal convenience
c) Ordinary routine
d) Security instructions issued by Government
Answer: d) Security instructions issued by Government
85. The Secretary attends meetings of the Cabinet:
a) When required or when his Division’s case is under consideration
b) Never
c) Only on holidays
d) As of right in every case
Answer: a) When required or when his Division’s case is under consideration
TRANSACTION OF BUSINESS AND CASES FOR THE PRIME MINISTER
86. All orders in a case are made in the name of:
a) The Secretary
b) The President
c) The Section Officer
d) The Minister’s staff
Answer: b) The President
87. Cases specified in Schedule III are submitted to the:
a) Auditor General
b) Speaker
c) Prime Minister
d) Chief Justice
Answer: c) Prime Minister
88. Cases are submitted to the Prime Minister through the:
a) Section Officer directly
b) Press
c) Provincial Chief Secretary
d) Minister-in-charge
Answer: d) Minister-in-charge
89. The Prime Minister may call for any case relating to:
a) Any Division of the Federal Government
b) Only provincial matters
c) Only judicial matters
d) Only his own Division
Answer: a) Any Division of the Federal Government
90. Where a difference of opinion arises between two Ministers, the matter is placed before the:
a) Election Commission
b) Prime Minister or the Cabinet as required
c) District court
d) Auditor General
Answer: b) Prime Minister or the Cabinet as required
91. Orders of the Prime Minister on a case are:
a) Void unless published
b) Advisory only
c) Binding and communicated to the Division concerned
d) Subject to a referendum
Answer: c) Binding and communicated to the Division concerned
92. A proposal involving a change of Government policy is required to be brought before the:
a) Section Officer
b) District administration
c) Auditor General
d) Cabinet
Answer: d) Cabinet
93. A case involving important administrative or financial implications is submitted to the Prime Minister:
a) In accordance with Schedule III
b) Never
c) Only after implementation
d) Only if he asks
Answer: a) In accordance with Schedule III
94. Where a Division proposes to depart from a decision already taken by the Cabinet, it must:
a) Act at once
b) Obtain the prior approval of the Cabinet
c) Inform the press
d) Consult a private firm
Answer: b) Obtain the prior approval of the Cabinet
95. A summary submitted to the Prime Minister should be:
a) Verbal
b) Lengthy and unstructured
c) Self-contained, concise and accompanied by the relevant papers
d) Handwritten only
Answer: c) Self-contained, concise and accompanied by the relevant papers
96. A summary for the Prime Minister ordinarily concludes with:
a) A newspaper clipping
b) A blank page
c) An apology
d) The specific proposal or recommendation for orders
Answer: d) The specific proposal or recommendation for orders
97. Communication of the orders of the Prime Minister to the Division concerned is normally made by the:
a) Prime Minister’s Office
b) Provincial Government
c) Auditor General
d) Press
Answer: a) Prime Minister’s Office
98. Correspondence with the President is routed through the:
a) Provincial secretariat
b) Cabinet Division as prescribed
c) Any section
d) A private courier
Answer: b) Cabinet Division as prescribed
99. Where a case affects more than one Division, the Division primarily concerned:
a) Closes the file
b) Acts alone
c) Initiates the case and consults the other Divisions
d) Refers it to the press
Answer: c) Initiates the case and consults the other Divisions
100. A Division may not issue an order in a matter that falls in the sphere of another Division without:
a) Publishing it first
b) Informing the media
c) A court order
d) Prior consultation and agreement
Answer: d) Prior consultation and agreement
101. Where consultation between Divisions fails to produce agreement, the matter is referred to the:
a) Prime Minister or the Cabinet
b) District officer
c) Auditor General
d) Local council
Answer: a) Prime Minister or the Cabinet
102. Sanctions involving expenditure are issued only after they have been:
a) Announced publicly
b) Concurred in by the Finance Division where required
c) Discussed in the press
d) Approved by a province
Answer: b) Concurred in by the Finance Division where required
103. Cases which are required to be published in the official Gazette are notified by the:
a) Senate Secretariat
b) Provincial assembly
c) Division concerned
d) Supreme Court
Answer: c) Division concerned
104. A case which the Minister-in-charge considers should go to the Cabinet is sent to the:
a) Press office
b) Provincial government
c) Auditor General
d) Cabinet Division for inclusion in the agenda
Answer: d) Cabinet Division for inclusion in the agenda
105. Where immediate action is necessary and the Cabinet cannot meet, the Prime Minister may:
a) Authorise action subject to subsequent ratification by the Cabinet
b) Dissolve the Cabinet
c) Refer the matter to a court
d) Take no action
Answer: a) Authorise action subject to subsequent ratification by the Cabinet
106. Records of decisions of the Cabinet are maintained by the:
a) Law Division
b) Cabinet Division
c) Finance Division
d) Interior Division
Answer: b) Cabinet Division
107. Implementation of Cabinet decisions is the responsibility of the:
a) Provincial governments
b) Courts
c) Divisions concerned
d) Cabinet Secretary alone
Answer: c) Divisions concerned
108. Progress of implementation of Cabinet decisions is monitored by the:
a) Election Commission
b) Auditor General
c) Senate
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: d) Cabinet Division
109. A case involving negotiation or agreement with a foreign government requires consultation with the:
a) Foreign Affairs Division
b) Interior Division
c) Commerce Division
d) Revenue Division
Answer: a) Foreign Affairs Division
110. An urgent case may be disposed of by an officer subject to:
a) Ratification by a province
b) Subsequent report to the competent authority as prescribed
c) No conditions
d) A press conference
Answer: b) Subsequent report to the competent authority as prescribed
111. Where the Prime Minister has passed orders on a case, a Division may seek reconsideration only by:
a) Filing a suit
b) Ignoring the orders
c) Submitting a fresh case setting out the reasons
d) Approaching the media
Answer: c) Submitting a fresh case setting out the reasons
112. Notes on a file should be:
a) Repetitive
b) Anonymous
c) Vague
d) Brief, relevant and to the point
Answer: d) Brief, relevant and to the point
113. A case that has been decided is:
a) Recorded and preserved in accordance with the record retention rules
b) Sent to the press
c) Handed to the Minister personally
d) Destroyed at once
Answer: a) Recorded and preserved in accordance with the record retention rules
114. The responsibility for timely submission of a case to the competent authority rests with the:
a) Provincial secretary
b) Officer dealing with the case
c) Auditor General
d) Speaker
Answer: b) Officer dealing with the case
115. Where an order has been issued without observing the Rules of Business, the order is:
a) Binding on the courts
b) Automatically valid in every respect
c) Liable to be questioned as irregular and may be reviewed
d) Immune from scrutiny
Answer: c) Liable to be questioned as irregular and may be reviewed
CONSULTATION AMONG DIVISIONS
116. No Division shall, without previous consultation, issue an order on a matter which concerns:
a) Its own section
b) Its own attached department
c) Its own record room
d) Another Division
Answer: d) Another Division
117. Consultation with the Finance Division is necessary in every case involving:
a) Finance or expenditure from public funds
b) Foreign travel only
c) Stationery only
d) Office furniture only
Answer: a) Finance or expenditure from public funds
118. A case involving a new item of expenditure requires the concurrence of the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Finance Division
c) Interior Division
d) Commerce Division
Answer: b) Finance Division
119. Interpretation of law and the legal soundness of a proposal require consultation with the:
a) Establishment Division
b) Planning Division
c) Law and Justice Division
d) Finance Division
Answer: c) Law and Justice Division
120. Drafting of a bill or an ordinance is undertaken by the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Interior Division
c) Foreign Affairs Division
d) Law and Justice Division
Answer: d) Law and Justice Division
121. Matters relating to the terms and conditions of service of civil servants require consultation with the:
a) Establishment Division
b) Revenue Division
c) Defence Division
d) Commerce Division
Answer: a) Establishment Division
122. Creation or abolition of posts requires the concurrence of the:
a) Interior Division
b) Finance Division
c) Cabinet Division
d) Law Division
Answer: b) Finance Division
123. A proposal affecting Pakistan’s relations with a foreign country requires consultation with the:
a) Planning Division
b) Interior Division
c) Foreign Affairs Division
d) Revenue Division
Answer: c) Foreign Affairs Division
124. Proposals for inclusion in the development programme require consultation with the:
a) Interior Division
b) Defence Division
c) Law Division
d) Planning, Development and Special Initiatives Division
Answer: d) Planning, Development and Special Initiatives Division
125. Cases involving the Cabinet, its committees or the Rules of Business require reference to the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Commerce Division
c) Revenue Division
d) Defence Division
Answer: a) Cabinet Division
126. Where a Division does not agree with the advice of the Finance Division, the matter is referred to the:
a) Provincial Government
b) Prime Minister or the Cabinet
c) Auditor General
d) Supreme Court
Answer: b) Prime Minister or the Cabinet
127. The advice of the Law and Justice Division on a legal question is:
a) Of no consequence
b) Confidential from the Minister
c) Purely optional and normally to be followed
d) Binding on the courts
Answer: c) Purely optional and normally to be followed
128. Consultation between Divisions is ordinarily conducted by:
a) Press statements
b) Telephone only, without record
c) Public advertisement
d) Reference on file or through inter-Divisional meetings
Answer: d) Reference on file or through inter-Divisional meetings
129. Where an inter-Divisional meeting is held, the record of decisions is:
a) Circulated to the participating Divisions
b) Kept secret from the participants
c) Published in newspapers
d) Not kept
Answer: a) Circulated to the participating Divisions
130. Consultation with a Division must be completed:
a) At the end of the financial year
b) Before the order is issued
c) After the order is issued
d) At the time of audit
Answer: b) Before the order is issued
131. A Division seeking the views of another Division should:
a) Telephone without record
b) Ask the press
c) Send the complete case with a self-contained note
d) Send a blank file
Answer: c) Send the complete case with a self-contained note
132. Where a matter concerns a Provincial Government, consultation is made:
a) Through a private individual
b) Through the press
c) Not at all
d) Through the prescribed channel of communication
Answer: d) Through the prescribed channel of communication
133. Matters relating to audit and accounts involve reference to the office of the:
a) Auditor General of Pakistan
b) Chief Election Commissioner
c) Chief Justice
d) Speaker
Answer: a) Auditor General of Pakistan
134. A proposal involving remission or write-off of Government dues requires the concurrence of the:
a) Defence Division
b) Finance Division
c) Cabinet Division
d) Foreign Affairs Division
Answer: b) Finance Division
135. Financial powers of the Divisions and their subordinate authorities are laid down by the:
a) Interior Division
b) Law Division
c) Finance Division
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: c) Finance Division
136. A proposal to relax a rule made by another Division requires:
a) No consultation
b) A press notice
c) A court order
d) The concurrence of that Division
Answer: d) The concurrence of that Division
137. Where a Division fails to respond to a reference within the prescribed period, the initiating Division should:
a) Issue a reminder and, if necessary, raise it at a higher level
b) Close the case permanently
c) Refer it to a court
d) Proceed as if agreed, without any record
Answer: a) Issue a reminder and, if necessary, raise it at a higher level
138. A case involving public procurement is processed keeping in view the rules framed by the:
a) Senate
b) Public Procurement Regulatory Authority
c) Election Commission
d) Supreme Judicial Council
Answer: b) Public Procurement Regulatory Authority
139. An agreement with an international financial institution requires consultation with the:
a) Local council
b) Union council
c) Finance Division and the Economic Affairs Division as prescribed
d) District administration
Answer: c) Finance Division and the Economic Affairs Division as prescribed
140. Consultation requirements under the Rules of Business exist to ensure:
a) Secrecy from Ministers
b) Political advantage
c) Delay in decisions
d) Coordinated and lawful decision-making
Answer: d) Coordinated and lawful decision-making
THE CABINET AND CABINET PROCEDURE
141. The Cabinet is presided over by the:
a) Prime Minister
b) Cabinet Secretary
c) Speaker
d) President
Answer: a) Prime Minister
142. The Cabinet is collectively responsible to:
a) The provinces
b) The Senate and the National Assembly
c) The Supreme Court
d) The President alone
Answer: b) The Senate and the National Assembly
143. The Secretary to the Cabinet is the:
a) Finance Secretary
b) Principal Secretary to the President
c) Cabinet Secretary
d) Establishment Secretary
Answer: c) Cabinet Secretary
144. Cases to be placed before the Cabinet are listed in:
a) Schedule V
b) Schedule I
c) Schedule III
d) Schedule IV
Answer: d) Schedule IV
145. A case is placed before the Cabinet through the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Finance Division
c) Interior Division
d) Law Division
Answer: a) Cabinet Division
146. The document by which a case is placed before the Cabinet is called a:
a) Charge sheet
b) Summary
c) Challan
d) Writ
Answer: b) Summary
147. A summary for the Cabinet is signed by the:
a) Press officer
b) Auditor General
c) Secretary of the Division concerned and approved by the Minister-in-charge
d) Section Officer alone
Answer: c) Secretary of the Division concerned and approved by the Minister-in-charge
148. Copies of the summary are circulated to the members of the Cabinet by the:
a) Division concerned directly
b) Press
c) Provincial Governments
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: d) Cabinet Division
149. The agenda for a Cabinet meeting is prepared by the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Finance Division
c) Law Division
d) Interior Division
Answer: a) Cabinet Division
150. Ordinarily, a summary should be circulated to Cabinet members before the meeting in accordance with:
a) No time limit
b) The period prescribed in the Rules and instructions
c) The wishes of the press
d) A court order
Answer: b) The period prescribed in the Rules and instructions
151. A supplementary item may be included in the Cabinet agenda with the permission of the:
a) Auditor General
b) Speaker
c) Prime Minister
d) Section Officer
Answer: c) Prime Minister
152. The Secretary of the Division concerned attends the Cabinet meeting when:
a) Never
b) Only on holidays
c) Only with a court order
d) His case is under consideration
Answer: d) His case is under consideration
153. The record of the proceedings and decisions of the Cabinet is prepared by the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Ministry of Interior
c) Prime Minister personally
d) Press Information Department
Answer: a) Cabinet Division
154. Proceedings of the Cabinet are:
a) Open to the public
b) Confidential
c) Broadcast live
d) Published verbatim
Answer: b) Confidential
155. Decisions of the Cabinet are communicated to the Divisions concerned by the:
a) Auditor General
b) Speaker
c) Cabinet Secretary
d) Finance Secretary
Answer: c) Cabinet Secretary
156. A Cabinet decision may be modified or rescinded only by the:
a) Secretary concerned
b) Auditor General
c) District officer
d) Cabinet itself
Answer: d) Cabinet itself
157. The Cabinet may appoint committees for:
a) Detailed consideration of specified matters
b) Conducting elections
c) Trying criminal cases
d) Auditing accounts
Answer: a) Detailed consideration of specified matters
158. The Economic Coordination Committee is a committee of the:
a) Election Commission
b) Cabinet
c) Senate
d) Supreme Court
Answer: b) Cabinet
159. Decisions of a Cabinet Committee are ordinarily subject to:
a) Approval by a province
b) Approval by a court
c) Ratification or confirmation by the Cabinet as prescribed
d) No further approval in any case
Answer: c) Ratification or confirmation by the Cabinet as prescribed
160. The Cabinet Committee for Disposal of Legislative Cases deals with:
a) Recruitment matters
b) Audit paras
c) Foreign tours
d) Draft bills and ordinances
Answer: d) Draft bills and ordinances
161. Attendance of a Minister at a Cabinet meeting is:
a) Expected, and absence is to be intimated to the Prime Minister
b) Prohibited
c) Decided by the Secretary
d) Optional in every case
Answer: a) Expected, and absence is to be intimated to the Prime Minister
162. The Prime Minister may direct that a matter be decided:
a) By a district officer
b) By circulation among Cabinet members instead of at a meeting
c) By a public poll
d) By the press
Answer: b) By circulation among Cabinet members instead of at a meeting
163. Where a case is decided by circulation, the decision has the same effect as a decision:
a) Of a province
b) Of the Senate
c) Taken at a Cabinet meeting
d) Of a court
Answer: c) Taken at a Cabinet meeting
164. The Cabinet Division prepares and circulates to Divisions a statement of:
a) Election results
b) Judicial verdicts
c) Provincial budgets
d) Cabinet decisions and their implementation status
Answer: d) Cabinet decisions and their implementation status
165. Members of the Cabinet are bound by the principle of:
a) Collective responsibility
b) Party defection
c) Judicial restraint
d) Individual dissent in public
Answer: a) Collective responsibility
166. A Federal Minister may not publicly oppose a decision of the Cabinet because of:
a) Audit objections
b) Collective responsibility
c) The Official Secrets Act only
d) Financial rules
Answer: b) Collective responsibility
167. Cabinet papers are classified and handled as:
a) Public notices
b) Ordinary papers
c) Confidential or secret documents
d) Press releases
Answer: c) Confidential or secret documents
168. Where the Cabinet defers a case, the Division concerned should:
a) Refer it to a court
b) Publish it
c) Implement it anyway
d) Await further orders and resubmit as directed
Answer: d) Await further orders and resubmit as directed
169. The Prime Minister may take a decision on a matter of urgency and place it before the Cabinet:
a) For information or ratification
b) Never
c) Only after one year
d) Only after audit
Answer: a) For information or ratification
170. A Division that fails to implement a Cabinet decision is answerable to the:
a) Union council
b) Cabinet, through the Cabinet Division
c) Press
d) District council
Answer: b) Cabinet, through the Cabinet Division
RELATIONS WITH THE PRESIDENT, PARLIAMENT AND PROVINCES; LEGISLATION
171. Cases required to be submitted to the President are specified in:
a) Schedule III
b) Schedule IV
c) Schedule V
d) Schedule I
Answer: c) Schedule V
172. Under the Constitution, the President acts on and in accordance with the advice of the:
a) Chief Justice
b) Auditor General
c) Speaker
d) Cabinet or the Prime Minister
Answer: d) Cabinet or the Prime Minister
173. The Prime Minister keeps the President informed on matters relating to:
a) Federal Government affairs and legislative proposals
b) His personal finances
c) Party organisation
d) Private business
Answer: a) Federal Government affairs and legislative proposals
174. Communications addressed to the President by a Division are routed through the:
a) District administration
b) Cabinet Division as prescribed
c) Press office
d) Provincial Government
Answer: b) Cabinet Division as prescribed
175. The President may require the Cabinet to reconsider advice tendered to him, and thereafter he:
a) May dissolve the Cabinet
b) May amend the advice himself
c) Shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after reconsideration
d) May refuse indefinitely
Answer: c) Shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after reconsideration
176. An Ordinance is promulgated by the President under Article:
a) 89
b) 91
c) 99
d) 101
Answer: a) 89
177. A proposal for the promulgation of an Ordinance is processed by the:
a) Law and Justice Division in consultation with the Division concerned
b) Press office
c) Auditor General
d) Election Commission
Answer: a) Law and Justice Division in consultation with the Division concerned
178. A draft bill is submitted for the approval of the Cabinet before its introduction in:
a) The press
b) Parliament
c) A district court
d) A provincial assembly
Answer: b) Parliament
179. Legislative proposals are examined for constitutional validity by the:
a) Commerce Division
b) Interior Division
c) Law and Justice Division
d) Finance Division
Answer: c) Law and Justice Division
180. A money bill can be introduced only in the:
a) Senate
b) Supreme Court
c) Council of Common Interests
d) National Assembly
Answer: d) National Assembly
181. Statutory rules and regulations framed by a Division are vetted by the:
a) Law and Justice Division
b) Interior Division
c) Planning Division
d) Revenue Division
Answer: a) Law and Justice Division
182. Notifications of statutory rules are published in the:
a) Annual report only
b) Official Gazette
c) Party manifesto
d) Daily press only
Answer: b) Official Gazette
183. Answers to questions raised in Parliament are prepared by the:
a) Supreme Court
b) Auditor General
c) Division to which the subject relates
d) Cabinet Division alone
Answer: c) Division to which the subject relates
184. The Minister-in-charge is responsible for the accuracy of information supplied to:
a) A political party
b) The press club
c) A private company
d) Parliament
Answer: d) Parliament
185. Assurances given by a Minister on the floor of the House are implemented by the:
a) Division concerned and monitored as prescribed
b) Supreme Court
c) Election Commission
d) District officer
Answer: a) Division concerned and monitored as prescribed
186. The Public Accounts Committee examines the audit reports relating to:
a) Foreign governments
b) Appropriation accounts and finance accounts of the Federal Government
c) Party accounts
d) Private companies
Answer: b) Appropriation accounts and finance accounts of the Federal Government
187. Before the Public Accounts Committee, a Division is represented by its:
a) Minister always
b) Press officer
c) Principal Accounting Officer
d) Section Officer only
Answer: c) Principal Accounting Officer
188. Correspondence between the Federal Government and a Provincial Government is conducted through the:
a) Press
b) Political parties
c) Private agents
d) Prescribed official channel
Answer: d) Prescribed official channel
189. A matter requiring the concurrence of a Provincial Government is processed by the:
a) Division concerned in consultation with the Province
b) Auditor General
c) Chief Justice
d) Speaker
Answer: a) Division concerned in consultation with the Province
190. The Council of Common Interests is provided for in the:
a) Civil Servants Act
b) Constitution
c) Rules of Business only
d) Finance Act
Answer: b) Constitution
191. The Secretariat of the Council of Common Interests is provided by the:
a) Commerce Division
b) Revenue Division
c) Inter-Provincial Coordination Division
d) Interior Division
Answer: c) Inter-Provincial Coordination Division
192. An international treaty or agreement is signed after clearance by the:
a) Provincial assembly
b) District administration
c) Union council
d) Cabinet and the Foreign Affairs and Law Divisions as prescribed
Answer: d) Cabinet and the Foreign Affairs and Law Divisions as prescribed
193. A case relating to the appointment of a Judge of a superior court is processed in accordance with:
a) The Constitution and the prescribed procedure
b) The Finance Act
c) The Rules of Business alone
d) Municipal bye-laws
Answer: a) The Constitution and the prescribed procedure
194. Communication of a Presidential assent to a bill is arranged by the:
a) Union council
b) Law and Justice Division and the National Assembly Secretariat as prescribed
c) Press office
d) District officer
Answer: b) Law and Justice Division and the National Assembly Secretariat as prescribed
195. Information which is classified may be released to the press only:
a) By the Auditor General
b) Freely by any officer
c) With the approval of the competent authority
d) By the Section Officer
Answer: c) With the approval of the competent authority
196. The Rules of Business are supplemented by instructions issued by the Cabinet Division which are:
a) Merely advisory to the courts
b) Applicable only to provinces
c) Applicable only to autonomous bodies
d) Binding on all Divisions
Answer: d) Binding on all Divisions
197. Any doubt as to whether a case falls within the sphere of a particular Division is resolved by the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Auditor General
c) Supreme Court
d) Provincial Government
Answer: a) Cabinet Division
198. An officer who acts in contravention of the Rules of Business renders himself liable to:
a) A reward
b) Disciplinary action
c) Automatic promotion
d) Extra leave
Answer: b) Disciplinary action
199. The Rules of Business, 1973 came into force in the year:
a) 1962
b) 1969
c) 1973
d) 1985
Answer: c) 1973
200. The primary purpose of the Rules of Business is to ensure that Government business is transacted:
a) Secretly from Ministers
b) Only by the Cabinet
c) Informally
d) In an orderly, lawful and coordinated manner
Answer: d) In an orderly, lawful and coordinated manner
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
CONSTITUTIONAL FRAMEWORK OF PUBLIC FINANCE
1. The Federal Consolidated Fund and the Public Account of the Federation are provided for in Article:
a) 78
b) 79
c) 80
d) 81
Answer: a) 78
2. All revenues received by the Federal Government and all loans raised by it form part of the:
a) Public Account
b) Federal Consolidated Fund
c) Provincial Consolidated Fund
d) Privatisation Fund
Answer: b) Federal Consolidated Fund
3. Moneys received by or on behalf of the Federal Government which are not part of the Consolidated Fund are credited to the:
a) Zakat Fund only
b) Provincial Account
c) Public Account of the Federation
d) Federal Consolidated Fund
Answer: c) Public Account of the Federation
4. The custody of the Federal Consolidated Fund is regulated under Article:
a) 76
b) 77
c) 78
d) 79
Answer: d) 79
5. The Annual Budget Statement is provided for in Article:
a) 80
b) 81
c) 82
d) 83
Answer: a) 80
6. The Annual Budget Statement is laid before the National Assembly in respect of:
a) Every ten years
b) Each financial year
c) Each calendar year
d) Every five years
Answer: b) Each financial year
7. The financial year of the Government of Pakistan runs from:
a) 1 January to 31 December
b) 1 April to 31 March
c) 1 July to 30 June
d) 1 October to 30 September
Answer: c) 1 July to 30 June
8. Expenditure charged upon the Federal Consolidated Fund is dealt with in Article:
a) 78
b) 79
c) 80
d) 81
Answer: d) 81
9. Expenditure charged upon the Federal Consolidated Fund is:
a) Not submitted to the vote of the National Assembly but may be discussed
b) Not shown in the budget
c) Approved by the Senate only
d) Submitted to the vote of the National Assembly
Answer: a) Not submitted to the vote of the National Assembly but may be discussed
10. The remuneration of the Auditor-General of Pakistan is:
a) Voted expenditure
b) Charged upon the Federal Consolidated Fund
c) Met from the Public Account
d) Paid by the provinces
Answer: b) Charged upon the Federal Consolidated Fund
11. Sums required to satisfy a judgment or decree of a court against Pakistan are:
a) Payable by the province
b) Voted expenditure
c) Charged expenditure
d) Not payable
Answer: c) Charged expenditure
12. Debt charges for which the Federal Government is liable are:
a) Part of the Public Account
b) Not budgeted
c) Voted expenditure
d) Charged upon the Federal Consolidated Fund
Answer: d) Charged upon the Federal Consolidated Fund
13. The procedure relating to the Annual Budget Statement is laid down in Article:
a) 82
b) 83
c) 84
d) 85
Answer: a) 82
14. Expenditure other than charged expenditure is submitted to the National Assembly in the form of:
a) Adjournment motions
b) Demands for Grants
c) Ordinances
d) Resolutions
Answer: b) Demands for Grants
15. A Demand for Grant is made on the recommendation of the:
a) Auditor-General
b) Supreme Court
c) Federal Government
d) Senate
Answer: c) Federal Government
16. Authentication of the schedule of authorised expenditure is provided for in Article:
a) 80
b) 81
c) 82
d) 83
Answer: d) 83
17. The schedule of authorised expenditure is authenticated by the:
a) Prime Minister
b) Speaker of the National Assembly
c) Auditor-General
d) Finance Secretary
Answer: a) Prime Minister
18. Supplementary and excess budget statements are provided for in Article:
a) 83
b) 84
c) 85
d) 86
Answer: b) 84
19. Votes on account are provided for in Article:
a) 83
b) 84
c) 85
d) 86
Answer: c) 85
20. Under Article 85, the National Assembly may authorise expenditure in advance for a period not exceeding:
a) Six months
b) Two months
c) Three months
d) Four months
Answer: d) Four months
21. Power to authorise expenditure when the National Assembly stands dissolved is provided in Article:
a) 86
b) 87
c) 88
d) 89
Answer: a) 86
22. The National Finance Commission is constituted under Article:
a) 156
b) 158
c) 160
d) 161
Answer: c) 160
23. The National Finance Commission is constituted by the:
a) Chief Justice
b) Auditor-General
c) President
d) Speaker
Answer: c) President
24. The distribution of revenues between the Federation and the Provinces is the principal function of the:
a) Council of Common Interests
b) Election Commission
c) Senate
d) National Finance Commission
Answer: d) National Finance Commission
25. Borrowing by the Federal Government is regulated by Article:
a) 166
b) 167
c) 168
d) 169
Answer: a) 166
26. The office of the Auditor-General of Pakistan is created by Article:
a) 167
b) 168
c) 169
d) 170
Answer: b) 168
27. The functions and powers of the Auditor-General are laid down in Article:
a) 167
b) 168
c) 169
d) 170
Answer: c) 169
28. Under Article 171, the reports of the Auditor-General relating to the accounts of the Federation are submitted to the:
a) Prime Minister
b) Speaker
c) Chief Justice
d) President
Answer: d) President
29. The reports of the Auditor-General are laid before the:
a) National Assembly
b) Supreme Court
c) Senate only
d) Provincial assemblies
Answer: a) National Assembly
30. The Auditor-General is appointed by the:
a) National Assembly
b) President
c) Prime Minister
d) Chief Justice
Answer: b) President
THE BUDGET CYCLE AND BUDGET PREPARATION
31. The federal budget is prepared by the:
a) Planning Division
b) Revenue Division
c) Finance Division
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: c) Finance Division
32. The document containing the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Federal Government for a financial year is the:
a) Audit Report
b) Appropriation Account
c) Finance Account
d) Annual Budget Statement
Answer: d) Annual Budget Statement
33. The budget call circular for the preparation of estimates is issued by the:
a) Finance Division
b) Auditor-General
c) Cabinet Division
d) Establishment Division
Answer: a) Finance Division
34. Budget estimates are ordinarily classified into:
a) Only loans
b) Current expenditure and development expenditure
c) Only salaries
d) Only foreign aid
Answer: b) Current expenditure and development expenditure
35. The development budget of the Federal Government is known as the:
a) Monetary Policy Statement
b) Economic Survey
c) Public Sector Development Programme
d) Annual Trade Policy
Answer: c) Public Sector Development Programme
36. The Medium Term Budgetary Framework covers a period of:
a) Ten years
b) Twenty years
c) One year
d) Three years
Answer: d) Three years
37. Under output-based budgeting, budget allocations are linked to:
a) Outputs and outcomes of an entity
b) Only the number of employees
c) Only past expenditure
d) Only foreign aid
Answer: a) Outputs and outcomes of an entity
38. The Indicative Budget Ceilings for Ministries are communicated by the:
a) Senate
b) Finance Division
c) Auditor-General
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: b) Finance Division
39. The Economic Survey of Pakistan is presented:
a) At the end of the financial year only
b) Every five years
c) A day before the budget
d) After the Appropriation Act
Answer: c) A day before the budget
40. The Finance Bill is passed by the:
a) Senate
b) Supreme Court
c) Council of Common Interests
d) National Assembly
Answer: d) National Assembly
41. The Senate may make recommendations on the Finance Bill within:
a) Fourteen days
b) Thirty days
c) Sixty days
d) Ninety days
Answer: a) Fourteen days
42. The Act by which the National Assembly authorises expenditure from the Federal Consolidated Fund is the:
a) Contract Act
b) Appropriation Act
c) Finance Act
d) Companies Act
Answer: b) Appropriation Act
43. The Finance Act principally gives effect to the Government’s proposals relating to:
a) Defence procurement
b) Education curriculum
c) Taxation and revenue
d) Foreign policy
Answer: c) Taxation and revenue
44. A motion seeking to reduce a Demand for Grant to a token amount is called a:
a) Adjournment motion
b) Privilege motion
c) Call attention notice
d) Token cut motion
Answer: d) Token cut motion
45. A cut motion seeking to reduce a demand to one rupee expresses:
a) Disapproval of the policy underlying the demand
b) Approval of the demand
c) A request for more funds
d) A point of order
Answer: a) Disapproval of the policy underlying the demand
46. An economy cut motion seeks to:
a) Postpone the budget
b) Effect economy in the proposed expenditure
c) Increase the demand
d) Dissolve the Assembly
Answer: b) Effect economy in the proposed expenditure
47. Estimates of receipts of the Federal Government are prepared with the assistance of the:
a) Supreme Court
b) Provincial assemblies
c) Federal Board of Revenue and the Divisions concerned
d) Election Commission
Answer: c) Federal Board of Revenue and the Divisions concerned
48. A new item of expenditure not provided in the budget requires:
a) No approval
b) Approval of the press
c) Approval of a province
d) The prior approval of the Finance Division
Answer: d) The prior approval of the Finance Division
49. The classification of a receipt or charge in the budget is determined by the:
a) Chart of Accounts
b) Political party
c) Press
d) District officer
Answer: a) Chart of Accounts
50. Funds not spent by the close of the financial year:
a) Become the property of the Division
b) Lapse
c) Are carried forward automatically
d) Are transferred abroad
Answer: b) Lapse
51. Budgetary provision is a condition precedent to:
a) Making an appointment letter
b) Answering a parliamentary question
c) Incurring expenditure
d) Holding a meeting
Answer: c) Incurring expenditure
52. Where expenditure is incurred in excess of the sanctioned grant, it constitutes:
a) A saving
b) A supplementary grant
c) A re-appropriation
d) An excess requiring regularisation
Answer: d) An excess requiring regularisation
53. The regularisation of excess expenditure is ultimately done through:
a) An excess demand approved by the National Assembly
b) A press release
c) An audit note
d) A departmental order
Answer: a) An excess demand approved by the National Assembly
54. A grant is the unit of:
a) Provincial taxation
b) Appropriation and parliamentary control
c) Judicial review
d) Election expenditure
Answer: b) Appropriation and parliamentary control
55. Within a grant, funds are shown against:
a) Political parties
b) Districts only
c) Functions and objects of expenditure
d) Names of officers
Answer: c) Functions and objects of expenditure
56. The budget of an autonomous body is approved by its:
a) Section Officer
b) Auditor-General
c) District council
d) Board or competent authority, in accordance with its governing law
Answer: d) Board or competent authority, in accordance with its governing law
57. Federal receipts credited to the Federal Consolidated Fund include:
a) Tax and non-tax revenues
b) Provident fund deposits only
c) Court deposits only
d) Zakat only
Answer: a) Tax and non-tax revenues
58. Deposits, remittances and provident funds are accounted for under the:
a) Development Fund
b) Public Account
c) Federal Consolidated Fund
d) Privatisation Fund
Answer: b) Public Account
59. The Public Finance Management Act was enacted in the year:
a) 2001
b) 2005
c) 2019
d) 2021
Answer: c) 2019
60. The Fiscal Responsibility and Debt Limitation Act was enacted in the year:
a) 2001
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2019
Answer: b) 2005
FINANCIAL CONTROL, BUDGETING AND DELEGATED FINANCIAL POWERS
61. The revised System of Financial Control and Budgeting stood repealed by the Financial Management and Powers of Principal Accounting Officers Regulations, 2021; the repealed System was that of the year:
a) 1983
b) 1993
c) 2000
d) 2006
Answer: c) 2000
62. The Financial Management and Powers of Principal Accounting Officers Regulations, 2021 were issued by the:
a) Establishment Division
b) Finance Division
c) Cabinet Division
d) Auditor-General
Answer: b) Finance Division
63. Under the Rules of Business, 1973 and the Regulations of 2021, the Principal Accounting Officer of a Division is the:
a) Minister
b) Auditor-General
c) Secretary
d) Section Officer
Answer: c) Secretary
64. The officer who now assists the Principal Accounting Officer in matters of financial management is the:
a) Auditor-General
b) Cabinet Secretary
c) Controller General of Accounts
d) Chief Finance and Accounts Officer
Answer: d) Chief Finance and Accounts Officer
65. The Financial Adviser’s Organisation of the Finance Division has been:
a) Disbanded under the Public Finance Management Act, 2019
b) Expanded
c) Placed under the Auditor-General
d) Transferred to the provinces
Answer: a) Disbanded under the Public Finance Management Act, 2019
66. Under the Regulations, financial powers are delegated to Ministries and Divisions in order to:
a) Avoid budget limits
b) Ensure speedy disposal and accountability for expenditure
c) Increase paperwork
d) Bypass audit
Answer: b) Ensure speedy disposal and accountability for expenditure
67. Expenditure beyond the delegated powers of a Division requires the concurrence of the:
a) Auditor-General
b) Provincial Government
c) Finance Division
d) Cabinet Division
Answer: c) Finance Division
68. The Principal Accounting Officer is responsible for ensuring that expenditure is incurred:
a) Without reference to the budget
b) On the direction of the press
c) At his personal discretion
d) Within the sanctioned grant and in accordance with the rules
Answer: d) Within the sanctioned grant and in accordance with the rules
69. Under the Regulations, the Principal Accounting Officer is answerable for the accounts of his Division to the:
a) Public Accounts Committee
b) Senate Standing Committee only
c) Supreme Court
d) Provincial Assembly
Answer: a) Public Accounts Committee
70. The Regulations require that the budget be prepared on the basis of:
a) Political considerations
b) Realistic estimates consistent with approved ceilings
c) Maximum possible demands
d) Previous year figures doubled
Answer: b) Realistic estimates consistent with approved ceilings
71. Re-appropriation means the transfer of funds:
a) From the province to the Federation
b) From revenue to a private account
c) From one unit of appropriation to another within the same grant
d) From one grant to another grant
Answer: c) From one unit of appropriation to another within the same grant
72. Re-appropriation from one grant to another grant is:
a) Permissible with audit approval
b) Permissible with press approval
c) Permissible freely
d) Not permissible
Answer: d) Not permissible
73. Re-appropriation of funds from development to current expenditure is ordinarily:
a) Not allowed
b) Allowed by a Section Officer
c) Allowed by the press
d) Freely allowed
Answer: a) Not allowed
74. Anticipated savings must be surrendered to the Finance Division each year by the:
a) Thirty-first day of December
b) Thirty-first day of May
c) Thirtieth day of June
d) First day of July
Answer: b) Thirty-first day of May
75. Surrender of savings after the prescribed date is objectionable because it:
a) Reduces audit work
b) Improves reporting
c) Deprives Government of the opportunity to utilise the funds elsewhere
d) Increases the grant
Answer: c) Deprives Government of the opportunity to utilise the funds elsewhere
76. A supplementary grant is required when:
a) There are savings
b) The budget is balanced
c) The audit report is issued
d) Expenditure in excess of the sanctioned grant becomes necessary during the year
Answer: d) Expenditure in excess of the sanctioned grant becomes necessary during the year
77. Proposals for supplementary grants are processed by the:
a) Finance Division
b) Auditor-General
c) Cabinet Division
d) Senate
Answer: a) Finance Division
78. Supplementary grants are ultimately placed before the:
a) Provincial Assembly
b) National Assembly
c) Supreme Court
d) Election Commission
Answer: b) National Assembly
79. Monthly reconciliation of departmental figures with the accounts office is:
a) Annual only
b) Not required
c) Mandatory
d) Optional
Answer: c) Mandatory
80. Reconciliation of expenditure figures is carried out with the:
a) Election Commission
b) Press Information Department
c) District council
d) Accountant General Pakistan Revenues or the relevant accounts office
Answer: d) Accountant General Pakistan Revenues or the relevant accounts office
81. A Drawing and Disbursing Officer is responsible for:
a) Drawing and disbursing government money and maintaining related records
b) Framing policy
c) Hearing appeals
d) Conducting audits
Answer: a) Drawing and disbursing government money and maintaining related records
82. Under the Regulations, expenditure control statements are required to be maintained by the:
a) Union council
b) Division and its Drawing and Disbursing Officers
c) Press office
d) Provincial secretariat
Answer: b) Division and its Drawing and Disbursing Officers
83. The concurrence of the Finance Division is invariably required for proposals involving:
a) Office stationery within powers
b) Routine leave
c) Creation of posts and new expenditure liabilities
d) Transfer of a Section Officer
Answer: c) Creation of posts and new expenditure liabilities
84. Where funds are not available, a Division should:
a) Borrow privately
b) Charge it to a province
c) Incur the expenditure anyway
d) Not incur the expenditure until funds are arranged
Answer: d) Not incur the expenditure until funds are arranged
85. Under the Regulations, foreign exchange requirements are regulated in consultation with the:
a) Finance Division
b) Election Commission
c) Auditor-General
d) Supreme Court
Answer: a) Finance Division
86. Commitment accounting under modern financial management requires recording a liability at the stage of:
a) Year end only
b) Placing the order or entering the commitment
c) Payment only
d) Audit only
Answer: b) Placing the order or entering the commitment
87. The delegation of financial powers is exercised subject to:
a) Approval of the press
b) Approval of a political party
c) Availability of funds and observance of rules
d) No conditions
Answer: c) Availability of funds and observance of rules
88. A Division may not incur expenditure on an item for which:
a) Provision exists
b) Audit has been completed
c) Reconciliation is done
d) No provision exists in the sanctioned budget
Answer: d) No provision exists in the sanctioned budget
89. The budget calendar prescribes:
a) The dates by which each stage of budget preparation must be completed
b) The dates of public holidays
c) The dates of elections
d) The dates of audit reports
Answer: a) The dates by which each stage of budget preparation must be completed
90. Cash management under the Public Finance Management Act aims to ensure:
a) Higher borrowing
b) Availability of funds when required and avoidance of idle balances
c) Maximum idle cash
d) Delay in payments
Answer: b) Availability of funds when required and avoidance of idle balances
GENERAL FINANCIAL RULES AND STANDARDS OF FINANCIAL PROPRIETY
91. The General Financial Rules are published in:
a) One volume
b) Ten volumes
c) Two volumes
d) Five volumes
Answer: c) Two volumes
92. The standards of financial propriety require that expenditure should not be prima facie:
a) Less than the budget
b) Equal to the grant
c) Audited
d) More than the occasion demands
Answer: d) More than the occasion demands
93. Under the standards of financial propriety, no authority should exercise its powers of sanctioning expenditure:
a) To pass an order which will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage
b) With the concurrence of Finance
c) After budget approval
d) Within delegated limits
Answer: a) To pass an order which will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage
94. Public money should not be utilised for the benefit of a particular person or section of the community unless:
a) Audit is silent
b) The amount is insignificant, a claim is enforceable in law, or the expenditure is in pursuance of a recognised policy or custom
c) It is convenient
d) The officer approves
Answer: b) The amount is insignificant, a claim is enforceable in law, or the expenditure is in pursuance of a recognised policy or custom
95. Allowances granted to meet expenditure of a particular type should be so regulated that they are:
a) Tax free always
b) Paid in advance
c) Not on the whole a source of profit to the recipient
d) A source of profit
Answer: c) Not on the whole a source of profit to the recipient
96. Every officer incurring or authorising expenditure from public funds should exercise the same vigilance as:
a) A trustee of a private trust only
b) A commercial trader
c) A tax collector
d) A person of ordinary prudence would exercise in respect of his own money
Answer: d) A person of ordinary prudence would exercise in respect of his own money
97. The responsibility for controlling expenditure against a grant rests with the:
a) Controlling officer and the Principal Accounting Officer
b) Auditor-General
c) Press
d) Speaker
Answer: a) Controlling officer and the Principal Accounting Officer
98. All moneys received by a government officer on account of Government must be:
a) Spent at once
b) Paid in full into the treasury or the bank without delay
c) Retained by him
d) Deposited in a personal account
Answer: b) Paid in full into the treasury or the bank without delay
99. Money withdrawn from the Federal Consolidated Fund requires:
a) Only an oral order
b) Only an audit note
c) Due authority and appropriation
d) No authority
Answer: c) Due authority and appropriation
100. A permanent advance or imprest is granted to an officer to enable him to meet:
a) Personal expenses
b) Election expenses
c) Loan repayment
d) Petty office expenses pending recoupment
Answer: d) Petty office expenses pending recoupment
101. Contingent expenditure means expenditure incidental to the:
a) Management of an office
b) Purchase of land only
c) Payment of pensions only
d) Grant of loans only
Answer: a) Management of an office
102. Losses of public money or stores must be:
a) Ignored if small
b) Reported immediately to the competent authority and to audit as prescribed
c) Concealed
d) Written off by the officer himself
Answer: b) Reported immediately to the competent authority and to audit as prescribed
103. Write-off of an irrecoverable loss can be sanctioned only by:
a) The press
b) A private auditor
c) The authority competent under the delegated powers
d) Any officer
Answer: c) The authority competent under the delegated powers
104. Physical verification of stores is required to be carried out:
a) Once in ten years
b) Never
c) Only on transfer of the Minister
d) At least once a year as prescribed
Answer: d) At least once a year as prescribed
105. A grant-in-aid to an institution is sanctioned subject to:
a) Conditions prescribed and rendering of accounts
b) No conditions
c) Only a verbal undertaking
d) Approval of the press
Answer: a) Conditions prescribed and rendering of accounts
106. Government dues which are irrecoverable may be written off only after:
a) Audit objection alone
b) All reasonable steps for recovery have been taken
c) One reminder
d) No action
Answer: b) All reasonable steps for recovery have been taken
107. A sanction to expenditure ordinarily lapses if not acted upon within:
a) Five years
b) Ten years
c) Twelve months from the date of issue
d) One month
Answer: c) Twelve months from the date of issue
108. Expenditure incurred without sanction is treated as:
a) Regular
b) A saving
c) A re-appropriation
d) Unauthorised and irregular
Answer: d) Unauthorised and irregular
109. A retrospective sanction is:
a) Ordinarily avoided and requires the approval of the competent authority
b) Freely issued
c) Issued by the press
d) Issued by a district officer
Answer: a) Ordinarily avoided and requires the approval of the competent authority
110. Advances to government servants are governed by:
a) Court orders
b) The rules and orders issued by the Finance Division
c) Personal discretion
d) Bank policy
Answer: b) The rules and orders issued by the Finance Division
111. Custody of government money is the personal responsibility of the:
a) Minister
b) Speaker
c) Officer entrusted with it
d) Auditor-General
Answer: c) Officer entrusted with it
112. The register of contingent expenditure is maintained by the:
a) Auditor-General
b) Cabinet Secretary
c) Speaker
d) Drawing and Disbursing Officer
Answer: d) Drawing and Disbursing Officer
113. A bill presented for payment must be:
a) Complete, correct and supported by the required vouchers
b) Unsigned
c) Without vouchers
d) Only oral
Answer: a) Complete, correct and supported by the required vouchers
114. Payment of a claim more than three years old ordinarily requires:
a) Approval of a province
b) Sanction of the competent authority as prescribed
c) No sanction
d) Approval of the press
Answer: b) Sanction of the competent authority as prescribed
115. Government property should be used:
a) For party purposes
b) For personal profit
c) Only for public purposes
d) For private purposes freely
Answer: c) Only for public purposes
116. Cash books must be closed and balanced:
a) Once in five years
b) Never
c) Only on transfer
d) Regularly, and verified by the responsible officer
Answer: d) Regularly, and verified by the responsible officer
117. Purchases of stores for public service should be made:
a) In the most economical manner, in accordance with the procurement rules
b) From a relative
c) At the highest price
d) Without quotations
Answer: a) In the most economical manner, in accordance with the procurement rules
118. Splitting of an indent or expenditure to avoid the sanction of a higher authority is:
a) Required
b) Irregular and prohibited
c) Encouraged
d) Neutral
Answer: b) Irregular and prohibited
119. A liability once incurred must be discharged:
a) Only after audit
b) Only after five years
c) Promptly, and not deferred to conceal an excess
d) At the officer’s convenience
Answer: c) Promptly, and not deferred to conceal an excess
120. Rush of expenditure in the closing month of the financial year is regarded as:
a) Good practice
b) Mandatory
c) A saving
d) A breach of financial propriety
Answer: d) A breach of financial propriety
GOVERNMENT ACCOUNTING AND THE NEW ACCOUNTING MODEL
121. The office responsible for preparing the accounts of the Federation is headed by the:
a) Controller General of Accounts
b) Chief Election Commissioner
c) Cabinet Secretary
d) Speaker
Answer: a) Controller General of Accounts
122. The office of the Controller General of Accounts was established under an Ordinance promulgated in:
a) 1973
b) 1985
c) 2001
d) 2010
Answer: c) 2001
123. The Accountant General Pakistan Revenues is responsible for the accounts of the:
a) District governments
b) Autonomous bodies only
c) Federal Government
d) Provincial Governments only
Answer: c) Federal Government
124. The accounting system introduced to modernise government accounting in Pakistan is known as the:
a) Cost Accounting Model
b) Double Entry Trading Model
c) Fund Flow Model
d) New Accounting Model
Answer: d) New Accounting Model
125. The New Accounting Model is based on:
a) The modified cash basis of accounting
b) Pure accrual accounting
c) Trading account principles
d) No basis
Answer: a) The modified cash basis of accounting
126. The project under which financial reporting and auditing in Pakistan were improved is known as:
a) OGRA
b) PIFRA
c) NADRA
d) PEMRA
Answer: b) PIFRA
127. The classification structure used for recording government transactions is the:
a) Electoral Roll
b) Statute Book
c) Chart of Accounts
d) Register of Members
Answer: c) Chart of Accounts
128. The element of the Chart of Accounts that identifies the organisation incurring the expenditure is the:
a) Object element
b) Function element
c) Project element
d) Entity element
Answer: d) Entity element
129. The element of the Chart of Accounts that identifies the nature of the receipt or expenditure is the:
a) Object element
b) Entity element
c) Fund element
d) Project element
Answer: a) Object element
130. The element of the Chart of Accounts that identifies the purpose or sector of expenditure is the:
a) Fund element
b) Function element
c) Object element
d) Entity element
Answer: b) Function element
131. The element of the Chart of Accounts that identifies the source of financing is the:
a) Entity element
b) Function element
c) Fund element
d) Object element
Answer: c) Fund element
132. Under the Chart of Accounts, employee-related expenses are recorded under:
a) Development projects
b) Loans and advances
c) Foreign debt
d) A distinct object classification for pay and allowances
Answer: d) A distinct object classification for pay and allowances
133. The statement showing the amount voted and the amount actually spent against each grant is the:
a) Appropriation Account
b) Annual Budget Statement
c) Economic Survey
d) Finance Bill
Answer: a) Appropriation Account
134. The Appropriation Accounts are prepared by the:
a) Supreme Court
b) Accounts offices under the Controller General of Accounts
c) Election Commission
d) Senate Secretariat
Answer: b) Accounts offices under the Controller General of Accounts
135. The Finance Accounts present:
a) Only foreign loans
b) Only audit paras
c) The receipts and disbursements of Government for the year in a summarised form
d) Only the salaries
Answer: c) The receipts and disbursements of Government for the year in a summarised form
136. A difference between the grant and the actual expenditure which is favourable is called a:
a) Excess
b) Loss
c) Liability
d) Saving
Answer: d) Saving
137. A difference where actual expenditure exceeds the grant is called an:
a) Excess
b) Saving
c) Advance
d) Imprest
Answer: a) Excess
138. Reconciliation of departmental and accounts office figures is carried out:
a) Never
b) Monthly
c) Once in five years
d) Only at year end
Answer: b) Monthly
139. The receipt side of government accounts is classified into:
a) Only foreign aid
b) Only fines
c) Tax revenue and non-tax revenue
d) Only customs duty
Answer: c) Tax revenue and non-tax revenue
140. Suspense accounts in government books are intended to be:
a) Kept open indefinitely
b) Closed after ten years
c) Never reviewed
d) Cleared promptly
Answer: d) Cleared promptly
141. The head of account under which sums held by Government as a banker are recorded is the:
a) Public Account
b) Consolidated Fund
c) Development Fund
d) Privatisation Fund
Answer: a) Public Account
142. The self-accounting entities maintain their own accounts subject to:
a) Only press scrutiny
b) The general principles prescribed by the Auditor-General and the Controller General of Accounts
c) No supervision
d) Only internal orders
Answer: b) The general principles prescribed by the Auditor-General and the Controller General of Accounts
143. Under Article 170, the accounts of the Federation are kept in such form as may be prescribed by the:
a) Prime Minister alone
b) Provincial Government
c) Auditor-General, with the approval of the President
d) Speaker
Answer: c) Auditor-General, with the approval of the President
144. The primary purpose of maintaining government accounts is to:
a) Earn profit
b) Compute dividends
c) Attract investors
d) Demonstrate accountability for the use of public funds
Answer: d) Demonstrate accountability for the use of public funds
145. An accounting entry recording a liability before payment supports:
a) Commitment control
b) Tax collection
c) Election spending
d) Judicial process
Answer: a) Commitment control
146. The monthly civil accounts of the Federal Government are submitted to the:
a) District councils
b) Finance Division and the entities concerned
c) Election Commission
d) Supreme Court
Answer: b) Finance Division and the entities concerned
147. Internal audit within a Ministry is intended to:
a) Prepare the budget
b) Frame policy
c) Strengthen internal control and assist the Principal Accounting Officer
d) Replace external audit
Answer: c) Strengthen internal control and assist the Principal Accounting Officer
148. An unreconciled difference in accounts is objectionable because it:
a) Increases the grant
b) Reduces taxation
c) Creates savings
d) Undermines the reliability of financial reporting
Answer: d) Undermines the reliability of financial reporting
149. Under the modified cash basis, revenues are ordinarily recognised when:
a) Received in cash
b) Earned but unreceived
c) Budgeted
d) Audited
Answer: a) Received in cash
150. The financial statements of the Federal Government are certified by the:
a) Governor State Bank
b) Auditor-General of Pakistan
c) Controller General of Accounts
d) Finance Secretary
Answer: b) Auditor-General of Pakistan
AUDIT, THE AUDITOR-GENERAL AND THE PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE
151. The Auditor-General’s functions, powers and terms and conditions of service are governed by an Ordinance of:
a) 1973
b) 1985
c) 2001
d) 2011
Answer: c) 2001
152. The Auditor-General of Pakistan holds office for a term of:
a) Five years
b) Six years
c) Three years
d) Four years
Answer: d) Four years
153. The Auditor-General vacates office on attaining the age of:
a) 60 years
b) 62 years
c) 65 years
d) 68 years
Answer: c) 65 years
154. The Auditor-General can be removed from office in the manner provided for a:
a) Provincial Secretary
b) Judge of the Supreme Court
c) Section Officer
d) Federal Minister
Answer: b) Judge of the Supreme Court
155. The audit of the accounts of the Federation and the Provinces is conducted by the:
a) Finance Division
b) State Bank of Pakistan
c) Auditor-General of Pakistan
d) Controller General of Accounts
Answer: c) Auditor-General of Pakistan
156. Audit which examines whether expenditure conforms to the applicable rules and authority is called:
a) Performance audit
b) Certification audit
c) Forensic audit
d) Compliance or regularity audit
Answer: d) Compliance or regularity audit
157. Audit which examines economy, efficiency and effectiveness is called:
a) Performance audit
b) Regularity audit
c) Certification audit
d) Transaction audit
Answer: a) Performance audit
158. Audit which results in an opinion on the financial statements is called:
a) Special study
b) Certification audit
c) Performance audit
d) Compliance audit
Answer: b) Certification audit
159. Audit is essentially an instrument of:
a) Judicial appointment
b) Election management
c) Legislative control over the executive’s use of public funds
d) Executive control over the legislature
Answer: c) Legislative control over the executive’s use of public funds
160. An audit observation communicated to the auditee during the audit is called an:
a) Appropriation account
b) Ordinance
c) Assurance
d) Audit memorandum or observation
Answer: d) Audit memorandum or observation
161. Observations not settled at the field level are included in the:
a) Audit and Inspection Report
b) Finance Bill
c) Budget speech
d) Economic Survey
Answer: a) Audit and Inspection Report
162. Significant unsettled observations are incorporated in the Auditor-General’s:
a) Trade report
b) Annual Audit Report
c) Election report
d) Census report
Answer: b) Annual Audit Report
163. The forum within a Ministry that examines audit observations before they reach Parliament is the:
a) Selection Board
b) Union Council
c) Departmental Accounts Committee
d) Cabinet Committee
Answer: c) Departmental Accounts Committee
164. The Departmental Accounts Committee is chaired by the:
a) Auditor-General
b) Speaker
c) Finance Minister
d) Principal Accounting Officer
Answer: d) Principal Accounting Officer
165. The parliamentary committee that examines the Auditor-General’s reports on the Federal accounts is the:
a) Public Accounts Committee
b) Standing Committee on Foreign Affairs
c) Privileges Committee
d) Rules Committee
Answer: a) Public Accounts Committee
166. By convention, the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is drawn from the:
a) Bureaucracy
b) Opposition
c) Treasury benches only
d) Judiciary
Answer: b) Opposition
167. The officer who appears before the Public Accounts Committee on behalf of a Division is the:
a) Minister
b) Auditor-General
c) Principal Accounting Officer
d) Section Officer
Answer: c) Principal Accounting Officer
168. A recommendation of the Public Accounts Committee is:
a) Purely optional
b) Binding on the courts
c) Addressed to the provinces
d) To be implemented by the Division and its compliance reported
Answer: d) To be implemented by the Division and its compliance reported
169. An audit para relating to a recoverable amount is settled when:
a) Recovery is effected and verified by audit
b) The officer is transferred
c) The file is closed
d) The year ends
Answer: a) Recovery is effected and verified by audit
170. The Auditor-General has the authority to:
a) Pass judgments
b) Access all books, papers and records relating to the accounts audited
c) Frame the budget
d) Appoint Secretaries
Answer: b) Access all books, papers and records relating to the accounts audited
171. Audit of the receipts of Government examines whether:
a) Only stores are verified
b) Only foreign aid is received
c) The assessment, collection and allocation of revenue are properly made
d) Only salaries are correct
Answer: c) The assessment, collection and allocation of revenue are properly made
172. Audit of stores and stock examines whether:
a) Only cash is correct
b) Only pay bills are correct
c) Only pensions are correct
d) Purchases, custody and issue of stores are properly regulated
Answer: d) Purchases, custody and issue of stores are properly regulated
173. Expenditure incurred without competent sanction is reported by audit as:
a) Irregular expenditure
b) A saving
c) An excess grant
d) A supplementary grant
Answer: a) Irregular expenditure
174. A payment made in excess of the entitlement is reported by audit as an:
a) Imprest
b) Overpayment
c) Underpayment
d) Advance
Answer: b) Overpayment
175. Non-production of record to audit is treated as a:
a) Saving
b) Reconciliation
c) Serious irregularity
d) Minor lapse to be ignored
Answer: c) Serious irregularity
176. The independence of the Auditor-General is secured principally by:
a) Appointment by a Division
b) Annual renewal of contract
c) Departmental control
d) Constitutional protection of tenure and charged remuneration
Answer: d) Constitutional protection of tenure and charged remuneration
177. An internal control system is designed primarily to:
a) Provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives and safeguarding of assets
b) Guarantee profit
c) Replace legislation
d) Eliminate audit
Answer: a) Provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives and safeguarding of assets
178. Segregation of duties is an internal control that seeks to prevent:
a) Reconciliation
b) One person controlling all stages of a transaction
c) Delegation of powers
d) Budget preparation
Answer: b) One person controlling all stages of a transaction
179. The special audit of a particular transaction or entity may be ordered by the:
a) Press
b) Political party
c) Auditor-General or the competent authority as prescribed
d) Section Officer
Answer: c) Auditor-General or the competent authority as prescribed
180. The ultimate accountability for public funds in a parliamentary system rests with:
a) The bureaucracy
b) The judiciary
c) The press
d) Parliament
Answer: d) Parliament
TREASURY OPERATIONS, DEBT AND FISCAL MANAGEMENT
181. The rules governing the receipt, custody and payment of government money at treasuries are the:
a) Federal Treasury Rules
b) Election Rules
c) Conduct Rules
d) Rules of Business
Answer: a) Federal Treasury Rules
182. The banker to the Federal Government is the:
a) Securities and Exchange Commission
b) State Bank of Pakistan
c) Federal Board of Revenue
d) National Savings
Answer: b) State Bank of Pakistan
183. A cheque drawn on Government must be:
a) Drawn without limit
b) Issued in blank
c) Supported by an authority and drawn by an authorised officer
d) Signed by any employee
Answer: c) Supported by an authority and drawn by an authorised officer
184. The specimen signatures of Drawing and Disbursing Officers are supplied to the:
a) Press
b) District council
c) Election Commission
d) Accounts office and bank concerned
Answer: d) Accounts office and bank concerned
185. Government revenue is required to be deposited into the treasury:
a) Without undue delay
b) At the end of the year
c) Once in five years
d) Only when convenient
Answer: a) Without undue delay
186. The Fiscal Responsibility and Debt Limitation Act seeks to:
a) Regulate elections
b) Limit public debt and promote fiscal discipline
c) Increase borrowing
d) Abolish taxation
Answer: b) Limit public debt and promote fiscal discipline
187. Domestic and external borrowing of the Federal Government is managed principally by the:
a) Cabinet Division
b) Supreme Court
c) Finance Division and its Debt Office
d) Election Commission
Answer: c) Finance Division and its Debt Office
188. A guarantee given by the Federal Government creates a:
a) Current asset
b) Revenue receipt
c) Capital receipt
d) Contingent liability
Answer: d) Contingent liability
189. The difference between total expenditure and total revenue in a financial year is the:
a) Fiscal deficit
b) Trade deficit
c) Current account deficit
d) Primary surplus
Answer: a) Fiscal deficit
190. The fiscal deficit excluding interest payments is known as the:
a) Budget surplus
b) Primary deficit
c) Revenue deficit
d) Trade deficit
Answer: b) Primary deficit
191. Financing of the fiscal deficit is ordinarily achieved through:
a) Audit reports
b) Cut motions
c) Domestic and external borrowing
d) Printing budget documents
Answer: c) Domestic and external borrowing
192. Divisible pool taxes are distributed between the Federation and the Provinces under an award of the:
a) Council of Common Interests
b) Election Commission
c) Senate
d) National Finance Commission
Answer: d) National Finance Commission
193. Under the 7th National Finance Commission Award, the criterion given the greatest weight in horizontal distribution among provinces is:
a) Population
b) Area only
c) Revenue collection only
d) Literacy only
Answer: a) Population
194. Straight transfers to provinces relate to:
a) Judicial salaries
b) Royalties and levies collected on their behalf
c) Foreign loans
d) Defence expenditure
Answer: b) Royalties and levies collected on their behalf
195. A cash surplus target for a province is agreed with the:
a) Supreme Court
b) Local council
c) Federal Government under the fiscal framework
d) Election Commission
Answer: c) Federal Government under the fiscal framework
196. Public procurement by federal entities is regulated by rules framed under an Ordinance of:
a) 1998
b) 2000
c) 2002
d) 2006
Answer: c) 2002
197. A performance guarantee taken from a contractor is intended to secure:
a) Due performance of the contract
b) Payment of tax
c) Election expenses
d) Audit fees
Answer: a) Due performance of the contract
198. Advance payment to a supplier is ordinarily:
a) Prohibited absolutely in all cases
b) Avoided and permitted only under prescribed safeguards
c) Freely allowed
d) Mandatory
Answer: b) Avoided and permitted only under prescribed safeguards
199. A contract creating a liability on public funds requires:
a) Only press notification
b) Only audit clearance
c) Competent financial sanction and budgetary provision
d) Only a verbal agreement
Answer: c) Competent financial sanction and budgetary provision
200. The overriding objective of public financial management is:
a) Maximum spending
b) Minimum reporting
c) Avoidance of audit
d) Fiscal discipline, strategic allocation and efficient service delivery
Answer: d) Fiscal discipline, strategic allocation and efficient service delivery
Download Now: Computer Science Study Material Download Now: Who is Who in Pakistan & Who is Who in the World Study Material